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2026 年学业水平阶段性调研测试九年级英语（2026.05）
本试卷共 10 页，满分 150 分。考试用时 120 分钟。
注意事项：
答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用 0.5mm 黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A. He is washing clothes. B. This is my friend. C. I’d like some noodles.
2.A. Mary can’t ride the bike. B. Lucy didn’t watch TV. C. I haven’t read the book.
3.A. Do you like oranges B. Is this his dictionary C. Can you play the guitar
4.A. How sweet the food is! B. What an exciting movie! C. What responsible teachers!
5.A. Where was the ring made B. What can you learn C. How do you study English
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. What’s Mary’s favourite subject
A. Chinese. B. English. C. Chemistry.
7. Who went to the museum with Bob
A. His father. B. His friend. C. No one.
8. How far is the No. 5 Hospital
A. An hour on foot. B. Half an hour by bike. C. Half an hour on foot.
9. What are the two speakers talking about
A. A Chinese festival. B. A happy time. C. Some delicious food.
10. What should Nancy do
A. Do more exercise. B. Go to the hospital. C. Brush her teeth.
第三节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. What is Li Ming’s plan for the summer vacation
A. To take a trip. B. To take after-school classes. C. To help the old people.
12. When does Li Ming get to the old people’s home
A. At 7:00. B. At 9:00. C. At 19:00.
13. What is Li Ming’s work there
A. Doing chores. B. Singing with the old. C. Teaching phone skills.
14. What do the old people share
A. Beautiful photos. B. Interesting experiences. C. Useful books.
15. What may the girl do next
A. Join the volunteer group. B. Visit her old grandparents. C. Learn to play chess.
第四节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. Where did Lily go by train last Saturday
A. A new city. B. The hospital. C. Her grandparents’ home.
17. When did Lily feel nervous after the train stopped
A. Ten minutes later. B. Twenty minutes later. C. Thirty minutes later.
18. Why did the train stop for a long time
A. A woman got really sick.
B. A young woman wanted to share something.
C. There was something wrong with the front train.
19. What did the doctor do before giving medicine to the lady with a headache
A. Examined her carefully. B. Asked her some questions. C. Told her stories.
20. What does the story mainly want to tell us
A. Lily’s train trip was terrible.
B. Kindness makes the world warm.
C. It’s important to be patient on the train.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节 阅读理解（共 20 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Join Our Community Fair! This weekend, Daxing Community will hold a special charity (慈善) fair. It is a warm public activity to help people in need. Welcome to join us! Date: Saturday, May 3rd Time: 10:00 AM-3:00 PM Location: Central Community Park Activities & Fun Things: Free Health Check-ups: Basic health checks for all ages. Book Donation Drive: Bring your second-hand books to help local schools. Eco-Friendly Workshop: Learn to make beautiful artwork from recycled materials. Food Drive: Donate (捐赠) long-lasting pet food to pet owners in need. Kids’ Fun Area: Face painting, balloon animals and storytelling. Live Music & Performances: Enjoy music from local bands and dance shows. Volunteer Sign-Up: We need your help! Volunteers are needed to do preparation work, help at the fair, and keep the place clean and tidy. Sign up at the community center or in our WeChat group. Business Support Welcome: Support our event and you can show your business name through the fair or social media. Contact us for more information. Parking: Please do not park your cars along the roads or in the green areas. Visitors can park their cars in the public parking lot next to Central Community Park. For more information: Call 555-1234 or follow our WeChat official account. Let’s Make a Difference Together! Come and be a part of this heartwarming event. Your help can change lives. See you in Daxing Community!
21.How long will the Community Charity Fair last
A. Three hours. B. Five hours. C. Six hours. D. Seven hours.
22.What can visitors do at the fair
A. Sell beautiful artwork. B. Get books and food.
C. Watch national music shows. D. Have free health checks.
23.Who needs to clean the fair
A. Visitors. B. Pet owners. C. Doctors. D. Volunteers.
24.What can we learn from the text
A. The activity expects more people to take part in it.
B. Visitors can park cars in green areas for free.
C. Businessmen can’t offer help through the fair.
D. People can send emails for more information.
25.Where is this text probably taken from
A. A travel guide. B. A children’s storybook.
C. A community newsletter. D. A science magazine.
B
One summer day when I was in high school, my father gave me a task to buy some tools for our farm. I loved nothing better than driving our family’s truck to do something, but this time I was not so happy, because my father had told me I would have to ask for credit (赊账) at the store.
Sixteen is such a proud age. Young men at that age want respect but not pity. I had seen many times that my friends were refused when they asked for credit, and I could feel their disappointment and shame. We lived in a poor village, where money was seriously needed. So I knew clearly how difficult it might be to make the store owner believe me and get the credit.
The hot sun beat down heavily, making me feel uneasy. At the Davy Brothers store, Buck Davy was talking to a farmer. After I finished choosing the things I wanted, I slowly walked over to him. “I need to put these on credit.” I said to him, shyly and carefully. The farmer gave me a kind look, but Buck’s face didn’t change in the slightest. “No problem,” he said in a relaxed voice. “I know your daddy will pay for them in time.” Then he turned to the farmer, “This boy is James Williams’ son.”
The farmer nodded to me in a friendly way. I was so proud of my father. “James Williams’ son”—these three words opened the door to these adults’ respect and trust. At that moment, I fully understood how valuable my father’s good name was. Since then, I have also tried my best to pay attention to my own actions and behaviors.
26.What did the writer’s father ask him to do
A. To get some help. B. To drive a truck.
C. To buy some tools. D. To ask for money.
27.Why was it difficult to ask for credit in that village
A. Because it was difficult to make money there.
B. Because the writer was young and proud.
C. Because the store owner didn’t trust them.
D. Because the writer didn’t have any money.
28.How did the writer feel at first when he was in the Davy Brothers store
A. Happy. B. Embarrassed. C. Relaxed. D. Disappointed.
29.Why did the writer feel proud of his father
A. Because the farmer was friendly to the writer.
B. Because his father trusted him and loved him.
C. Because his father opened a door for him.
D. Because his father had won the villagers’ respect.
30.What can be a suitable title for the text
A. An Interesting Farm Task. B. My Hard-working Father.
C. The Power of a Good Name. D. A Special Shopping Experience.
C
The Yingge dance, also named “Dance of the Heroes”, has a history dating back to the Ming Dynasty. It is a folk art form that mixes opera, dance and martial arts (武术). It is quite popular in Guangdong Province in South China and Puning is home to over 100 Yingge teams. In 2006, Puning Yingge dance was listed as part of China’s national intangible cultural heritage.
The Yingge dance usually gets inspiration from The Water Margin (水浒传), one of China’s Four Great Classical Novels. During main festivals, the sound of Yingge drums fills cities and villages. The dancers wear colorful traditional costumes, put on beautiful facial makeup (化妆) and dance joyfully. When watching the dance, people can feel a strong sense of courage and power, along with an energetic and lively feeling.
Typically, the lead dancer acts like a snake, which is a symbol of flexibility (灵活性) and wisdom, giving the dance deep cultural meaning. Holding a cloth snake, the lead dancer copies the snake’s movements. When he makes his way through the dance team, he also guides the team’s direction. His fine steps and skillful movements make him the center of the performance.
During performances, dancers hold the Yingge sticks at their mid-points, shaking them and forming the shape of number 8. At the same time, their fingers create continuous movements. Moreover, each dancer jumps sideways and hits the sticks to the drum beats as if they are riding a horse. Their heads and bodies move naturally to the beat too.
Traditionally, only adult men could join the Yingge teams. Today, however, the dance has opened its doors to both men and women. Modern dance has also been introduced, yet the heart of the tradition remains untouched. It is this mix that keeps the heroic spirit of Yingge alive, making it a true “Dance of the Heroes”.
31What do we know about the Yingge dance from Paragraph 1
A. It includes opera, dance and magic.
B. It enjoys great popularity in South China.
C. It is performed in Shandong nowadays.
D. It has been around for less than 100 years.
32.What can people feel when enjoying the Yingge dance
A. The sadness of ancient stories.
B. The warmth of family meetings.
C. The sense of strength and energy.
D. The beauty of traditional costumes.
33.What does the snake stand for in the Yingge dance
A. Being smooth and wise. B. Being fast and strong.
C. Being lucky and happy. D. Being brave and powerful.
34.How does the writer make Paragraph 4 lively
A. By telling a story. B. By describing each action.
C. By asking questions. D. By using personal feelings.
35What can be the best title for the text
A. The History of Yingge Dance. B. How to Perform the Yingge Dance.
C. The Water Margin and Yingge. D. A Traditional Dance with a Hero’s Spirit.
D
Do you like blueberries If so, the next time you’re about to eat your fill of these delicious berries, take a good look at them. Then ask yourself: Are blueberries really blue
For the most part, blueberries aren’t blue. If you carefully peel the skin (表皮) off one, you’ll see that the inside is white. If you rub (摩擦) the inside of the skin on a white piece of paper, you’ll see a reddish-purple color. And if you gently rub the outside of a blueberry, the blue color disappears and the berry looks almost black. But as soon as you pick one, it does look blue. What’s going on
Scientists explain that colors can be created in two different ways. The first is through pigments (色素). A pigment shows the color of the light it does not absorb. The most common pigment in plants is chlorophyll (叶绿素), a green pigment. Plant leaves appear green because chlorophyll doesn’t absorb green light. It sends it out instead while absorbing blue and red light. Plants prefer to absorb blue light because it has more energy than any other light. However, there aren’t any “true blue” pigments in the plant world.
The second way to make color is through “structural color (结构色).” This happens when the structure of a surface makes some colors of light look different. Have you ever seen the rainbow colors on a CD These colors show up because of the tiny spaces between the thin coats. These spaces only allow certain colors to reach our eyes — a perfect example of structural color.
Blueberries also create “structural color” in their own way. The berries look black when they’re ready, but the plants build a thin coat of wax (蜡) on their outside. This coat is only four-thousandths of a centimeter thick, but it gives the berries their blue look. The blue color helps the plants because birds are drawn to the rare (罕见的) color. They eat the berries and spread the seeds (种子) far and wide.
Now your bowl of blueberries suddenly looks a lot more interesting. The fruit is beautiful, but its beauty is only skin deep while the science behind it runs much deeper.
36.What happens to a blueberry after you gently rub its outside
A. It appears black. B. It becomes reddish-purple.
C. It turns white inside. D. It remains a darker blue.
37.What does the underlined word “absorb” most probably mean in Paragraph 3
A. Give out. B. Take in. C. Fall off. D. Wash away.
38.Why does the author mention a CD in Paragraph 4
A. To prove that CDs are colorful. B. To show that CDs are made of wax.
C. To explain what structural color is. D. To suggest that pigments are not important.
39.How does the blue color of blueberries help the plant
A. It attracts birds that spread the seeds. B. It helps the fruit grow bigger.
C. It keeps the fruit fresh for longer. D. It protects the fruit from insects.
40.What is the main purpose of the text
A. To describe how to grow blueberries.
B. To argue that blueberries are not healthy.
C. To compare blueberries with other fruits.
D. To explain the color that blueberries appear.
第二节 阅读七选五（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
No matter whether it is during the holidays or at any time of the year, as long as we choose to move, every step we take can bring good changes to our body and mind. So, choose the way that fits you best! Move your way!
Have you ever thought about what really makes people achieve great things Take Newton as an example. He didn’t just care about the apple falling, he kept asking why it fell straight down. 41
After watching how people act in different areas for many years, I have realized something very important. Two qualities, curiosity (好奇心) and dissatisfaction, set great achievers apart from those who have no special performance. 42 you need both to be great.
Luckily, we don’t need to learn these qualities. We are born with them, and we just need to bring them back. A great man from ancient China once said, “The great man is he who does not lose his child’s heart.” 43 We stop asking questions. We stop going against the usual ways. We just follow what others do. So we must push ourselves to wake them up and keep them active.
Then, how can you start 44 A friend of mine couldn’t cook well. She was curious about how to improve, so she started with simple dishes. Now she cooks for her family with joy.
Another way to start is to answer the excuses you make for yourself. Do you think you have no special ability or time Many people without special abilities or with little time still manage to get things done. Harriet Stowe, a mother of six, wrote parts of Uncle Tom’s Cabin while she was cooking. 45 Remember that Thomas Costain published his first novel at 57, and Grandma Moses showed her first pictures at 78.
No matter how you start, always remember that there is no better time to start than right now, because you will never be more full of life than you are at this moment.
A. Do you ever worry that your age might hold you back B. You should always wait until you feel fully ready to begin. C. Being naturally talented is the most important thing for success. D. However, most of us do lose that childlike habit of asking “why”. E. Pick something in a small way so that you won’t get disappointed. F. I have never known an excellent man who didn’t have either of them. G. Just like him, all the great people in history were curious and always asked in dissatisfaction.
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分 35 分）
第一节 补全对话（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
阅读下面对话，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
(Thomas and Lin Hua are talking about famous people.)
Thomas: Hi, Lin Hua, who is your hero
Lin Hua: Have a guess. He is Chinese and he made important contributions (贡献) to our country.
Thomas: 46
Lin Hua: He was a scientist. He worked hard to make our country stronger and safer. I’m interested in physics and I want to be a man like him.
Thomas: 47 Could it be Deng Jiaxian
Lin Hua: Yes, you’re right. 48 How about you
Thomas: Norman Bethune is my hero. He was a famous doctor.
Lin Hua: 49
Thomas: He was from Canada. And he helped the Chinese people during the War of Resistance Against Japanese Aggression (抗日战争).
Lin Hua: He is really great. We’ve learned a lot from the famous people.
Thomas: 50
46.A. Was he at school B. Was he a teacher
C. What did he do D. Where did he work
47.A. I don’t think so. B. I know who he is.
C. You must be joking. D. I have no idea.
48.A. He is my role model. B. He was a good learner.
C. He was born in Beijing. D. I have a big family.
49.A. Why does he like China B. When did he come
C. How long has he stayed here D. Where was he from
50.A. I’m sorry to hear that. B. I can’t agree more.
C. You’re welcome. D. Good luck to you.
第二节 完形填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Have you ever dreamed of visiting another country without taking a plane Two young French men, Loic Voisot and Benjamin Humblot, made this wonderful dream come true. They traveled all the way from Europe to China 51 , and their amazing journey surprised people everywhere.
The two brave friends began their special trip in September 2024. They 52 from Annecy, a beautiful French city famous for its clean lakes. After more than a year of walking along the Silk Road, they crossed 16 different 53 . They covered more than 12,850 kilometers and spent 518 days on the way. 54 , they arrived in Shanghai, China in February 2026. On average, they walked about 25 kilometers every 55 . They often felt tired and had sore legs, but they never 56 . They even wore out 7 pairs of shoes during the trip.
The journey was full of warm and interesting moments. When they got to Lanzhou, China, they learned to 57 local beef noodles and thought it was hard but very interesting. In many small towns, local people offered them warm drinks and best 58 . When they reached Shanghai, over 100 people from different countries joined them for the final walk to the Bund (外滩) to 59 their success.
Along the way, they faced many 60 . The roads were long and the weather was sometimes terrible, 61 they kept moving forward. They took photos, recorded videos, and 62 their stories online to share their journey with the world. Many people were 63 by their courage and sent them messages of support.
The two young men avoided taking planes because they wanted to 64 the environment. They also believed walking was a slower but 65 way to travel. Their story tells us that nothing is impossible if we have courage and keep trying.
51.A. by bus B. by train C. on foot D. by bike
52.A. set off B. set up C. turned off D. turned up
53.A. cities B. countries C. towns D. villages
54.A. Luckily B. Suddenly C. Finally D. Hardly
55.A. hour B. day C. month D. year
56.A. sat down B. got over C. looked after D. gave up
57.A. eat B. buy C. make D. watch
58.A. gifts B. wishes C. books D. money
59.A. forget B. miss C. stop D. celebrate
60.A. changes B. chances C. challenges D. choices
61.A. and B. so C. for D. but
62.A. posted B. hid C. brought D. received
63.A. moved B. inspired C. shocked D. admired
64.A. protect B. build C. pollute D. love
65.A. busier B. wider C. faster D. healthier
第三节 阅读填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Oracle bone script (甲骨文) is the oldest form of Chinese writing. AI is the latest technology we use today. Now in Anyang, Henan Province, a team of engineers are using AI 66. ______ (research) this ancient writing.
Li Bang, 33, is 67. ______ AI scientist who works at Anyang Normal University. He and his team built a special online “library”. They put pictures of oracle bones and lots of ancient books into this library. Then they 68. ______ (write) programs to help AI learn to study the shapes of characters and find information about 69. ______ (they).
When people hope to deeply study an oracle bone character, it 70. ______ (show) to the computer first so that AI can start its fast analysis. AI 71. ______ (find) similar characters and books that are related to it in a few seconds. In the past, this common work took them a few hours 72. ______ even a few days.
“AI is of great 73. ______ (important) for people who study oracle bones, but it can’t take their place completely.” Li said. AI has a strong memory, but it isn’t good 74. ______ thinking things through on its own. AI has helped a lot with searching for information about the characters. However, it hardly tells us what the ancient characters 75. ______ (true) mean. So human thinking and understanding are always necessary.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 35 分）
第一节 情境运用（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.A: When is Children’s Day
B: ________________________.
77.A: ________________________
B: Yes, he can. It’s his favorite ball game.
78.A: ________________________
B: I need one.
79.A: Did you camp in the city park
B: Not really. ________________________.
80.A: ________________________
B: It’s 285 meters high.
第二节 作文（满分 25 分）
家是心之归处，爱之港湾。家庭生活中总有一些温馨的时刻，成为我们心中珍贵的回忆。学校英文报正在举办以 “Home, Sweet Home” 为主题的征文活动。请向校英文报投稿，内容包括：
1.讲述你和家人之间的一件小事和这件事对你的影响；
2.通过这件事，谈谈你对 “家” 的理解和感悟。
注意：
1.词数 100 左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3.不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
2026 年学业水平阶段性调研测试
九年级英语试题参考答案（2026.05）
第一部分 听力
1-5 BACBA
6-10 ABCAB
11-15 CBCBA
16-20 CACAB
第二部分 阅读
21-25 BDDAC
26-30 CABDC
31-35 BCABD
36-40 ABCAD
41-45 GFDEA
第三部分 语言运用
46-50 CBADB
51-55 CABCB
56-60 DCBDC
61-65 DAAAD
66. to research 67. an 68. wrote 69. them 70. is shown 71. will find
72. or 73. importance 74. at 75. truly
第四部分 写作
76.It’s on June 1st.
77.Can Tom play football/soccer
78.How many cups of milk do you need
79.I had a picnic /went on a picnic/went for a picnic in the city park.
80.How high is Qianfo Mountain/Hill
作文
Home, Sweet Home
Home is the warmest harbour for me. I still remember a moving thing between my parents and me.
Last month, I failed my English exam. I felt upset and didn’t dare to tell my parents. When they found out, they didn’t blame me at all. Instead, they comforted me gently. My mother made delicious food for me, and my father helped me review English knowledge patiently every night. Little by little, I became confident again and made great progress.
This small thing lets me understand what home means. Home is full of love, care and encouragement. Whenever I meet difficulties, my family will always stand by me. They give me strength and warmth. I love my warm and sweet home forever.
第一节 评分标准：
本题共 10 分。第 76—80 题，每小题 2 分。每个句子完全正确给 2 分；出现错误但关键信息正确给 1 分；关键信息错误给 0 分。凡符合情境和语意的答案，均按评分标准给分。
第二节 评分标准：
(1) 本题共 25 分。
(2) 卷面书写潦草不工整，以致影响理解，可酌情扣 1-2 分。
(3) 拼写错误酌情扣分（0.5-1 分）。同样错误不重复计算。
(4) 写作可分为五个等级：
21-25 分：短文覆盖所有内容要点，语句自然流畅，全文结构紧凑，语言丰富地道，书写清晰工整，字数符合要求，语法错误较少（1-3 处），表现出较强的语言运用能力，完全达到预期写作目的。
16-20 分：短文基本覆盖所有内容要点，语句较流畅，全文结构较紧凑，语言准确，书写工整，字数符合要求，语法错误较少（4-5 处），表现出一定的语言运用能力，达到预期写作目的。
11-15 分：短文覆盖主要内容，语句尚通顺，内容较连贯，书写较工整，语法错误较多，字数在 80 词左右，基本达到预期写作目的。
6-10 分：短文漏掉一些内容要点，有些内容与主题无关，语句不够通顺，语法错误较多，影响了对写作内容的理解，书写一般，字数在 60 词以下，信息未能清楚地传送给读者。
5 分以下：明显遗漏要点，写了一些无关的内容，偏离主题，语法结构或词汇方面的错误较多，词不达意。

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