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2025学年第二学期七年级期中学业水平监测英语卷
2026.5
亲爱的同学：
欢迎参加考试！请你认真审题，细心答题，发挥最佳水平。答题时，请注意以下几点：
1．全卷共8页，有八大题，61小题。全卷满分100分。考试时间90分钟。
2．请用2B铅笔将选择题的答案填涂在答题卷相应位置上，用0.5毫米及以上黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔将主观题的答案写在答题卷相应的答题区内。写在试题卷、草稿纸上均无效。
一、听力（本题共三节，第一节每小题1分；第二、三节每小题1.5分。共20分）
第一节：听小对话，请从A、B、C三个选项中选择符合对话内容的图片。
1. Which sound do you hear
A. B. C.
2. What would James like to have after dinner
A. B. C.
3. How does Jack go to school
A. B. C.
4. What is Mike’s favourite sport
A. B. C.
5. Where are probably the two speakers
A. B. C.
第二节：听较长对话，请从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确的选项，回答问题。
听第一段较长对话，回答第6-7小题。
6. What did David do on the weekend
A. Went climbing. B. Made a cake. C. Played chess.
7. How long did Judy stay in the museum
A. For three hours. B. For four hours. C. For five hours.
听第二段较长对话，回答第8-10小题。
8. Why does Bill cook a dish
A. For his mom’s birthday. B. For school food festival. C. For a family dinner.
9. Who will teach Bill to cook the dish
A. His teacher. B. His grandmother. C. His mother.
10. How might Bill feel at last
A. Excited B. Worried. C. Bored.
第三节：听独白，请从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确的选项，完成信息记录表。
A New Club
Name 11
Time Every 12 from 3:30 pm to 4:30 pm
Place In the 13
Activities · Read wonderful books · 14
A special event Book Fair Day
Purpose To help students 15
11. A. Reading Friends B. Book Lovers C. Happy Readers
12. A. Monday B. Friday C. Sunday
13. A. reading room B. library C. school garden
14. A. Learn new words B. Play reading games C. Share reading thoughts
15. A. improve reading skills B. learn to write stories C. sell their books
二、阅读理解（本题有10小题，每小题2分，共20分）
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Date: 18 May Time: 10:00 am-12:00 pm Place: School Hall
Tanghulu Time Tanghulu is a winter favourite in Beijing. People put sweet haws or other fruits on a stick. It first became popular in the Song Dynasty. Sweet, sour and fun!
Tea Eggs Story Tea eggs are cooked with tea leaves, spices, and rock candy. They started in the Qing Dynasty. People eat them at the Beginning of Summer, one of the 24 solar terms. One egg, one story.
Sugar-Roasted Chestnuts Joy When winter arrives, many Chinese people choose sugar-roasted chestnuts. They began in the Song Dynasty. The golden chestnuts look nice, smell wonderful and taste delicious. Yummy and warm.
Come and Join! Learn to make these traditional snacks. Get a free snack card at the gate. See you at the Food Fair!
16. How long will the fair last
A. 1 hour. B. 2 hours. C. 3 hours. D. 4 hours.
17. What do we know about the three snacks from the passage
A. They are all sweet in taste. B. People eat them only in winter.
C. They have a long history in China. D. People cook them with tea leaves.
18. Where can we read this passage
A. On a school poster. B. In a cookbook. C. In a food survey. D. In a history magazine.
B
Beach volleyball is one of the most interesting sports in the world. In the 1920s, people first played it for fun in California, USA. At that time, only men played beach volleyball. The first two - man beach volleyball game was in 1930. It became an Olympic sport for both men and women in 1996.
To play beach volleyball, you need a ball, a net and lots of sand. In a game, two players play on the sand for each team. If the team gets two sets, they will win the game. Players need to move very fast to hit the ball. It is very challenging to run and jump on the sand because it is not easy to play the game with the sun in your eyes and hot sand under your feet. Players usually jump about 300 times in one game. That’s why they are really strong and healthy.
Playing beach volleyball is never boring because it brings a lot of fun. It also helps people keep healthy and make more friends with sports lovers. So what are you waiting for Go and play this exciting game!
19. What kind of sport is the passage about
A. B. C. D.
20. The underlined word “challenging” means ______.
A. fun B. relaxing C. difficult D. boring
21. What is the main purpose of this passage
A. To tell the history of beach volleyball. B. To explain the rules of beach volleyball.
C. To ask people to play beach volleyball. D. To describe the players of beach volleyball.
C
When Sammie Vance was eight, she watched a video. In the video, she saw a Buddy Bench.
“What’s a Buddy Bench ” Mom asked.
Sammie explained, “If a student feels lonely, he can sit on the bench. Then other students will come and play with him.”
Sammie wanted one for her school, made from plastic bottles (瓶子). Her mom was surprised, but Sammie said a company could turn bottles into benches. “It helps the environment and lonely kids!”
Sammie knew she needed the school’s help. So the next day, she and her mom went to see the headmaster (校长). “We want to recycle (回收利用) bottles and make a Buddy Bench.” Sammie said. The headmaster thought it was a great idea.
Sammie drew a nice picture to tell others about the Buddy Bench. Her mom posted the picture online. They asked friends, family and shops to save bottles for them.
Two months later, they collected more than 1,200 bottles and made three lovely Buddy Benches. Sammie put one bench in the school playground. A little girl sat there quietly. Soon a boy came and said, “Want to play with us ” The girl smiled happily. Seeing the girl smile, Sammie felt warm in her heart.
Now Sammie helps many schools get Buddy Benches. She has given 100 benches to schools in 12 states. Sammie says, “Happiness is not getting. Happiness is giving. When I help others and help the earth, I feel truly happy.”
22. What first gave Sammie the idea of a Buddy Bench
A. Her mother’s advice. B. A video she watched.
C. Her headmaster’s advice. D. A picture she drew.
23. What is the use of a Buddy Bench
A. To make the playground beautiful. B. To help students who feel lonely.
C. To collect plastic bottles. D. To give students a place to rest.
24. What is the correct order of the events
a. Sammie and her mum collected over 1,200 bottles.
b. Sammie watched a video.
c. Sammie and her mum talked to the headmaster.
d. Many schools has got Buddy Benches.
A. b-c-a-d B. a-b-c-d C. b-a-c-d D. c-b-a-d
25. What’s the best title for the passage
A. The Way to Build a Bench B. A Bottle Recycling Plan
C. A School with a Good Idea D.A Helpful Bench for Lonely Kids
三、任务型阅读（本题有5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
阅读以下短文，从A、B、C、D、E中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项（选项中有一项为多余）并回答问题。
How to Make Your Home a Comfortable and Warm Home A home is not just a place to live. It is full of love and care. Do you want to make your home comfortable and warm 26
Keep your room tidy. A clean room makes you feel good. It helps you rest well and study better. 27 Add things you like. Put up happy family photos. Play the music you like. 28 These things make you feel relaxed and happy at home. 29 Share your day with your family. Eat meals together when you can. When you feel sad or tired, your family can help you feel better. Family love makes a home sweet. A comfortable and warm home is not about a big house. It is about small acts of love, tidiness, family time, and personal parts. Start today, and you will love your home more.
A. Enjoy family moments. B. You can also put your favorite flowers in your room. C. A big house is always better than a small one. D. A few minutes of cleaning every day can be really helpful. E. Start with the small things.
30. What will you do to make your home warm and comfortable (不超过15词)
__________________________________________________________________________________________
四、情景交际（本题有5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
以下对话缺失了五个句子，请选用方框内适当的句子补全对话，其中一项为多余选项。
Su Yiming is a famous Chinese snowboarder (单板滑雪选手). He has won many games. Now a reporter is interviewing him.
Reporter: Good afternoon, Su Yiming! Congratulations on your win!
Su: Thank you so much.
Reporter: 31
Su: Wow, I feel so excited and proud.
Reporter: That’s wonderful! 32
Su: Well, I just practise hard every day.
Reporter: Your family must help you a lot. 33
Su: Yeah, they always encourage me.
Reporter: How is your coach
Su: 34 He is really kind and helpful.
Reporter: Did he help you when you were sad
Su: Sure. Once I lost a game, I was really sad. 35
Reporter: That’s so nice. Thank you for talking with us.
Su: You’re welcome.
A. What’s the key to your success B. How do your family help you C. How do you feel as a winner D. Where do you practise E. He talked with me and cheered me up. F. He is like a friend to me.
五、完形填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
阅读短文，掌握大意，然后从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
My daughter Molly was eight. She was afraid to try new things. She felt comfortable and could talk freely to her good friends, but it was hard for 36 to be like that when she was not in the comfort zone (舒适区).
This term, surprisingly, she said she wanted to join her school 37 team. The team had a try-out (选拔) every year to pick the best members. To help her, our family always exercised with her on weekends. When the day of the try - out came, we all 38 in the early morning to cheer her. On the way to school, we 39 all the things she would need and kept talking with her. She looked good. But when we waited for other kids to finish 40 her turn (次序), she held my hand tightly. She was nervous but tried not to show it.
It was a long time to wait. 41 , it was her turn. She stood there with hands shaking. Seeing this, I started to 42 about her. To my surprise, she ran so fast that she was the first to finish the race. She was wearing a big smile on her face.
At that moment, I felt so 43 of my daughter. It wasn’t because she won or did anything like that. It was because she was afraid of something but she made it at last. All day I just looked at her and smiled. I wasn’t the winner myself 44 I felt like I won that day. I won the chance to see the 45 of my daughter Molly.
36. A. me B. him C. her D. them
37. A. running B. swimming C. volleyball D. football
38. A. went over B. got up C. gave up D. went back
39. A. lost B. made C. carried D. posted
40. A. before B. after C. without D. during
41. A. Sadly B. Finally C. Luckily D. Quickly
42. A. forget B. talk C. write D. worry
43. A. tired B. careful C. afraid D. proud
44. A. or B. but C. and D. because
45. A. secret B. choice C. change D. hobby
六、词汇运用（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
A．根据音标或图片信息，用相应单词的正确形式填空。
Saturday, June 15th, Sunny Today, my friends and I went to the beach. It was a day with soft wind and nice sea views. We wore 46 to protect us from the sun. Also, We brought a big 47 that was full of snacks. The 48 were high and some of us went surfing. Suddenly, my friend shouted, “Look over there!” I turned around and saw a 49 moving slowly in the water. I yelled, “Swim back now!” We hurried to the beach as fast as we could. Luckily, the animal swam away and no one was hurt. What a 50 [m d kl] day!
B．根据短文内容和所给中文提示，用单词的正确形式完成短文（每空一词）。
Huabobo is a traditional food in my hometown Shandong. People usually eat it on special days, such as festivals, weddings and birthdays. So there are many factories for making Huabobo in Shandong, but 51 (没有一个) of them can compare with my grandma’s. Her Huabobo has been my 52 (终身的) memory.
When I was little, my grandmother always made a Huabobo cake for my birthday. She put her love into the dough (面团), gently beating it and turning it into art. She often made more and 53 (贮存) them for later. When I tasted the warm Huabobo, my grandma told me 54 (民间的) tales about the food. In this way, it acted as a 55 (桥梁) between our traditional culture and modern life.
七、语法填空（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
阅读短文，根据上下文或括号内所给英文单词，写出空白处的英文单词以及它们正确形式，补全文本。
During the Three Kingdoms period, there was a general (将军) named Lv Meng. At first, he knew little and was only good at 56 (fight). But Sun Quan encouraged him to study hard, 57 Lv Meng worked very hard to learn more.
After studying for a long time, Lv Meng became very knowledgeable (有学识的). One day, Lu Su, another general, visited him. Lu Su was surprised to find that Lv Meng’s knowledge had improved. When they talked, Lv Meng’s ideas often made Lu Su think 58 (careful).
Lu Su then said, “After just a few 59 (day), I see you with admiration (欣赏).” This meant that Lv Meng had changed so much that Lu Su had to look at him in a new way.
This story teaches us 60 important lesson: We can no longer look at people with old eyes, but look at people with new eyes.
八、书面表达（本题有1小题，共15分）
61．快乐可以是大饱口福后的一份满足，快乐可以是运动挥洒汗水时的酣畅淋漓，快乐也可以是帮助他人时的温暖愉悦……校英语报正在开展以“______ Makes Me Happy”为题的征文活动。请从表中选择一项，或自定一种事物或行为，结合自身日常体验，谈谈它让你感到快乐的原因，完成一篇稿件。
Articles Wanted
·What makes you happy □food □doing sports □helping others others: ______ ·What do you do (when/where/with whom…) ·Why does this thing make you happy
注意：（1）文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息；
（2）词数60词左右，提示词不计入总词数。
makes me happy. ________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________2025学年第二学期七年级期中学业水平监测英语卷
参考答案
一、听力（共15小题，第一节每小题1分；第二、三节每小题1.5分。满分20分）
1-5 CBACA 6-10 ABBCA 11-15 CBACA
二、阅读理解（共10小题，每小题2分。满分20分）
16-18 BCA 19-21 DCC 22-25 BBAD
三、任务型阅读 (共5小题，每小题2分。满分10分)
26-29 EDBA
30. I will keep my room clean and tidy./I will put my favourite flowers in the room./I will share my day with my family.
(写出让家变得温馨舒适的活动得1分。语法句式I will...正确得1分。)
四、情景交际 (共5小题，每小题2分。满分10分)
31-35 CABFE
五、完形填空 (共10小题，每小题1分。满分10分)
36-40 CABCA 41-45 BDDBC
六、词汇运用(共10小题，每小题1分。满分10分)
46. hats 47. basket 48. waves 49. shark 50. magical
51. none 52. lifelong 53.stored 54.folk 55. bridge
七、语法填空 (共5小题，每小题1分。满分5分)
56. fighting 57. so 58. carefully 59. days 60. an
八、书面表达（共1小题。满分15分）
One possible version:
Doing sports makes me happy. My favourite sport is basketball. I often play it with my friends on the playground after school. When I run and shoot the ball, I feel relaxed and full of energy.
Playing basketball helps me keep healthy and forget all my worries. What's more, I can spend time with my friends as we play, which makes our friendship much stronger.
For me, basketball is more than just a sport. It brings me joy and happy memories. I will keep playing it.(86词)
分数档 评分标准 补充说明
15分（满分档） 能按照要点提示和写作要点，完整呈现“是什么让我快乐—我做此事的具体情况—为何此事让我快乐”核心内容；结构清晰、逻辑严密；语法结构和词汇运用丰富且准确，语言流畅自然；书写规范，词数符合要求，达成写作目的。 内容与写作要求相符合，语言表达自然流畅，只有1-3处小错误，书写工整美观。
12-14分 能基本按照要点提示和写作要点，较完整呈现“是什么让我快乐—我做此事的具体情况—为何此事让我快乐”核心内容；结构较规范、条理较清晰、逻辑较严密；语法结构和词汇较丰富，仅有少量语言错误；书写规范，词数符合要求，较好达成写作目的。 有结合自身日常体验，具体情况和原因都写到，才能达12分以上。
9-11分 能基本按照要点提示和写作要点，较简单描述我做此事的具体情况和此事让我快乐的原因；基本完成了试题规定的任务；表达和逻辑有瑕疵；语言不够规范，但不影响整体理解，词数基本符合要求。 重点需结合自身体验展开，单纯泛谈快乐最高分不超过10分。
6-8分 能看出与话题相关，但核心要点覆盖不完整；语言问题严重（含语法、词汇错误），字数不符合要求 能看出内容与话题相关，但语言不大连贯，错误百出，字数不符合要求。
4-5分 能勉强看出写作内容与任务相关；仅能写出零散的与主题相关的简单句子，无完整篇章结构；词数严重不达标。 1. 学生只要完成 makes me happy.的填空，单词正确即得1分。照抄题目关键词仅得1分。 2. 照抄题目关键词，给1分。 3. 写出1句与主题相关的错误句子得2分，写出1句与主题相关的正确句子得3分
0-3分 未完成写作（空白卷）、仅抄写无关英语单词/段落；出现不文明用语、拼音替代英文等情况；内容与任务完全无关。 写了任意无关内容给1分 空白卷、不文明用语、拼音等0分。
评分细则
听力材料
第一节，听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出符合对话内容的图片，并标在试卷的相应位置，听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话仅读一遍。
1.M: Mrs Smith, I can’t read the word. Could you help me please
W: Of course, /d/，/d/，salad
2.W: I’ll have a strawberry cake after dinner. What about you, James
M: I’d like to enjoy a yogurt ice cream.
3.W: Do you usually take the subway to school, Jack
M: No, I live near the school, so I walk to school.
4.W: Do you like playing basketball or football, Mike
M: Neither. I like swimming best.
5.W: Excuse me, Jason. Would you please help me carry these books to the teachers’ office
M: OK! I’d love to!
第二节，听下面两段较长对话，每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置，听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
W: Did you have a nice weekend, David
M: Yes, I went climbing with two friends. What about you, Judy
W: On Saturday, I went to the new Museum with my parents.
M: Sounds great. How long did you stay in the museum
W: From one o’clock to five in the afternoon.
M:Wow, that was a long time!
W:Yes, I really enjoyed visiting it.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
M: Mum, come and help.
W: What’s up, Bill
M: There will be a food festival in our school tomorrow. My teacher asked us to cook a dish. I want to make beef noodles but I don’t know how.
W: Don’t worry. I will teach you and it will taste amazing. I have a secret recipe.
M: Wow, that’s great. But mom, do we have all the ingredients
W: Let me check. Oh no, we don’t have beef. Let’s go to the supermarket to buy some.
M: Okay, let’s go. I can’t wait！
第三节，听独白，请从A、B、C三个选项中，选择正确的选项，完成信息记录表。独白读两遍。
Dear students, this is Sunshine School Radio. We are glad to tell you that our school will set up a new reading club—Happy Readers. We will have our club activities every Friday from 3:30 pm to 4:30 pm. And our club activities will be held in Room 402, which is our school reading room. In our club, we will take part in all kinds of fun activities to explore the fun of reading. First, we will read different kinds of great books. Then we’ll hold book sharing meetings to share our reading thoughts and feelings in groups. Every month we’ll even hold Book Fair Day. During this special event, you can bring your favorite books to exchange with classmates. Join our reading club now! It will help you improve you reading skills and fall in love with reading. We are looking forward to your coming.
听力部分到此结束。

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