资源简介

【答案】1. B 2. C 3. A
【答案】4. B 5. C 6. D 7. A
【答案】8. D 9. A 10. B 11. B
【答案】12. C 13. D 14. A 15. B
答案】16. A 17. E 18. B 19. C 20. F
【答案】21. B 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. A 31. B 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. D
【答案】36. herself
37. a 38. whose
39. innovation
40. consciously
41. approachable
42. to 43. featured
44. was added
45. ensuring
【答案】
Dear David,
I’m glad to hear that you’re planning a trip to China this summer. In my opinion, I think ecotourism is a better choice. The reason is that it not only allows you to enjoy natural beauty but also helps protect the environment, which is very important. What’s more, ecotourism can offer you unique experiences that traditional tourism can’t, such as staying with local families and learning about their culture.
I suggest you choose destinations like national parks or nature reserves. I’m sure you’ll have an unforgettable time.
Yours,
Li Hua
【答案】
With trembling hands, Sarah picked up a pen and began to write back to Margaret. “Dear Margaret,” she wrote, “I received your package and used most of the formula and the blanket. I’m truly sorry, as I didn’t know it was for your grandson. I’ve lost my job and am struggling to support my three-month-old daughter, Lily. I only have twenty dollars now, but I promise to return the money as soon as I can. Thank you for your kindness, which means the world to us.”
Soon another package from Margaret arrived, bringing what Sarah needed. Inside were more containers of formula and a note that read, “Dear Sarah, I understand your situation. Please keep the supplies and don’t worry about returning the money. What matters most is that Lily is healthy and happy. If you need anything else, just let me know.” Sarah was deeply moved by Margaret’s generosity and kindness, which she knew she would never forget. She realized that there were still good people in the world who would help others without expecting anything in return.绝密★启用前
2025-2026学年河北保定市第一中学高三下学期考前模拟测试英语试题
满分150分，考试用时120分钟。
注意事项：
1. 本试卷由四个部分组成，其中，第一、二部分和第三部分的第一节为选择题，第三部分的第二节和第四部分为非选择题。
2.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
3. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
4.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5 小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。
1. What is the man doing this year
A. Teaching at school. B. Studying abroad. C. Traveling around the world.
2. When will the speakers go to the beach
A. On Saturday morning. B. On Saturday afternoon. C. On Sunday afternoon.
3. What will the man probably do
A. Attend a meeting. B. Wait in the office. C. Make a phone call.
4. Where is the supermarket
A. On Green Street. B. Opposite a flower store. C. Beside a post office.
5. What is the conversation mainly about
A. Preparing for a picnic. B. Cooking dinner at home. C. Beautiful scenery by the lake.
第二节(共15 小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面 5段录音。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段录音播放两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the probable relationship between the two speakers
A. Doctor and patient. B. Boss and secretary. C. Husband and wife.
7. What does the man advise the woman to do
A. Take a hot shower. B. Do some relaxing exercises. C. Have some warm water with honey.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. Why will the man go to Rwanda
A. To visit a friend. B. To go sightseeing. C. To go on a business trip.
9. How will the man probably get to the national park
A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By car.
10. What mainly prevents the woman from travelling abroad
A. Her income. B. Her busy schedule. C. Her physical condition.
听第8段材料，回答第11 至13题。
11. How do the speakers feel about the Toy Fair
A. Bored. B. Confused. C. Enthusiastic.
12. What kind of toys is the man most interested in
A. Stuffed animals. B. Robot toys. C. Magic sets.
3. What will the woman probably do first
A. Eat something. B. Go to the restroom. C. Buy a toy.
听第9段材料，回答第14 至16题。
14. What is the main problem the speakers are discussing
A. The room is too crowded.
b They have too much work to finish.
C. The strong light is causing discomfort.
15. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In an office. B. In a classroom. C. In a library.
16. What does the woman suggest they do first
A. Move their desks to another area.
B. Turn to the manager for a solution.
C. Ski p the meeting and leave early.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What can we learn about Germany's current workforce problem
A. Young Germans prefer working abroad.
B. Foreign workers are not welcome anymore.
C. Too few young people are entering the workforce.
18. How many foreign workers does Germany need to attract each year
A. 20,000. B. 90,000. C. 288,000.
19. Why does Germany look to India for help
A. India has the world's largest population.
B. India has many young people ready to work.
C. Indian workers are professionals in car making.
20. What does Aditi Banerjee's words suggest
A. India has more workers than jobs.
B. Young Indians are well-educated.
C. Germany should train its own workers.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Highland Cow Art
Highland cow art has become increasingly popular for its unique combination of rural charm and artistic variety. Artists such as Mark Gemmell, Domonique Brown, and Steven Brown create lively images of these famous Scottish animals through different styles — some realistic, some abstract, and some playful. Their works often show Scotland’s natural scenery and cultural traditions, making each painting a celebration of the region’s beauty. When choosing highland cow art for your home, consider the size and colors of the piece to ensure it fits well with your room. Whether you like detailed realism or striking abstraction, there is a style for everyone, adding special character to any space.
Styles and Techniques
Highland cow art covers a wide range of styles, from lifelike paintings to creative abstract works. Realistic techniques focus on careful details to show the texture (纹理) and personality of the cattle, while abstract methods use bright colors and imaginative shapes to create emotional effects. This variety not only shows the artists’ skill but also meets different personal tastes.
Realistic Painting Approaches
Creating lifelike paintings of highland cows requires excellent skills in layering (分层), blending (混合), and careful brushwork to truly capture their textures and expressions. Photorealism, one approach to realistic art, involves copying the animals with extreme precision, using special brush techniques to produce natural-looking textures and depth. To achieve this level of realism, artists must: first, carefully observe the animal’s body structure, colors, and proportions to ensure accuracy; second, apply multiple layers of paint to capture the complex details of fur and expressions; third, smoothly mix colors to create natural transitions and realistic shading.
1. What should be considered when choosing highland cow art for home decoration
A. The artist’s reputation and fame. B. The size and colors of the artwork.
C. The historical value of the painting. D. The emotional effects of abstract styles.
2. What do realistic techniques in highland cow art emphasize
A. The emotional effects of the cattle. B. The imaginative shapes of the cattle.
C. The texture and personality of the cattle. D. The bright colors of the cattle.
3. What is the first step in creating a photorealistic painting of highland cows
A. Studying the animal’s body structure closely.
B. Mixing colors smoothly to create natural shading.
C. Applying many layers of paint to capture details.
D. Using special brushes to produce depth and texture.
B
Jill Mather’s retirement didn’t unfold as she had imagined. After spending decades working long hours in the restaurant business, she had looked forward to traveling and relaxing. However, due to a health condition, she couldn’t take long trips. Experiencing a sense of restlessness from the health restrictions, she decided to start taking long daily walks in her San Fernando neighborhood.
During her walks, she was saddened to see litter everywhere — cans, bottles, and other trash lying on the streets. Thinking, “As long as I’m out here anyway, I might as well do something about the trash I see,” she began bringing plastic bags to pick up the waste while she walked. Neighbors noticed her efforts and cheered her on. Some neighbors proposed setting up a donation box in the local store to raise funds for her cleaning work, but Jill declined.
A few days later, she posted an invitation on a local community app: “I walk and pick up trash every morning. Join me at the coffee shop at 8 AM if you’re interested.” To her surprise, a dozen people showed up the first time. Together, they cleaned a nearby park and then enjoyed coffee together. Everyone asked eagerly when they would do it again.
From that day on, Jill and a shifting group of volunteers met each morning to walk and clean. She named the group Volunteers Cleaning Communities. They collected recyclable items from streets, parks, and along a local highway, using the money earned to buy supplies like strong bags and safety vests (背心).
As more people heard about the group, it continued to grow. Soon, over 100 people were taking part at least once a week. Besides cleaning, Jill organized regular social events, such as game nights and birthday parties. Strong friendships formed. “In today’s busy world, it’s difficult to meet people who truly understand you,” said Emilie Koster, a member volunteer. “They are like family to me. Doing good feels easier when you’re with people who share your values.”
In six years, the volunteers have cleaned up nearly 750,000 pounds of trash — and that doesn’t include larger items they’ve set aside for the city. “We get exercise, make our community cleaner, and build lasting friendships,” Jill says proudly. “It’s a success in every way.”
4. Why did Jill Mather start taking long daily walks in her neighborhood
A. To prepare for a walking race. B. To relieve uneasiness caused by health issues.
C. To seek a part-time job locally. D. To investigate the environmental conditions.
5. How did the group Volunteers Cleaning Communities fund its supplies
A. By collecting donations from local communities. B. By charging participants membership fees.
C. By selling recyclable items they picked up. D. By hosting meaningful social events.
6. What do Emilie Koster’s words imply in paragraph 5
A. Modern life makes true friendship hard to find.
B. Group activities guarantee lasting relationships.
C. Volunteering is an effective way to find true friends.
D. Shared values facilitate meaningful social bonding.
7. Which of the following best describes Jill Mather
A. Caring and inspirational. B. Creative and demanding.
C. Humorous and adventurous. D. Determined and competitive.
C
Health enthusiasts are no strangers to fitness apps that help them count calories, track steps, monitor heart rate, and more. While their main aim is to encourage people to stay fit by setting targets for workout time, sleep duration, and healthy eating, researchers warn that many of these apps aren’t equipped with “evidence-based or theory-based” approaches to support these healthy changes and can end up setting goals that are “difficult to achieve.”
Researchers at University College London (UCL) found that fitness apps can make people feel demotivated to exercise. Paulina Bondaronnek UCL said, “Fitness apps remain some of the most profitable and widely downloaded health tools globally. While they can benefit health, there’s been far less attention to their potential downsides. When health is reduced to calorie counts and step goals, it can leave people feeling ashamed and disconnected from what truly drives lasting wellbeing.”
In a study published in the British Journal of Health Psychology, the researchers analyzed 58,881 Xposts using artificial intelligence, investigating the negative impact of the five most profitable commercial fitness apps in March 2022, such as MyFitnessPal: Calorie Counter, Strava, Weight Watchers,Workouts by Muscle Booster, and Fitness Coach & Diet: FitCoach.
Some of the negative consequences included stress from quantifying diet and physical activity and the setting of goals that were at times unfeasible and overly simplified by algorithms (算法). Five main themes emerged, showing that calorie tracking, strict goals, and constant errors often led to depression and guilt. Some users felt depressed and stressed by these apps and reported feelings of shame and disappointment, leading them to quit the apps or give up healthy behaviors.
It was also noted that algorithms do not fully recognize individual differences or understand real-life complexities. Problems like information not matching across devices, inaccurate calorie counts, or inconsistent data led to stress, anxiety and lack of motivation.
Several users, however, also noted that health was a personal responsibility and that the apps couldn't be held responsible for eating disorders. Rather, they can be used in a healthy way.
The researchers concluded: “The current study highlights the need for better evaluation of commercial fitness apps, as well as more user-centred and psychologically informed app design that prioritizes well-being and inner motivation over rigid, quantitative (量化的) goals — and, indeed, profit.”
8. What is Paulina Bondaronnek’s attitude towards the current fitness apps
A. Satisfied. B. Dismissive. C. Neutral. D. Critical.
9. What does the underlined word “unfeasible” in paragraph 4 probably mean
A. Unrealistic. B. Unnecessary. C. Unchangeable. D. Unavoidable.
10. Which of the following is a negative impact of fitness apps mentioned in the text
A. They force users to change their eating habits.
B. They lead to users’ depression and loss of motivation.
C. They cannot help users track their daily steps accurately.
D. They make users pay much attention to their appearance.
11. What does the author suggest by quoting the researchers’ conclusion
A. Simplify fitness goals. B. Value health over making money.
C. Update algorithms to match devices. D. Blame apps, not users themselves.
D
A study published in Animal Behavior reports that bull sharks (牛鲨) have friendship dynamics similar to human social groups. “Contrary to commonly held perceptions of sharks, our study shows they have relatively rich and complex social lives,” said the study author and University of Exeter behavioral ecologist Darren Croft.
Sharks were historically assumed to be loners. It’s now known that they hang out in groups, but gathering together doesn't necessarily mean socializing. They could just be taking advantage of safety in numbers.
The researchers used six years of observational data of 184 individually recognizable bull sharks at the Shark Reef Marine Reserve in Fiji to determine whether they formed social bonds, defined as “joining and remaining in a group on the basis of social attraction to other individuals.” When sharks were seen swimming within one body length of each other, it was counted as an “association.” When they also interacted by parallel (平行) swimming; leading or following; or joining or turning back from another shark, it was counted as “social interactions”.
Scientists identified males and females by checking for male reproductive organs. Tools were used to estimate size, while age was calculated from existing data. According to the authors, the sharks formed groups not just because they were in the same place at the same time, but because they actively chose to interact with certain individuals.
The results revealed that sex and age influenced how the sharks associated with each other. Both males and females preferred to socialize with females. Adult sharks were responsible for most of the social behavior, and they preferentially associated with other adults. Subadults (亚成体) were much less social within their age class and preferred hanging around with adults.
“As humans, we build a range of social relationships — from loose ties to our best friends, but we also actively avoid certain people — and these bull sharks are doing similar things,” explained a lead author Natasha D. Marosi.
As for the benefits of bull shark friendships, they could be sharing knowledge, gaining protection from bigger individuals, or looking for future mates.
12. How does Darren Croft view the traditional understanding of sharks
A. It is based on solid and sufficient evidence.
B. It correctly identifies them as lonely hunters.
C. It is largely inaccurate on their social behavior.
D. It overestimates the complexity of their social lives.
13. According to paragraph 3, which behavior is counted as a “social interaction”
A. Swimming in close physical distance.
B. Joining a group based on time and space overlap.
C. Gathering together to find resources in large groups.
D. Engaging in parallel swimming or leading and following.
14. What do the results of the study suggest
A. Bull sharks’ social behavior is purposeful. B. Subadult bull sharks are more social than adults.
C. Male bull sharks prefer to socialize with males. D. Age affects bull shark social bonds most.
15. What is mainly talked about in paragraph 5
A. How sharks swim in groups. B. What affects shark social behavior.
C. How researchers define social bonds. D. Why female sharks are more popular.
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Imagine a backyard climbing wall where kids climb, play, and build confidence daily. It boosts strength, focus, and creativity. Ready to transform your backyard Let’s dive in!
Picking the right wall is important for safety and fun. ____16____ Wood is common and strong;plastic is lightweight for younger kids; metal adds durability (耐用性) but may be heavier. Choose weather-resistant and smooth ones. Besides, size depends on available space and children’s skill. Small walls (4-6 feet) work for beginners, while medium walls (6-8 feet) suit older kids.
Proper mounting ensures safety and durability. Choose a flat, shaded spot away from pools or hard surfaces, with room for padding (垫子).____17____ DIY saves money but needs skills and time;hiring a specialist costs more but guarantees quality. Anyway, secure it firmly with concrete footings or heavy base plates and ensure all fasteners are tight.
____18____ Colorful holds and themes — like stars and animals — invite imagination. You can also add climbing challenges like balance beams (平衡木), angled walls. Including climbing games likeHold Tag or Color Match makes climbing a joyful social activity.
Safety must be the top priority. Soft landing surfaces like rubber padding reduce injury risk. Handholds and footholds must be tightly fixed with rounded edges. Regular inspections are also key: check for unfastened holds, splits and test the wall’s stability.____19____
A backyard climbing wall creates happy memories and healthy habits. It brings kids closer to nature and helps them grow strong and confident.____20____ Give your kids a chance to explore and play outdoors — it’s a great way to support their growth.
A. Materials affect the wall’s strength and safety.
B. Adding fun features makes playtime more exciting.
C. Replace any loose or damaged parts without delay.
D. Safety checks should be done once a year to save your time.
E. You can either build the wall yourself or hire a professional.
F. They learn balance, focus, and problem-solving while having fun.
G. Metal walls are the best choice because they never need maintenance.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Seven-year-old Ben O’ Reilly, a first grader at Campton Elementary School in New Hampshire, is deaf and has some special needs. His aide (护理员), Cheryl Ulicny, said he ____21____ to connect with those around him.“He doesn’t have ____22____ with his peers (同学) or teachers, for that matter,” Ulicny explained. “He ____23____ as if he is extremely lonely.”
Part of the ____24____ came from the setting itself. New Hampshire is one of the few states without a ____25____ school for deaf students, and Ben is the only deaf child in his entire district. Apart from his aide, he could hardly communicate with anyone around him.
Then something remarkable began to ____26____. A few classmates started learning simple signs so they could ____27____ with Ben. Soon, the entire class joined in. Students ____28____ to learning sign language together, and the effort ____29____ throughout the school. Teachers in other grades began taking classes and using sign language regularly, even when Ben was not present. What started as a small friendly act turned into a school-wide ____30____.
When Ben’s mother Etta learned the whole school had ____31____ and cared for her son, she was filled with ____32____.“It’s incredible,” Etta said. “I could ____33____ breathe. It was just so touching.”
Today, almost every student and staff member has ____34____ the fundamentals of sign language. More significantly, the school has created a warm and ____35____ environment where Ben feels valued, accepted and understood.
21. A. managed B. struggled C. worked D. decided
22. A. differences B. spirits C. relationships D. quarrels
23. A. behaves B. pretends C. waits D. responds
24. A. worry B. secret C. choice D. challenge
25. A. dedicated B. strict C. spacious D. harmonious
26. A. happen B. exist C. change D. leave
27. A. compete B. debate C. argue D. interact
28. A. objected B. committed C. submitted D. admitted
29. A. remained B. appeared C. spread D. fell
30. A. activity B. game C. meeting D. lecture
31. A. invited B. accepted C. received D. admired
32. A. anxiety B. determination C. thought D. emotion
33. A. finally B. nearly C. barely D. rarely
34. A. put up B. picked up C. set up D. gave up
35. A. peaceful B. stable C. equal D. inclusive
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Pasang Dekyi is a young guardian of Tibetan embroidery (刺绣). She has dedicated ____36____ (she) to sustaining this 600-year-old heritage by integrating tradition into modern life.
As ____37____ unique art form, Tibetan embroidery combines folk crafts with painting techniques. Unlike traditional painted thangkas, it creates three-dimensional effects through cutting, piecing, and stacking (层叠) silk and other fabrics.
“Every Tibetan embroidery piece has a soul, ____38____ core lies in cutting, stacking, and attaching. Core craftsmanship must never be sacrificed, even for ____39____ (innovate),” PasangDekyi emphasizes.
Her connection to the craft began long before she ____40____ (conscious) chose it. Raised in a craft family, she absorbed its rhythms naturally. While at university, she joined the family workshop and decided to devote her life to Tibetan embroidery.
She has explored ways to make the art ____41____ (approach) to more people. Her creations range from traditional pieces ____42____ contemporary items, with popular cultural images like Mickey Mouse ____43____ (feature) in some of them.“This is not about breaking tradition, but continuing it in a language appreciated by people today,” she explains.
Through the combined efforts of craftsmen like Pasang Dekyi, Tibetan embroidery thangka ____44____ (add) to the national intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产) list in 2021. PasangDekyi remains committed to her mission, _____45_____ (ensure) the ancient art evolves while staying rooted in its original spirit.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15 分)
46. 假定你是李华，你的英国朋友 David计划暑期来中国旅游，来信询问该选择传统观光旅游还是生态旅游。请你给他回信，内容包括：
1.你的观点及理由；
2.给出建议。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear David,
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The December air bit through the cracks (缝隙) in Sarah’s windows. Snow had been falling since morning, blanketing the quiet Ohio street in white. Inside, the small apartment felt even colder.
Sarah had just lost her job at the diner downtown. Her three-month-old daughter, Lily, had been crying for hours. The last can of formula (奶粉) sat nearly empty on the kitchen table. On that day, she clearly remembered she hadn’t ordered anything, but there it was on her porch (门廊) — a large cardboard box, wrapped in brown shipping tape. The label bore a name she didn’t recognize. She knew she should have returned it, but the box said, “Baby Supplies.”
She stared at the box for a long time. With Lily’s crying growing weaker, she made the final decision she herself hated. She opened it. Inside were three large containers of formula, two winter coats, and a soft blue blanket. The receipt showed the total: three hundred dollars. Looking at the supplies, she silently promised that she would definitely pay them back in the future.
In the days that followed, Sarah fed Lily with the formula and wrapped her in the soft blue blanket. The baby stopped crying. She slept peacefully on the bed. But Sarah felt restless. Every time she poured the formula into a bottle, guilt washed over her.
A week later, a letter arrived. It was handwritten on yellowed paper.
“Dear whoever received this package,” it read. “My name is Margaret. I saved to buy those things for my grandson. I don’t know who signed for the package, but please send back whatever you can. Even just the formula. But if you’re a struggling mother with little babies, please tell me.”
Holding the letter, Sarah sat crying on the floor. She had already used most of it. The formula was half gone. When Sarah emptied her purse, she found only twenty dollars and some loose change.
注意：
1.续写词数应为150个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
With trembling hands, Sarah picked up a pen and began to write back to Margaret.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Soon another package from Margaret arrived, bringing what Sarah needed.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

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