资源简介

2025-2026 英语听力材料
第一节 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
听下面 5段对话。选择与对话内容相对应的图片。每段对话读两遍。
1. W:What does Tom look like Is he short or tall
M:Well, he’s really tall. And he has curly hair.
2. W: What would you like
M:OK, I’d like beef noodles with tomatoes, please.
3. M: Hey, Tina. Where did you go on vacation
W: I went to the mountains with my family.
4. M: Hi, Lin Hui, what are you watching
W:Hey, Sally, I’m watching a really funny movie.
5. M: You don’t look well. Your face looks a bit red.
W: Yeah, and my head feels very hot. What should I do
M: Maybe you have a fever. You should take your temperature.
第二节 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
听下面 2段对话。第一段对话后有 2个小题，第二段对话后有 3个小题，从题中所给的 A、
B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟。
每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第 6和 7小题。
W: Oh, no, we just missed the bus.
M: Take it easy, Mary. There will be another one in 15 minutes.
W: That means I will get on the bus at half past five and get home at about six o’clock. That’s a
little late.
M: Do you have anything special to do tonight
W: I’ll watch a ping-pong game first. Then do some reading after dinner as usual.
M:Oh, you have a good living habit. Have a nice evening.
听第二段对话，回答第 8至 10小题。
M: This is Tom. May I speak to Miss Wang
W: Tom Glad to hear your voice.
M:Miss Wang. May I know the result of our English exam I’m really stressed out because I made
many mistakes.
W:Just take it easy. Tom! The result hasn’t come out. Maybe you didn’t do so badly.
M:I hope so. But many classmates performed well. What if I get a bad grade
W: Don’t worry. Learning from mistakes is more important. Pay more attention next time.
M:Thanks a lot, Miss Wang. You always give me much encouragement.
第三节 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
听下面 1段独白。独白后有 5个判断题，正确的用“A”表示，不正确的用“B”表示。听独白
前，你将有 30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段独白读两遍。
Good morning, everyone,
Today, I want to talk about why exercise is so important for teenagers. I used to think
exercise was boring and hard, but last year, I started running with a friend. At first, it was difficult,
but soon I felt stronger, slept better, and had more energy. I even felt less stressed, and I could
focus more.
Exercise helps us stay healthy. It makes our muscles and bones strong, helps us sleep, and
improves our mood. It also reduces stress and helps us think clearly. Experts say the total time for
physical activities should be no less than two hours a day. The best part of exercise is that it doesn’
t have to be boring. You can run, bike, dance or even walk with friends.
Starting now will help us stay healthy as we grow up. Exercise isn’t just about being fit—it’s
about feeling good and doing our best. So, let’s get moving!
第四节 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
听下面 1段对话。对话后有 5个填空题，根据所听内容在空白处填入适当的单词，每空词
数不限。听对话前，你将有 30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段对话读三遍。
M: Hi,everyone. Today we will interview Cindy. She would like to share some of her study
experience. Welcome!
W: Hello, everyone. I’m Cindy. I’m glad to be here to share my experience with you.
M: Cindy, most of the students want to know how to learn English well.
W: So do I. But we should take it easy and do something useful.
M: Something really useful What’s that
W: For me, I used to listen to a lot of English songs. It really helps a lot.
M: Sounds fun.
W:Besides that, watching English movies is also a good way to improve our pronunciation even
though sometimes we can’t understand everything these characters say.
M: I used to do that, too.It was really helpful!
W: And remember that your teacher’s help is one of the most important things. Go and ask them
for help whenever you are in need.
M: Yes. Whenever we need help, our teachers are always here.
W: Sure. That’s why I love my teachers very much.
M:OK. Thanks, Cindy!
W: You’re welcome.2025—2026学年度下学期阶段质量监测
九 年 级 英 语 试 题
2026.05
注意事项：
1.本试卷分试题卷和答题卡两部分。总分 100 分，时长 120 分钟。
2.答卷前考生务必用 0.5 毫米黑色墨水签字笔将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号填写在试题卷
和答题卡规定的位置。考生须在答题卡规定的区域内答题，在试题卷上答题不得分。选择
题须用 2B 铅笔填涂，非选择题须用 0.5 毫米黑色墨水签字笔书写。
3.考试结束后，将本试题卷和答题卡一并交回。
试 题 卷
第一部分 听力测试（共四节，满分 20分）
第一节 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
听下面 5段对话。选择与对话内容相对应的图片。每段对话读两遍。
A B C
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D E F
1.________ 2. ________ 3. ________ 4. _________ 5. ________
第二节 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
听下面 2段对话。第一段对话后有 2个小题，第二段对话后有 3个小题，从
题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅
读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟。每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第 6和 7小题。
6. How long does it take Mary to get home by bus
A. About 15 minutes. B. About 30 minutes. C. About 45 minutes.
7. What will Mary do first when she gets home
A.Have dinner. B. Watch a game. C. Do some reading.
听第二段对话，回答第 8至 10小题。
8. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In the classroom. B. Over the phone. C. In the office.
9. Why does the man feel stressed out
A. He can’t speak English well. B. He can’t get on well with classmates.
C. He didn’t do well in the exam.
10. What is the woman’s suggestion
A. Communicating with classmates. B. Paying attention to teachers.
C. Learning from mistakes.
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第三节 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
听下面 1段独白。独白后有 5个判断题，正确的用“A”表示，不正确的用“B”
表示。听独白前，你将有 30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段独白读两遍。
11. The speaker used to think exercise was boring and difficult.
12. The speaker started swimming with a friend last year.
13. Exercise can help reduce stress and help us think clearly.
14. Experts suggest teenagers should exercise for at least 1 hour a day.
15. Exercise can only be done in boring ways.
第四节 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
听下面 1段对话。对话后有 5个填空题，根据所听内容在空白处填入适当的
单词，每空词数不限。听对话前，你将有 30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段对
话读三遍。
16. What is Cindy glad to do
Cindy is glad to share her study _____________________ with everyone.
17. What’s Cindy’s first idea to learn English well
We should take it easy and do something ________________.
18. How did Cindy fall in love with English
Cindy used to ___________________a lot of English songs.
19. What is also a good way to improve our pronunciation
Watching ___________________is also a good way to improve our pronunciation.
20. When should we go and ask our teachers for help
We should go and ask our teachers for help whenever we are ________________.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 30分）
第一节（共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
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A
CPR (心肺复苏术) is an important skill. It can save the life of someone whose
heart has stopped suddenly. By learning these steps, you can save a life!
1. Shake and shout. 2. Call 120. 3. Check for breathing.
5. Push hard and fast
6. If you’ve had training, repeat
4. Place your hands at — about twice per cycles of 30 chest pushes and 2
the center of their second. rescue breaths (人工呼吸) until
chest. normal breathing returns or
help arrives.
MORE DETAILS Head tilt( ) Push Depth Breaths倾斜
Adults & Kids Yes 2 hands about 5 cm Full breaths
Infants (birth—age 1) No 2 fingers about 4 cm Puffs (间断呼气)
21. What is the first step of CPR
A. Push the chest. B. Call 120. C. Shake and shout.
22. Which is NOT right when pushing the chest for an adult
A. Push with 2 hands.
B. Push at the depth of about 4 cm.
C. Push hard and fast.
23. What is the main purpose of this passage
A. To tell people how to stay health.
B. To teach people basic CPR steps and details.
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C. To explain why CPR is important in hospitals.
B
You either have it ---- a sense of direction (方向感), or you don't. But why can
some people find their way across the Sahara (撒哈拉沙漠 ) without a map, while
others lose themselves on the next street
Scientists say we’re all born with a sense of direction, but it is not really
understood how it works. One theory (理论 ) is that people with a good sense of
direction have simply worked harder at developing it. Research being carried out at
Liverpool University (利物浦大学) agrees with this idea and suggests that if we don't
use it, we will lose it.
“Children as young as seven has the ability to find their way around” says Jim
Martland, research director of the project (项目负责人). “However， if they are not
allowed out alone or are taken everywhere by car, they will never develop the skills.”
Jim Martland also believes that young people should be taught certain skills to
improve their sense of direction. He makes the following advice:
If you are using a map, turn it so it connects with the way you are facing.
If you leave your bike in a strange place, put it near something like a big stone
or a tree. Note landmarks (地标) on the way as you go away from your bike. When
you return, go back along the same way.
Simplify (简化 ) the way of finding your direction by using lines such as
streets in your town, small rivers or walls in the countryside to guide you. Count your
steps so that you know how far you have gone, and note any landmarks such as towers
or hills which can help to find out where you are.
Now you may never get lost again !
24. What's the scientists’ idea according to Paragraph 2
A. People never lose their sense of direction.
B. Some babies are born with a sense of direction.
C. Everybody owns a sense of direction from birth.
25. Which of the following is TRUE about seven-year-old children according to the
text
A. They never have a sense of direction without maps.
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B. They have a sense of direction and can find their way around.
C. They should never be allowed out alone if they don't have a sense of direction.
26. What should you do if you leave your bike in a strange place
A. Tie it to a tree in order to stop it from being stolen.
B. Remember something easily knowing on the way.
C. Draw a map to help remember where it is.
27. What can you learn from this text
A. There are some ways to improve the sense of direction.
B. People always don't notice the landmarks on their way.
C. Somebody is born with a sense of direction and it can be improved.
C
All through grade school, I got extra help with schoolwork. If I got a D, I was
very happy. If I got a C-minus (C-), I had achieved greatness. A’s and B’s were a
kingdom (王国) I could never enter.
Once my teacher, Miss Mills, had given me a list of ten spelling words, My mother
and I went over the list until I knew those words, I felt great. I thought, “Wow! This
time, I’m going to pass,” The next day, I went into the classroom and began to write
down the words. The first word was carpet. I wrote that one down: c-a-r-p-e-t. I was
feeling pretty confident. Then came neighbor ---- I wrote down the letter n. Then
rhythm ---- I knew there was an r. Suburban ---- I wrote s-u-b. My confidence failed
me. I had gone from 100 percent to maybe a D-minus. Where did the words go
Some people talk about information sliding off your brain. That was my life. I was
an underachiever (未能充分发挥学习潜力者).
Now I know I have dyslexia (诵读困难症). A person with dyslexia might see the
as teh, and bird as brid. My brain learns differently. A learning disability can really
change the way you feel about yourself. Now I know that even if I learn differently, I
can still be filled with greatness.
Today when I visit schools as an actor, director, and co-author of children’s books,
I tell children that everyone has something special inside. It’s our job to find out what
that is and get it out, and give it to the world as a gift.
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28. What’s the writer’s problem in grade school
A. He had trouble spelling.
B. He often got C-minuses.
C. He had a physical disability.
29. What happened to the writer during the spelling test
A. He wrote down 20% words correctly.
B. He studied hard and passed the test.
C. He forgot most of the words he had learned.
30. What does the underlined phrase “sliding off your brain” probably mean
A. Information is stored deeply in memory.
B. Information is easily forgotten.
C. Information is hard to understand.
31. What is the main message the writer wants to tell children
A. Everyone should get good grades in school.
B. Everyone with learning disabilities can never achieve success.
C. Everyone has something special inside and should find it.
D
The 2026 Spring Festival Gala brought a big surprise to the world, as humanoid
robots (类人机器人 ) became the real stars of the night. Four top Chinese robot
companies showed their cutting-edge products on the big stage. This amazing show
not only entertained millions of people but also proved that China’s robot industry is
moving fast from labs to our real lives.
Unitree Technology, a famous name at the Gala, worked together with Henan
Tagou Wushu School. They presented a wonderful martial arts program called Wu
BOT. They performed very difficult moves, such as backflips (后空翻 ). It was a
perfect mix of traditional Chinese culture and modern technology.
Another company, Moyuan Technology, brought flexible quadruped robots (四足
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机 器 人 ). These robots can walk smoothly and avoid obstacles (障 碍 物 ) by
themselves. This technology is very useful for searching and saving people in
dangerous places. At the same time, Galbot’s robots caught everyone’s eyes. They are
very smart because they can make their own decisions and even have a short, funny
chat with the hosts.
But there was a big difference between this year and last year. Last year, the
robots could only twirl handkerchiefs (转手帕) and dance Yangko (秧歌). This year,
they performed parkour (跑酷) and martial arts like Drunken Fist and nunchaku. They
made all kinds of difficult flips without a single fall. They could hold light sticks and
show beautiful skills at the end of the show.
Many experts call 2026 the “first year of humanoid robots”. These stage stars
show China’s great technological progress. They are getting ready for robots to enter
our homes and help us with daily chores in the near future. The dream of living with
robots is coming true.
32. What does the underlined word “cutting-edge” in Paragraph 1 mean
A. Cheap and useful.
B. Sharp and dangerous.
C. New and advanced.
33. Which of the following is TURE about Galbot’s robots
A. They are flexible four-legged robots.
B. They can talk with the hosts in a fun way.
C. They can teach Kung Fu in Tagou Wushu School.
34. Why does the author mention last year’s robot performance
A. To show that last year’s robots were not as good as this year’s.
B. To explain that robots have made great progress in just one year.
C. To prove (证明) that China’s robot industry is still in its early stages.
35. What can we infer (推断) from the passage
A. China’s robot technology is developing very fast.
B. Robots will take the place of humans soon.
C. Robots are widely used in people’s daily life now.
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第二节 (共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中
有一项为多余选项。
These days, a popular Chinese phrase, “Love You, laoji”(爱你老几), has spread
quickly online, especially among young people. At first, it sounded funny and casual,
but behind the humor lies an important question: how can we truly love ourselves in a
healthy way
Loving yourself doesn’t mean being selfish or ignoring others. 36 Here are
some practical ways to do it:
Listen to your body. Try to keep a regular sleep schedule and eat healthy food.
When you feel tired, give yourself permission to rest. 37 For example, if your
parents or teachers expect you to join too many after-school classes, you can talk to
them about your real needs. It’s better to choose one or two hobbies you really like
instead of trying to do everything at once.
Be kind to your mind. 38 Instead of hiding these feelings, talk to
someone you trust or write them down in a journal. Remember, mistakes are part of
learning—don’t be too strict with yourself. If you fail an exam, don’t lose heart. Think
about what you can do better next time.
Set healthy limits. It’s okay to say “no” when you are too busy or uncomfortable
with something. Protecting your time and energy helps you stay positive and focused.
39 Whether it’s drawing, sports, or playing an instrument, doing things you
enjoy can bring you joy and a sense of achievement.
“Love Your Own Self” is more than a popular phrase. It reminds us that before we
care for others, we must learn to care for ourselves. 40
A. It’s normal to feel sad or stressed sometimes.
B. Instead, it’s about taking care of your body and mind.
C. Little acts of kindness can have a big influence.
D. Develop a hobby.
E. Don’t push yourself too hard just to meet others’ expectations.
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F. Start with small steps today, and you’ll find life becoming brighter and more
meaningful.
答案: 36. _________ 37. __________ 38. __________ 39. __________ 40. __________
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分 20分）
第一节 (共 6 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 6 分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处
的最佳选项。
From Bali to Hawaii, from Turkey to Iceland, 26-year-old Jimmy Antram has
“seen” plenty of the world which seems impossible for him. But it has all been from
the vantage point (制高点 ) of his mother’s back. Niki Antram made a promise to
herself: she would give her 41 son the best life she could. For years, she has
traveled around the world with Jimmy on her back.
Jimmy was born with physical and mental (精 神 的 ) disabilities, 42
blindness, and requires round-the-clock care from Ms. Antram. He has a wheelchair,
but Ms. Antram has never enjoyed using it. She’s happy to carry him when she is
strong enough and helps him walk short distances on his own. Amazing photos taken
all over the world show their great love for life.
Ms. Antram makes a detailed plan and calls ahead for every place she wants to
visit. “Even if I know we will be okay, I like to tell the companies to make sure they
43 us and welcome us,” she says.
She counts herself lucky that they have 44 interests. They both enjoy the
outdoors, the water and adventures.
When they’re not travelling, they wake up in the morning and go for a bike ride.
They smile and wave to their neighbors. People who were once strangers have come to
know and love Jimmy, and admire Ms. Antram for her 45 . Before their early
outing, she’s already made breakfast, fed Jimmy and dressed him for the day. She does
all this carefully every single day. Her schedule is tiring, but she’s determined to give
Jimmy the best life she can provide.
Ms. Antram says her heart “broke” the day she learned her son was blind forever
and it took a long time to overcome those feelings of hurt. “Being a mom, I don’t have
the easy and free life that most mothers have,” she says, “but it’s my 46 .”
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41. A. smart B. disabled C. poor
42. A. except B. with C. including
43. A. understand B. forget C. control
44. A. different B. similar C. difficult
45. A. wealth B. courage C. beauty
46. A. duty B. dream C. idea
第二节 (共 6 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 6 分)
阅读下面短文，从方框中的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中
有一项为多余选项。
A. Generally B.convenient C.while D.pleasure E. is connected
F.their G.have become
Different countries have different dining habits and tools. At the dinner table,
Westerners use knives and forks, 47 the Chinese use chopsticks. Since at least
3,000 years ago, chopsticks 48 the eating tool for Chinese people. During the
Pottery Age (陶器时代), ancient Chinese people used pottery pots to cook. And they
used branches or bamboo sticks to pick up the food. Later on, they developed the habit
of using the chopsticks.
49 , the materials of chopsticks can be divided into five groups: bamboo and
wood, metal, jade, bone and chemical plastics. In modern Chinese family life, people
prefer to use the bamboo or wooden chopsticks because they are friendly to the
environment and cost a little.
Using knives and forks or chopsticks brings about a difference in lifestyle. The
use of knives and forks makes it much more 50 for people to eat individually (单
独地). And the use of chopsticks makes it possible for people to have meals together
with their family members. As the Westerners prefer to eat individually, they have the
idea and habit of not depending on others after they grow into adults. The way that
Chinese people use chopsticks 51 with the lifestyle of the Chinese family. They
like eating with others around the table.
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Nowadays, an increasing number of foreign students come to China. They are
happy to learn to use chopsticks and enjoy the 52 of eating with friends.
Chopsticks are going out into the world.
47. _______ 48. _______ 49. _______ 50. _______ 51. _______ 52. _______
第三节（共 8 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 8 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Our English teacher asked us to read an article in the textbook named “Stonehenge”
the other day. While I 53 (read), I couldn’t help thinking about the tour of
Stonehenge last summer when my family went to London—the capital city in the UK.
The moment we arrived in London, we immediately searched the information and the
route (路线) to the mysterious place. The distance between them is about 136 kilometers.
Stonehenge is a huge stone circle made up of many heavy stones. It 54 (believe) that
the old huge stones were put together almost 5,000 years ago. We went there on a
two-hour bus tour from London.
When we arrived there at about 10 a.m., visitors of all ages had already begun their
tours. I could not wait 55 (join) them. Some men in uniform guided us to walk along
the paths (路) around the large and heavy stone monument (石碑). Walking along them,
I felt as if I had stepped back 5,000 years. The 56 (weigh) of each stone must be
several tons. Looking at them in surprise, I wondered how ancient people could make
those huge stones stand 57 the help of modern technology.
Questions flooded (充满) my mind: Why did they build Stonehenge How long did
they spend building it I could not imagine how many people worked together to build this
monument.
As we stopped to take pictures, I saw a girl drawing the stone monument 58
(careful). She was getting inspiration from it for her artwork.
Stonehenge is a place that has inspired and amazed people from all over 59
world for centuries. 60 you want to try a person’s journey to England, take the
time to see the great stone monument in person.
答案：53. _______ 54. _______ 55. ________ 56. ________ 57. _______
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58. _______ 59. _______ 60. ________
第四部分 阅读表达 (共 5小题；每小题 2分，满分 10分)
阅读下面短文，按照题目要求用英语回答问题。
We do everything in a hurry—finishing our meals, completing our tasks, running to
the gyms…We choose fast living because we think we have no control of time. We try to
do as much as we can each day, checking off tasks on our to-do lists. Living in a rush feels
like we are always pressed for time.
We always care too much about speed,we want to do more things instead of doing
them well. For a long time, we believe that speed means being productive (富有成效的)
and successful, and therefore, we keep rushing here and there in doing everything. Yet
from time to time, we find ourselves in a predicament (困境) that no matter how fast we
go, we never seem to be quick enough to catch up with our endless tasks and goals.
The SlowMoveslowment thinks that the answer to our predicament is not to live
faster, but to learn how to live slower. The movement began with the Slow Food Program,
which was set up in 1986. It believed that we should fight against fast-food restaurants,
protect traditional cooking, and encourage people to enjoy preparing and eating food.
The belief finally spread from the Slow Food Program to other parts of life. In 1999,
it helped create Cittaslow—a group focused on slowing down life in cities. This belief
about slowing down quickly began to influence areas like work, travel, fashion, and living
in general.
The main idea of the SlowMovement is to value quality over quantity (数量). Slow
living is a lifestyle based on the SlowMovement. Its goal is to free us from endless rush
that stops us from enjoying moments of rest. Slow living encourages us to live each
moment whole-heartedly and give everything the time it needs, rather than try to do as
many things as possible in every minute of our lives. Today, more people are drawn to the
idea of the SlowMovement, thanks to social media sharing the many benefits of living
slowly.
61. Why do people choose fast living
_______________________________________________________________________________
13
62. Do we believe that speed means being productive and successful for a long time
_____________________________________________________________________
63. What is the answer to our predicament, according to the Slow Movement
_____________________________________________________________________
64. When was the Slow Food Program set up
_____________________________________________________________________
65. Which lifestyle do you prefer, fast living or slow living Why (List two reasons)
_____________________________________________________________________
第五部分 补全对话（共 4小题；第 68小题 2分，其余每小题 1分，满分 5分）
阅读下面对话，在每个空白处填入一个适当的句子，使对话完整，合乎情境。
Kate: Hi, Tom! I heard you won the first prize in the English speech contest.
Congratulations!
Tom: Thank you, Kate. I’m really happy about it.
Kate: Your medal looks really nice. 66. _________________________
Tom: It’s made of gold.
Kate: You must practice hard! 67. _________________________
Tom:I practice speaking by having conversations with friends.
Kate: That’s why you did so well. What was you topic of your speech
Tom: The topic was “Protecting Our Environment”. I talked about how we can save
the earth.
Kate: That’s a great topic. What can we do to protect the environment
Tom: 68. _________________________. It’s also a good idea to bring a bag to go
shopping. I started doing that two years ago.
Kate: I agree. What are your future plans
Tom: I’m going to keep working on my English and read more English Books. I plan
to join the school debate(辩论) team next term.
Kate: That’s great! 69. _________________________
Tom: I like English books that give me something to think about.
Kate: I’m sure you’ll be successful!
14
答案：66. ___________________________________________________________
67. ___________________________________________________________
68.___________________________________________________________
69. ___________________________________________________________
第六部分 书面表达 (满分 15分)
你校正在举办 “书香校园” 读书月活动，鼓励同学们多读书、读好书、养
成良好的阅读习惯。近期学校开展了关于阅读习惯、阅读收获与未来阅读计划的
主题分享会。请你根据以下提示，写一篇英语短文，在分享会上发言。
提示：
1. What’s your favorite book
2. What changes has reading brought to you
3. Can you give some advice on reading to your classmates
要求：
1.紧扣主题，适当发挥，语言表达准确、语义通顺连贯；
2.词数不少于 80，开头已给出，不计入总词数。
3.文中请不要出现任何真实人名、校名及其它相关信息，否则不予评分。
Dear Friends,
I’m Li Hua. I’m very glad to share my favorite book with you _________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
That’s all. Thank you for your attention.
152025—2026学年度下学期阶段质量监测
九年级英语参考答案
第一部分 听力测试 （共四节，满分 20 分）
1～5 BFEDA 6～10 BBBCC 11～15 ABABB
16. experience 17. useful 18. listen to 19. English movies 20. in need
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 30 分）
21～23 CBB 24～27 CBBA 28～31 ACBC 32～35 CBBA 36～40 BEADF
第三部分 语言运用 （共三节，满分 20 分）
41～46 BCABBA 47～52 CGABED
53. was reading 54. is believed 55. to join 56. weight 57. without 58. carefully 59. the
60. When / If
第四部分 阅读表达 (共 5小题；每小题 2分，满分 10 分)
61. Because they think they have no control of time.
62. Yes./Yes, we do.
63. It is not live faster. / The answer is not live faster, but to learn how to live slower.
64. It is in 1986. / In 1986.
65. I perfer slow living. Because I think quality is more important than quantity and slow living helps us enjoy
moments of rest. / Because it is good for us ...（答案合理即可）
评分说明：
本题共 5个小题，每小题 2分，共 10分。与答案不符者，只要符合本题要求，句意和语法正确，即可得
分；有大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误，可酌情扣分；所写句子虽无语法错误，意思通顺，但与题意
不符者，不得分。
第五部分 补全对话 （共 4小题；第 68 小题 2分，其余每小题 1分，满分 5分）
66. What’s it made of
67. How did you practice speaking
68. We can save electricity by turning off the lights when we leave a room.(答案不唯一，合理即可)
69. What kind of English books do you like
评分说明：
本题共 4个小题，68小题 2分，其它每小题 1分，计 5分。与答案不符者，只要意义正确，且符合情境
交际要求，即可得分；语法、单词拼写错误，评分时视其对交际的影响程度酌情扣分。
第六部分 书面表达 (满分 15 分)
评分说明：本大题共 15分, 请按以下四档标准进行评分。
第一档：(15分)符合题意要求，表达完整，条理清晰，语句通顺，语言正确无误。
第二档：(11—14分)符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清晰，语句较通顺，语言基本无误。
第三档：(6—10分)基本符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清晰，语句较通顺，语言有部分错误。
第四档：(0—5分)不符合题意要求，表达不够清楚，逻辑关系混乱，语言错误很多。
(注意：短文中不得出现考生的姓名、学校及其他相关信息，否则不予评分。)2025—2026学年度下学期期中质量监测
九年级英语试题答题卡
此处请按模板做
非选择题（须用 0.5毫米黑色签字笔书写）
第一部分 听力测试 第四节 （共 5小题；每小题 1分，满分 5分）
16.___________________ 17.____________________ 18._______________________
19.___________________ 20._____________________
第三部分 语言运用 第三节（共 8小题；每小题 1分，满分 8分）
53. __________ 54. __________ 55. ___________ 56. __________ 57. ___________
58. __________ 59. __________ 60.___________
第四部分 阅读表达 (共 5小题；每小题 2分，满分 10分)
61. ______________________________________________________________________
62. ______________________________________________________________________
63. ______________________________________________________________________
1
64. ______________________________________________________________________
65. ______________________________________________________________________
第五部分 补全对话（共 4小题；第 68小题 2分，其余每小题 1分，满分 5分）
66. ______________________________________________________________________
67. ______________________________________________________________________
68. ______________________________________________________________________
69. ______________________________________________________________________
第六部分 书面表达 (满分 15分)
Dear friends,
I’m Li Hua. I’m very glad to share my favorite book with you. ______________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
2
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
That’s all. Thank you for your attention.
3

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