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2025—2026学年度第二学期期中教学质量检测
高一英语试题
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
该部分分为第一、第二两节。注意：回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. When might Sarah join the art class
A. In June. B. In July. C. In August.
2. Where does the conversation take place
A. At a bus station. B. In a museum. C. At home.
3. Why does Lucy feel so happy
A. She will go abroad.
B. She passed an exam.
C. She can see her brother soon.
4. What will the woman do on Thursday
A. Go downtown. B. Visit her friends. C. Take a driving test.
5. What program will be shown after the news
A. A food program. B. A football match. C. A talk show.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Why does the woman talk to the man
A. To make an appointment. B. To ask a favor. C. To find a job.
7. When will the woman come to the man’s place today
A. At 4:45 p.m. B. At 4:30 p.m. C. At 4:20 p.m.
听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。
8. What does the man dislike doing
A. Seeing films. B. Going to parties. C. Dancing to music.
9. What is the man’s father trying to do
A. Study their family history.
B. Improve his computer skills.
C. Help the man with a project.
听第8段材料，回答第10至 12题。
10. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Old classmates. B. Neighbors. C. Workmates.
11. How long did the woman stay in London
A. For five months. B. For three years. C. For eight years.
12. Why did the woman come back from London
A. She missed her hometown.
B. She didn’t like her job there.
C. She was tired of living there.
听第9段材料，回答第13 至 16题。
13. What was the man’s original plan for today
A. Study in a library.
B. Hang out in a market.
C. Attend a cooking class.
14. How often is the cooking show held
A. Every week. B. Every month. C. Every year.
15. What is the focus for the cooking show this afternoon
A. Salads. B. Desserts. C. Soups.
16. What will Sarah do before going to the cooking show
A. Buy groceries. B. Call a friend. C. Return some books.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What is the speaker talking about
A. Downtown areas.
B. Some apartments.
C. Neighborhood surroundings.
18. Which number should Tom ring if he needs a flat with a garden
A. 3733920. B. 3893022. C. 3873910.
19. How many bedrooms does Fair Flat have in total
A. 2. B. 3. C. 4.
20. What is the biggest advantage of the third flat
A. It has a car park.
B. It has modern furniture.
C. It has top schools nearby.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Transportation contributes 16% of global carbon emissions (排放), with road vehicles being the biggest contributor. Choosing low-carbon transport modes is key to fighting climate change. Below is a guide to help you understand carbon emissions of different transport modes and make greener travel choices.
Carbon Emissions Comparison Table (kilos per kilometer)
Transportation Mode Carbon Emissions Advantages for Environment
Car (fuel-powered) 0.17 Convenient, but high emissions
Bus 0.03 Low emissions per person
Train 0.02 The lowest emissions; suitable for long distances
Airplane 0.12 Fast, but higher emissions
Tips for Greener Travel
● Choose public transport (bus, train) first for daily commutes (通勤), which can cut individual travel emissions by over 70% compared to cars with only one person.
● Use electric vehicles (EVs) if you need a private car— global EV ownership is expected to reach 145 million by 2030. And EVs emit 80% less carbon than fuel-powered cars over their lifetime, with zero tailpipe pollution.
● Avoid driving alone; share rides with friends or colleagues when possible.
Climate Impact Warning
Extreme weather (heatwaves, heavy rains) caused by climate change has increased road and rail travel delays by 30% in the past decade. Greener travel helps reduce such risks by cutting emissions.
For more information, visit our official website or follow our social media accounts. Let’s work together for a low-carbon future!
21. Which means of transport is both convenient and eco-friendly for long distances
A. Bus. B. Train. C. Plane. D. Fuel-powered car.
22. What can we learn about EVs
A. They consume more energy.
B. They cut 70% carbon emissions.
C. They are slower than petrol cars.
D. They have zero tailpipe emissions.
23. What is the purpose of this passage
A. To promote green travel.
B. To sell electric vehicles.
C. To warn people of extreme weather.
D. To compare different transport modes.
B
In 2013, Brighton-based charity Stay Up Late launched a programme called Gig Buddies, which pairs autistic(自闭症的) people with volunteers who share their interests, so that they can socialise together.
Since launching, the Gig Buddies has grown from a local idea in East Sussex to a global movement, with more than 20 projects now running across eight countries. Yet the need for this work remains imperative. People with autism continue to face significant barriers to taking part in social life.
The Gig Buddies aims to address that gap by matching people with volunteers who are fully trained to accompany them to events they wouldn’t otherwise be able to attend. But this kind of socialising is more than just getting out of the house to pass the time. Luke Ellis, the communications coordinator, explains that participants report a wide range of benefits, including increased confidence, making new friends, and broadening interests. And with loneliness increasingly mentioned as a cause for concern in the general population, this is something that everyone deserves access to.
As you might imagine, the matching process is the key to the success of the project. “In comparison with other organizations, we meet with all new volunteers and participants to get to know their personalities, interests, and needs. All volunteers take part in one day of training, complete reference, then meet with participants,” says Luke. Petet, who joined the project in June 2023. Following this process, Petet was matched with a volunteer called Ryan. “From being withdrawn(脱离) and lacking in confidence at his first social, Pete is now much more open and enthusiastic,” says Luke. “That summer, he joined us, dancing late into the night at our special social festival.”
At its heart, the Gig Buddies is a reminder that friendship shouldn’t be a special right. In fact, we all deserve a life rich in connection.
24. What does the underlined word “imperative” probably mean in Paragraph 2
A. Limited. B. Urgent. C. Uncertain. D. Debatable.
25. What is paragraph 3 mainly about
A. The value of the project. B. The harm of loneliness.
C. The gap between people. D. The theme of the project.
26. Why does the author mention Petet
A. To praise participants’ enthusiasm.
B. To make comparisons with other projects.
C. To stress the necessity of volunteers training.
D. To prove the importance of successful matching.
27. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. Better with Friends B. Closer with Sunshine
C. Richer with Stories D. Brighter with Dreams
C
Despite huge advances in cyber security, one weakness continues to overshadow all others: human error. Research has shown human error is responsible for majority of successful cyber attacks. A recent report puts the figure at 68%.
No matter how advanced our technological defenses become, the human element is likely to remain the weakest link in the cyber security chain. This weakness affects everyone using digital devices, yet traditional education and even new laws fail to address it. So, how can we deal with human-centered cyber security related challenges
There are two types of human error. The first is skills-based errors, which occur during routine tasks when attention is diverted— forgetting to back up data due to a busy schedule. For example, you might forget to back up desktop data because you needed to get home early, or had lots of emails to respond to, which may make you more exposed to a cyber attack. Second, knowledge-based errors arise from lacking important knowledge or failing to follow specific rules, such as clicking an unknown email link, which could lead to you being attacked and losing your money and data, as the link might contain dangerous software.
Organisations and governments have invested heavily in cyber security education programs to address human error. However, these programs have had mixed results. This is partly because many programs take a technology-centric, one-size-fits-all approach. Yet, they don’t address the underlying psychological and behavioural issues.
The reality is that changing human behaviour is far more complex than simply providing information. This is especially true in the context of cyber security. Behavioural change requires ongoing investment into promoting awareness. Just because people knowing best practices doesn’t mean they will consistently apply them— especially when faced with competing priorities (优先事项) or time pressures.
28. What is probably the weakest part in cybersecurity
A. Technology. B. Device. C. Human. D. Education.
29. Which of the following belongs to knowledge-based errors
A. Forgetting to save a copy.
B. Having numbers of emails to answer.
C. Failing to finish routine tasks on time.
D. Clicking a link from an unknown email.
30. Why are cyber security education programs ineffective
A. They lack financial support.
B. They adopt an overly personalized approach.
C. They ignore mental and behavioral factors.
D. They fail to teach technological knowledge.
31. What is the author’s suggestion for cyber security
A. Improve technological defenses.
B. Reduce time and workload pressures.
C. Make new laws to punish digital errors.
D. Offer continuous training on awareness.
D
A long face isn’t the only sign that someone is blue — how people walk also reveals their emotions, especially the swing of arms and legs, researchers say. Scientists found that larger swings indicate anger, while smaller swings suggest fear or sadness.
“Walking is one of the most familiar and well-practiced whole-body movements for humans,” said Mina Wakabayashi, the lead author of the study. “Because of this, changes in emotional state may naturally appear in the way we walk.
For the study, the scientists asked actors to recall life events that caused anger, happiness, fear or sadness and then walk a short distance while thinking each memory. The participants wore tight clothing and reflective markers, allowing the researchers to create point-light videos from the side and front. Volunteers then watched the videos and declared which emotion each pace represented. They recognised all of the displayed emotions at better than the level of chance, the study found. “To some degree, the walkers’ intended emotions were indeed understood by the observers,” the researchers write in Royal Society OpenScience.
Emotions are likely to influence all manner of other ways in which people move their bodies, and the Kyoto team hope to explore these in future work. “Being able to infer emotions from body movement may help us understand others quickly during social interactions, even without words,” Wakabayashi said.
If scientists can reliably predict people’s emotions from their movements, it could help identify vulnerable or threatening people, or lead to wearable devices that monitor people’s mental states. Researchers in Texas showed last month that a machine-learning algorithm (算法) could predict anger, sadness, joy and fear from a person’s walking, though with limited accuracy. Researchers note that the way people walk may be harder to fake than facial expressions or speech. Another potential application is an “AI-based virtual aid” that reads emotions from walking patterns and respond accordingly.
32. What can we know from Mina Wakabayashi’s words in paragraph 2
A. Walking is a very unnatural action for humans.
B. People with long-shaped face tend to feel upset.
C. Emotional changes may be seen in people’s walking.
D. Whole-body movements depend on the way people walk.
33. How did the scientists collect data in the experiment
A. By filming the actors’ walking.
B. By recording the actors’ life events.
C. By observing the participants’ clothes.
D. By collecting the participants’ feelings.
34. What is the last paragraph mainly about concerning people’s walking
A. Its advantages. B. Expectations for future uses.
C. Its appeal to scientists. D. New viewpoints from Scientists.
35. What is the main idea of the passage
A. Walking speed is closely linked to emotional changes.
B. Walking patterns can help predict people’s mental states.
C. Wearable devices to monitor mental states are on the way.
D. Ways to improve people’s communications have been found.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
“Never go to bed angry” is a popular saying to live by. But, sometimes, when hurt feelings still rule, it can be worth considering taking a step back. We’re supposed to clear the air before anger sets in, aren’t we But what if pushing for an immediate resolution isn’t always right for us 36
The 24-hour relationship rule is a pretty simple conflict resolution strategy. Rather than pushing to solve conflicts immediately, you agree to wait 24 hours before discussing the disagreement again. 37 Think of it like having a temporary (临时的) stop button to help avoid rush reactions.
The rule can strike a balance. This can help prevent hurt feelings dragging on for days or weeks. 38 With a clearer head, you’re better placed to identify hidden issues, and approach the conversation with empathy, rather than defensiveness.
However, the rule doesn’t mean you have to change your idea. There’s also the possibility that time to process what happened actually allows you to recognize how to deal with the situation, which can apply to both you or them. 39 If one person refuses to engage, it can feel more like “the silent treatment”. Also, it works to write down your thoughts or go for a walk to cool down. This isn’t the time to build up more points to continue a disagreement. 40
There’s never going to be a singular rule that works best for everyone. Minor disagreements and misunderstandings can often be resolved quickly. But bigger arguments may benefit from the 24-hour relationship rule.
A. Therefore, you both have a little break.
B. That said, the rule only works if you two agree to it.
C. That’s where the 24-hour relationship rule comes in.
D. It’s time to understand your own feelings and needs.
E. It also allows you to move beyond surface-level problems.
F. Conflicts can set off the body’s natural fight-or-flight response.
G. As with any rule or communication method, there’s no universal way.
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Growing up as an immigrant(移民), I spent most of my life trying to please everyone around me. I was the girl who 41 her dreams to fit what others expected. At home, I fully obey my parents, afraid of 42 them who had given up so much to move to a new country. At school, I laughed at jokes I didn’t find funny and agreed with ideas I didn’t 43 to avoid making anyone uncomfortable.
For years, this habit followed me into my 44 . I took on work that didn’t excite me, and turned down promotion opportunities that truly matched my 45 , thinking putting others first was the only way to be 46 . But deep down, I was living a life that wasn’t really mine. I was tired of hiding my ambitions, my opinions and my true personality just to keep the 47 .
One day, I hit a breaking point. I looked in the mirror and realized I didn’t 48 the person staring back at me— someone who had sacrificed her happiness for the 49 from others. That day, I made a promise to myself: I would stop trying to please everyone and start 50 myself. I learned to say no without feeling 51 , and to pursue the dreams that 52 my heart, not the ones others picked for me.
Now, I live with purpose and confidence, and I’ve never felt 53 . I’ve learned that the people who truly care about you will love you for who you are, not for who you 54 to be. Your own 55 is more than enough.
41. A. achieved B. appreciated C. realized D. adapted
42. A. comforting B. puzzling C. disappointing D. attracting
43. A. support B. refuse C. explain D. doubt
44. A. family B. study C. job D. health
45. A. position B. desire C. emotion D. permission
46. A. amused B. forgave C. accepted D. affected
47. A. promise B. secret C. rule D. harmony
48. A. recognize B. invite C. trust D. contact
49. A. assistance B. approval C. appointment D. connection
50. A. blaming B. protecting C. choosing D. questioning
51. A. wrong B. grateful C. tired D. confused
52. A. led to B. applied to C. spoke to D. turned to
53. A. stranger B. freer C. crazier D. busier
54. A. pretend B. want C. urge D. claim
55. A. weight B. quality C. appearance D. worth
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
At the Hubei Provincial Museum, a couple — Zhao Xiaolong, a restorer of ancient calligraphy and paintings, and Zhang Xiaolong, an expert in relic analysis — share not only similar names but also a passion for 56 (preserve) China’s cultural heritage.
The couple, 57 skills complement (补充) each other perfectly, work side by side protecting cultural relics. Before restoring a relic, Zhao always invites Zhang 58 (help) examine the damage and decide on the best repair plan.
It is through traditional craftsmanship, not merely modern technology 59 the core of cultural heritage is truly preserved. 60 the third generation of restorers since the museum’s founding, Zhao stressed the importance of passing down the techniques. In the past decade, Zhao 61 (restore) over 300 pieces and framed over 500 works of calligraphy and paintings.
Zhang has observed a growing interest in relic preservation among young people, 62 (fuel) by the popularity of cultural and historical films and TV shows. However, she notes that many people, after gaining 63 deeper understanding of the industry, find it somewhat boring due to the repetitive (重复性的) tasks and a lack of 64 (create). So, she advises these eager young 65 (individual) to lower their expectations. “This line of work requires not just a passion for history but also great patience,” Zhao said. “Even with your best efforts, you may not see immediate or considerable rewards. However, devotion over time is significant for relic preservation.”
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假设你是某国际学校的学生会主席李华，你校计划为山区小学募捐图书。请你代表学生会用英文写一封倡议书，张贴在校公告栏上。内容包括：
1．捐赠活动的信息；
2．所捐图书的要求；
3．发出倡议。
注意：
1．词数80左右；
2．可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Renny, a ten-year-old girl, had a habit of putting things off— homework, guitar practice, even tidying her room. She loved weekends because she could go to the museum, the exhibition, or her grandparents’ home. Her grandma cooked delicious food, and her grandpa bought her treats.
Last Friday, Renny asked her mom to take her to her grandparents’. Her mom asked, “Do you have any homework ” Renny lied, “No, I don’t.” She promised to study later. Her mom agreed. Renny had a great time at her grandparents’. Sunday passed quickly with her grandparents. She went to bed on Sunday night, but she forgot to do her math homework.
Monday morning, Renny panicked (害怕) — the math assignment was due today. She pretended to be calm, got ready, and went to school. In class, her teacher, Miss Green, asked for the assignment. Renny froze and said, “I forgot to bring it.” Miss Green asked Renny to bring it tomorrow. Renny felt relieved.
But she still didn’t do it. The next day, she told another lie: “My brother spilled ink on it.” Miss Green said, “You don’t have a brother.” So Renny made up a cousin. Her friend asked, “How long will your cousin stay ” “Until Saturday,” Renny said. That evening, her mom said, “Miss Green called. You didn’t hand in the assignment.” Renny lied again: “I did. She forgot.”
The lies piled up. Her mom’s voice sounded different. Miss Green watched her more. Her friend stopped talking to her.
One day, the truth came out. Miss Green asked Renny to her office and said, “Your mother came to school and told me everything. No cousin came. You didn’t even tell your mom about the homework.” Renny fell silent. “Why did you lie ” Miss Green asked.
注意：
1．续写词数应为150个左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
“I am sorry”, Renny said in a low voice, not daring to look up. With Miss Green’s encouragement, Renny walked back home.
2025—2026学年度第二学期期中教学质量检测
高一英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第一部分听力（共两节，20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 CACCA 6-10 ACBAA 11-15 BBCBA 16-20 CBBCA
第二部分阅读（共两节，20小题，每小题2.5分，满分 50分）
21-23 BDA 24-27 BADA 28-31 CDCD 32-35 CABB 36-40 CAEBD
第三部分语言运用（共三节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41-45 DCACB 46-50 CDABC 51-55 ACBAD
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. preserving 57. whose 58. to help 59. that
60. As 61. has restored 62. fueled 63. a
64. creativity 65. individuals
第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
Possible version:
Dear fellow students,
To kick off our charity drive, our school is launching a book donation campaign for children in mountain villages. By donating books, you can directly make a difference to their lives.
Regarding the book requirements, we kindly ask for gently used or new books that are both educational and enjoyable. Books that have inspired you would be perfect for young readers. Please ensure the books are free of serious damage, and contain appropriate content for children aged 6 to 12. Every book you donate will light up a child’s world, passing the joy of learning on to children. We encourage everyone to participate in this meaningful activity to build a brighter future for these children.
Thank you for your generosity and support!
The Students’ Union
写作第一节评分标准
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为15分，按以下5个档次给分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容组织、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡高一英语试题参考量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于60，从总分中减去2分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以至影响交际的，将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档：（13—15分）能写明全部要点；语言基本无误；行文连贯，表达清楚；
第四档：（10—12分）能写明全部或绝大部分要点；语言有少量错误；行文不够连贯，表达基本清楚；
第三档：（7—9分）能写明基本要点；语言虽有较多错误，但基本达意；
第二档：（4—6分）能写出部分要点；语言错误多，影响意思表达；
第一档：（1—3分）只能写出一两个要点；语言错误很多，只有个别句子正确。
零分：未作答；内容太少或无法看清；所写内容与题目要求完全不相关。
第二节（满分25分）
One possible version:
“I am sorry,” Renny said in a low voice, not daring to look up. Miss Green gently placed a hand on her shoulder, saying that everyone makes mistakes but hiding them only makes things worse. Renny’s throat tightened as Miss Green explained that honesty, even when scary, is always better than a web of lies. The kindness in Miss Green’s voice broke through Renny’s fear. Tears fell as she nodded, finally understanding that facing the truth was the only way out. Miss Green encouraged her to see this as a fresh start, not a dead end — that admitting the truth takes real courage, and courage can be learned.
With Miss Green’s encouragement, Renny walked back home. Her heart pounded with every step, but this time fear mixed with something new — determination. At the doorstep, she took a deep breath. Seeing her mom in the kitchen, Renny walked over and told her everything: the forgotten homework, the invented cousin, every single lie. To her surprise, her mom didn’t get angry. Instead, she wrapped Renny in a warm hug, saying softly that facing her mistakes and choosing to stop lying was what truly mattered. Tears of relief streamed down Renny’s face. She promised herself she would always tell the truth in future.
写作第二节评分标准
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为25分，按七个档次给分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）续写内容的质量、完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
（2）所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于120的，酌情扣分；
（2）书写较差，以至影响交际的，酌情扣分。
（3）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可接受。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次 描述
第五档 （21—25分） 1．创造了丰富合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。 2．有效使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误少，且完全不影响理解。 3．有效的使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档 （16—20分） 1．创造了比较丰富合理的内容，比较逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高。 2．比较有效使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但完全不影响理解。 3．比较有效的使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文比较结构清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档 （11—15分） 1．创造了基本丰富合理的内容，基本具有逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。 2．基本有效使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达基本流畅，语言有些许错误，但基本不影响理解。 3．基本有效的使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档 （6—10分） 1．内容和逻辑上有一些重大的问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度上脱节。 2．所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解。 3．未能有效的使用词句间的衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。
第一档 （1—5分） 1．内容和逻辑上有较多重大的问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情节基本脱节。 2．所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构单调，错误极多且，严重影响理解。 3．几乎没有使用词句间的衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
零分 未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法判断；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
听力录音稿：
Text 1
M: Hi, Sarah! Are you planning to join the art class this summer
W: I was thinking about signing up in June or July, but my friends want to start in August,so I might wait and join them then.
Text 2
M: Excuse me, what time does the bus to the museum leave from this station
W: The next one leaves at 1:30 p. m.
M: Perfect! I’ll have time to finish lunch before getting on.
Text 3
M: You seem happier than when you passed your English exam, Lucy.
W: Yes! I just got a call from my brother— he’s coming home from abroad next week!
M: That’s great!
Text 4
W: Dad, can I use the car on Friday I want to go downtown with my friends.
M: You haven’t even taken your driving test yet. Isn’t it on Thursday
W: Yeah, but it should be easy to pass.
Text 5
M: The talk show will not be shown after the news as advertised. A food program will be shown afterwards.
W: Yes. The talk show will be on tomorrow evening at eight, just after a football match.
Text 6
W: Hi, I’d like to book a haircut. Is there anything available today
M: Let me check... Hmm, we’re quite full, but we do have an opening at 4:30 this after-noon.
W: That works for me. How long will it take
M: About 45 minutes. Do you want a wash and style too
W: Yes, please. And should I come a bit early
M: Yes, please arrive 10 minutes earlier.
W: Got it. Thank you!
M: You’re welcome.
Text 7
W: What kind of social activities do you enjoy
M: Well, I like going to the cinema or perhaps to a café. I’m fond of dancing to music, but I don’t like parties much. I’d rather have a small group of friends over for a meal.
W: Do you have any special plans this weekend
M: Well, I will have no time for my hobbies because I have to help my father with a project. He’s trying to research our family history, but he’s not very good at using the Internet.
W: Sounds cool! I know you like traveling as well.
M: Yeah. I’m going to Canada for two weeks next year.
W: Great. You know, I’m planning to travel around Mexico and Brazil if I can manage it.
Text 8
W: Patrick Is that you
M: Selina! Hello!
W: Hi! How have you been
M: Great, actually. How are you I haven’t seen you for... how long
W: It’s been ages. At least eight years. We haven’t seen each other since we graduated.
M: Yeah. Wow. So what are you doing here I thought you’d moved to London.
W: I lived in London for three years. Although I enjoyed living there, I couldn’t stand my job anymore. I’ve been back for almost five months. But anyway, what about you
M: Me Oh, nothing new. I never left our hometown.
W: Oh. And is that…
M: Oh, this is my son, Joe.
W: Wow! How time flies!
Text 9
M: Hi, Sarah! Where are you heading
W: I’m going to the library.
M: Well, my usual cooking class was canceled today, so I changed my plans. There’s a cooking show at the market at 3 p.m. Want to go with me
W: Definitely!
M: Great! The chef running the show is really popular.
W: How long has this cooking show been running
M: It started about three years ago. They hold it every month, usually on weekends. It’s a fun way to learn new dishes. This month’s focus is on healthy salads while last month it was all about delicious soups.
W: Sounds delicious! I usually prefer baking. But I’m excited to try something different.
M: I enjoy baking too, especially bread. Anyway, we should head out soon — there will be some desserts offered there.
W: Why There’s still plenty of time.
M: Some of my friends got there thirty minutes ago. They said the market gets really busy in the afternoon, and parking is limited.
W: Okay. But I have to return these books first.
M: No worries. I’ll wait for you at the market entrance.
Text 10
W: Hi, Tom, you asked me to introduce some flats in the downtown area to you. Now there are three places I think you might be interested in. The first one is Mansfield House. Downstairs, there’s a large living room, a dining room, and a kitchen. Upstairs, there are three large bedrooms and a bathroom. The garden is beautiful. There are excellent schools in the area, and don’t worry about the neighbors. There isn’t much noise! If you are interested in it, ring 3893022. The second is Fair Flat. The flat is in walking distance of the city center. Downstairs, there’s a modern kitchen, a living room, and a toilet. On the first floor, there are two bedrooms and a bathroom. On the top floor, there are two more bedrooms. All the furniture is included. The phone number is 3733920. Last, there is Chestnuts Flat. There’s only one bedroom, a small kitchen, a living room, and a bathroom. But you’ll find a car park, which makes it different from the first two. You can call 3873910.

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