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2026 年初中学业水平阶段性质量监测二英语试题
（本试卷共 12 页，满分 150 分。考试用时 120 分钟。）
注意事项：
答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用 0.5mm 黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A. He went camping yesterday. B. She likes swimming. C. I play the guitar every day.
2.A. Keep yourself healthy. B. Be kind to others. C. Do chores by yourself.
3.A. She won’t be late again. B. He didn’t give up easily. C. They don’t like cold drinks.
4.A. Have you cleaned the room B. Is Peter reading books C. Can he draw well
5.A. How was your weekend B. Whose scarf is this C. Why do you like English
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. What does Tom think of the art show
A. Classical. B. Funny. C. Wonderful.
7. When does David usually have breakfast
A. At 6:30. B. At 6:45. C. At 7:00.
8. How is the weather now
A. Cloudy. B. Sunny. C. Rainy.
9. Where are the speakers
A. At a bookstore. B. At a flower shop. C. At a restaurant.
10. What’s the relationship between the two speakers
A. Classmates. B. Father and daughter. C. Teacher and student.
第三节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间，对话听两遍。
11. What does Lucy think of her trip
A. Relaxing. B. Educational. C. Just so-so.
12. How did Lucy go to the village every weekend
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On foot.
13. Why did Lucy take part in the volunteer program
A. To plant trees. B. To pick up rubbish. C. To teach children English.
14. Who did Jack go to Langmao Mountain with
A. His relatives. B. His friends. C. Some middle school students.
15. What are the two speakers mainly talking about
A. Their favorite food. B. Their summer vacation. C. Their school life.
第四节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. Where did Lucy find the old photo
A. In a box. B. Under a bed. C. Behind a door.
17. When did the story behind the photo happen
A. Last Friday. B. This week. C. Eight years ago.
18. How long did it take Lucy to make the cake
A. For about 30 minutes. B. For about 60 minutes. C. For about 90 minutes.
19. What can we know about Lucy from the story
A. She enjoys cooking. B. She loves her mother. C. She likes taking photos.
20. Why did Lucy write this letter
A. To share her unforgettable experience. B. To ask for some advice. C. To introduce how to make a cake.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节 阅读理解（共 20 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分）
阅读下列短文，然后从每小题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
21.What can students do on the farm
A. Design the garden. B. Care for the animals. C. Clean the farmland. D. Pick fruit and vegetables.
22.When is it suitable to visit the farm
A. On Wednesday in October. B. On Sunday in June.
C. On Saturday in May. D. On Monday in February.
23.How much should a student pay for a three-week visit
A. 180 yuan. B. 200 yuan. C. 540 yuan. D. 600 yuan.
24.What can we learn about the farm’s education team
A. It can provide food for students. B. It can provide 3 hours for students.
C. It can give prizes to the group members. D. It can receive all kids who want to come.
25.Where is this text probably taken from
A. A news report. B. A story book. C. A science magazine. D. An advertisement.
B
I am a running lover. I usually run on the track in my neighbourhood. Most people walk on the track, so I am faster than them. My speed seems amazing to the walkers and I often pass by them twenty or more times around the track. This makes me feel proud.
One day, a short man came. He didn’t look like much of a runner. I saw him get out of the car and warm up before running. We started running together, but soon he was a few meters ahead of me. He was fast, but I sped up and managed to catch up with him. After a lap (圈), however, I fell behind him and had great difficulty breathing. After two laps, my foot began to hurt, so I had to slow down and began to run at my usual speed. This time I could breathe again without sounding like I had a lung disease (肺病) and the pain in my foot went away. In a very short time, he was far ahead. He was too fast for me to follow.
That day, I learned several lessons. In life, there will always be those slower and faster. Some have natural talent, and some have trained harder. Don’t judge the capacity of a person by how he or she looks.
The point is that we each have our own speed. When we are trying to keep up, we often end up hurting ourselves and being out of breath. Slow down or speed up, but run your race to your best. Don’t run fast when you should be running slowly. Don’t run at all when you should be walking. Don’t walk when you should be running.
26.What was the author’s first impression of the short man
A. He was an amazing runner. B. He was an experienced driver.
C. He wasn’t good at running. D. He was too proud of himself.
27.Why did the author have to slow down after two laps
A. He felt too proud to run faster. B. His foot started to hurt and he breathed hard.
C. The short man told him to run slowly. D. He wanted to walk with other people.
28.What does the underlined word “capacity” probably mean
A. Ability. B. Job. C. Attitude. D. Age.
29.Which of the following is TRUE about the short man
A. He looked very strong and tall. B. He ran much faster than the writer.
C. He fell behind the writer at last. D. He stopped running after two laps.
30.Which of the following is the writer’s opinion in the last paragraph
A. Running fast is the key to success in life. B. We should stop running when we feel tired.
C. Keeping up with others can make us better. D. We should do things at our own proper speed.
C
The Yarlung Zangbo River, China’s longest plateau (高原) river, is the most important waterway in Xizang. Starting from the Jima Yangzong Glacier on the Himalayas’ northern side, it runs through several places in Xizang. Then it heads south, finally flowing into the Indian Ocean. In China, it runs about 2,057 kilometers and holds lots of water. In Xizang, the river helps farmers grow crops and also creates a huge, deep canyon (峡谷) near Nyingchi City, which is known as the world’s deepest canyon. This area is home to many protected animals.
On July 19, 2025, China started building a new hydroelectric project (水利工程) which will use the river’s fast-flowing water to make electricity. Workers will build five small dams connected by long tunnels (隧道) underground. These tunnels will carry water from high places to lower places, using the river’s natural drop of almost 2,000 meters to drive machines.
With a cost of 1.2 trillion yuan, the project will take many years to complete. Once finished, it will produce enough electricity for millions of homes. And there are some key facts showing how people can use nature’s power without hurting the environment. Smart Design: Engineers make the water drop 2,200 meters over just 50 km to create strong power. Helping Nature: Special paths for fish will be built, and enough water will flow downstream to protect animals and plants. Better Lives: It brings jobs for 200,000 people and gives Xizang 20 billion yuan each year for schools, roads, and hospitals.
31.Which is the correct order of the Yarlung Zangbo River’s journey
① Reaches the Indian Ocean. ② Goes across some areas in Xizang.
③ Heads south close to Nyingchi. ④ Comes from Jima Yangzong Glacier.
A. ④ → ③ → ② → ① B. ① → ④ → ② → ③
C. ④ → ② → ③ → ① D. ② → ④ → ① → ③
32.How does the project make power
A. By building tunnels above ground. B. By using the river’s natural drop to run machines.
C. By connecting machines to slow water. D. By digging tunnels to transport animals.
33.What can we know about the project’s design
A. It can harm the canyon’s depth.
B. It focuses only on making electricity cheaply.
C. It changes the river’s natural flow completely.
D. It balances power needs and nature protection.
34.In which way is the last paragraph mainly organized
A. By asking questions. B. By listing several parts with clear headings.
C. By telling stories. D. By showing different opinions.
35.What can be a suitable title for the text
A. The Start of the Yarlung Zangbo River
B. The World’s Deepest Canyon in Xizang
C. How to Protect the Environment in Xizang
D. A Green Hydroelectric Project on the Yarlung Zangbo River
D
These days, the term “AI+” (also known as the AI Plus Initiative) has become a key part of our country’s development plans, and is frequently mentioned in official papers like government work reports. According to official explanations, AI+ means putting artificial intelligence technology into different traditional areas of life and work. AI systems can collect and analyze (分析) large amounts of data quickly, and then make smart decisions or provide helpful services—that’s what makes them “intelligent”. We can easily understand this idea with a simple formula: AI+ Traditional Area = Intelligent Improvement. This technology is changing our daily lives in many practical ways.
AI+ is especially influential in education and daily life. For example, in schools, AI can quickly check students’ homework and papers across all subjects. It finds grammar mistakes in language lessons, calculation mistakes in math and logical problems in argumentative essays, which helps us improve our learning efficiency greatly. AI+ also brings great convenience to our daily life. AI-based campus systems can remind students of their class schedules and library book return dates, while AI-led traffic apps help people avoid rush-hour jams with real-time route updates. These typical examples show how AI+ improves traditional tools and makes our study and life more convenient.
Besides, AI+ plays an important role in key national areas. It is widely used in smart manufacturing to find product problems automatically, helping factories improve product quality. It helps in smart healthcare to improve doctors’ diagnostic (诊断的) efficiency. It also works in environmental protection to watch pollution all the time. As said in official plans, the goal is to let AI+ cover over 70% of key areas by 2027, which will push our society towards smarter development.
In short, AI+ is not a tool to take the place of humans. Instead, it is a smart assistant that supports people in both study and work. Learning about AI+ can open up technological views and encourage people to keep learning new knowledge. While AI+ brings convenience, we also need to think about how to use it wisely. Let’s welcome this intelligent age to get ready for a better future with AI+!
36.What can we learn about AI systems from paragraph 1
A. They can hardly collect information. B. They only work in language learning
C. They can process data and offer useful help D. They depend on humans to make decisions.
37.What is the main idea of paragraph 2
A. The official definition of AI+.
B. The future plan of AI+ development.
C. The application of AI+ in national key areas.
D. The influence of AI+ on education and daily life.
38.Which of the following is the exact use of AI+ in key national areas
A. Check students’ homework and papers quickly. B. Help improve doctors’ diagnostic efficiency. C. Remind students of library book return dates. D. Watch pollution only during working hours.
39.What is the purpose of mentioning the 70% goal in paragraph 3
A. To show AI+ has no development space. B. To prove AI+ will be widely used in the future.
C. To explain how AI+ works in healthcare. D. To compare AI+ with traditional technology.
40.What is the writer’s attitude towards the use of AI+
A. Supportive. B. Worried. C. Doubtful. D. Uncaring.
第二节 阅读七选五（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Everybody knows that doing exercise often helps us keep healthy. In the same way, our brains need regular activities to stay sharp and work well. A new study tells us that proper brain training can improve our memory and thinking ability, and prevent our brain from getting weak as we grow older.
It’s easy to train our brains by breaking our daily routines. When we do the same daily tasks repeatedly, such as studying with the same plan or walking the same way, our brains will gradually become less active. 41. ______ For example, getting up 30 minutes earlier every day to read a new book or draw a picture can make our brain smarter. A study found that students who tried new habits twice a week got better scores in thinking and memory tests.
Going to new places is also a great way to exercise our brains. 42 ______ People who often visit new places or try new hobbies have better memory than others. Students can try this by taking a different way to school, watching different plants on the street or listening to different sounds in the morning.
We can also train our brains by looking at things in a different way. When we see familiar things in a usual way, our brain knows them quickly without thinking. But if we turn these things upside down or put them in new places, our brain has to think more. 43. ______
Training our brains is just like building our body. It needs time and hard work. 44. ______ If we keep doing small brain exercises every day, our thinking, memory and study skills will get much better slowly.
45.______ Even small changes in daily life can bring big progress. Start your brain training today and be patient. You will see a better yourself soon.
A. This simple change can make our brain more active and help it grow well. B. We can’t get good results in a short time. C. However, trying new and different activities can make our brains work actively. D. Remember that brain training is not hard but needs patience. E. Doing the same things for long can make people feel bored and tired. F. Visiting new places can help us improve our memory a lot. G. It is not easy for students to keep good living and studying habits.
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分 35 分）
第一节 补全对话（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
阅读下面对话，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
A: Hi, Alice. You look upset. What’s the matter
B: Hi, Eric. The junior high school will be over soon, you know.
A: That’s true, Alice. 46
B: Wonderful. It has brought me a lot of good memories.
A: Really Would you like to tell me something about your special memories
B: I’d love to. I remember that I had trouble learning English in Grade Seven. 47
A: It was exactly a problem. Then how did you solve this problem in the end
B: 48 Thanks to his help, I found the secret to English learning. I am so thankful. What about you Who is your favourite teacher
A: Well, I like my math teacher best.
B: Who is your math teacher
A: Mr. Chen.
B: 49
A: He can always make his classes easy and interesting, so we all like his classes very much.
B: That’s why you are so good at math, I guess.
A: 50 He is a perfect teacher in my heart.
46.A. What can I do for you B. How long have you been here
C. How do you like your school life D. Where are you going to move
47.A. I was so worried that I felt unhappy every day. B. I am really sorry to hear that.
C. I can always get good grades in English. D. I have improved my English a lot.
48.A. I think it’s easy to learn English. B. Mr. King gave me much help.
C. I could learn it by myself. D. I worked really hard every day.
49.A. Why do you like him B. What do you think of him
C. How do you know that D. What’s your favourite subject
50.A. It doesn’t matter. B. No problem. C. I’m not sure. D. Of course.
第二节 完形填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A little boy used to walk with his father every day on a nearby hill.
One day the boy said, “Dad, let’s have a race today. The one who reaches the top of the hill first 51 the race.” The father agreed.
Both of them started running towards the hilltop. After running for some time, the father suddenly 52 .
The boy asked, “What happened 53 did you stop Have you accepted your failure already ”
“No, no. Some pebbles (石子) got stuck in my shoes. I stopped to remove them,” the father replied.
The boy said, “There are some pebbles in my shoes too. But 54 I stop now, I will lose the race. Once I reach the top, I will remove them.” Saying this, the boy ran ahead 55 .
The boy had gone far ahead but because of the pebbles 56 his shoes he started feeling pain in his feet. And he started to lose speed.
Gradually, his father came close to him.
Seeing his boy, the father shouted from 57 , “Why don’t you remove pebbles from your shoes first ”
“But I don’t have 58 for this!” said the boy.
After a while, his father overtook (超过) him.
The boy’s pain had 59 a lot because of the pebbles. And now he was not even 60 to walk.
He stopped there and shouted, “Dad, I can’t run anymore.”
His father quickly ran back and 61 his son’s shoes carefully. He saw that the boy’s 62 were hurt.
“Son, I told you to first remove the pebbles and then continue the race.”
“But I will lose the race,” the boy said.
“It is not like that, son! We shouldn’t put off solving problems in our life by saying that we don’t have time right now. If we pay no attention to them, they will gradually grow bigger and finally cause 63 more harm than before. It may just take you one 64 to remove the pebbles. But now you will have to bear pain for one week,” the father said.
Take control of the problem only when it is 65 . Take it seriously before it becomes bigger and causes more problems.
51.A. begins B. wins C. watches D. organizes
52.A. stopped B. stood C. laughed D. moved
53.A. How B. Where C. What D. Why
54.A. if B. after C. though D. before
55.A. slowly B. politely C. rapidly D. silently
56.A. with B. for C. on D. in
57.A. front B. above C. behind D. outside
58.A. luck B. time C. chance D. courage
59.A. disappeared B. left C. included D. increased
60.A. ready B. able C. free D. afraid
61.A. took off B. put away C. looked for D. handed out
62.A. hands B. knees C. legs D. feet
63.A. her B. them C. us D. it
64.A. minute B. hour C. day D. month
65.A. hard B. small C. serious D. big
第三节 阅读填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Yang Changqin is a master bamboo weaver who turns heritage into a modern business. She turned a childhood dream into a career. The 36-year-old is now a master Chishui bamboo weaver, founder 66. ______ her brand Jizhu.
Born in Guizhou, Yang loved handicrafts as a child. She 67. ______ (influence) by traditional bamboo weaving deeply, so at about 18, she gave up her job as a kindergarten teacher and decided to learn it. Bamboo weaving uses bamboo strips to make 68. ______ (use) and beautiful daily things. At first, it was 69. ______ very difficult job. She tried hard to control the knife and often cut her hands. But she kept practicing and improving 70. ______ the skills were just like her nature. Later, she created 3D skills and studied at art schools 71. ______ (improve) her works with modern ideas. In 2012, she set up her brand Jizhu. 72. ______ (it) products soon became popular.
Now her products sell well across the country. She 73. ______ (win) many medals for her great works so far. She works 74. ______ (careful) and also learns to manage her business. She hopes her business 75. ______ (bring) more chances to local people soon.
Yang encourages young people to pass on traditional crafts. “Turn your passion into a job,” she said. Her love for the craft carried her through all challenges.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 35 分）
第一节 情境运用（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.A: ________________________
B: Yes, I have. I love doing that with my family.
77.A: What’s the matter
B: ________________________. I’ll never eat too much.
78.A: ________________________
B: Every day. She thinks it’s good for her health.
79.A: What do you want to be when you grow up
B: ________________________.
80.A: What should we do to save electricity
B: ________________________.
第二节 作文（满分 25 分）
时光飞逝，难忘的初中生活结束后，你们将迎来一个轻松、愉快的假期。假定你是李华，你校英语报正在举行以 “暑期计划” 为主题的征文活动，请你根据思维导图，用英语写一篇文章投稿。
1.内容包括：
2.你的选择（至少两点）；
3.阐述理由。
要求：
1.要点齐全；
2.词数 100 词左右；
3.不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
2026 年初中学业水平阶段性质量监测二英语试题参考答案及听力原文
第一部分 听力部分
第一节 1-5 BABCA
第二节 6-10 CCABA
第三节 11-15 BACCB
第四节 16-20 ACCBA
第二部分 阅读
第一节 21-25 DACCD 26-30 CBABD 31-35 CBDBD 36-40 CDBBA
第二节 41-45 CFABD
第三部分 语言运用
第一节 46-50 CABAD
第二节 51-55 BADAC 56-60 DCBDB 61-65 ADCAB
第三节
66. of 67. was influenced 68. useful 69. a 70. until
71. to improve 72. Its 73. has won 74. carefully 75. will bring
评分意见:
本试题满分 150 分。
第 1-20 小题，每小题 1.5 分。凡与答案不同者不给分。
第 21-45 小题，每小题 2 分。凡与答案不同者不给分。
第 46-65 小题，每小题 1 分。凡与答案不同者不给分。
第 66-75 小题，每小题 1.5 分。凡与答案不同者不给分。
第四部分 写作（35 分）
第一节 情境运用（10 分）
76.Have you (ever) made dumplings
77.I have a stomachache.
78.How often does she exercise
79.I want to be a cook (when I grow up).
80.We should turn off the lights when we leave the/a room./Turn off the lights (when we leave the/a room).
评分说明：
A. 情境运用
和答案一致，得全分。
与答案不一致，但是无语法单词错误，也可得全分。
有以下的关键词之一，可以得 1 分。每小题的关键词如下：
Have you; made dumplings
I; have a stomachache
How often; does she; exercise
I; want to be; a cook
turn off; lights; leave...room
第二节 作文（25 分）
My Summer Vacation Plan
The summer vacation is coming soon. To make my holiday meaningful, I have made a great plan.
First, I will keep doing sports every day, such as running and swimming. It can help me keep healthy and relax my mind after busy school life. Second, I plan to read more books in my free time. Reading opens my eyes and improves my knowledge.
Besides, I will take part in some volunteer activities. I want to help others and learn more social skills.
In a word, I believe I will have a wonderful and fruitful summer vacation.
评分说明：
本大题共 25 分。
作文应覆盖所有内容要点。一个要点不全的扣 3 分，总分以 22 分阅。两个要点不全的扣 6 分，总分以 19 分阅。
单独写出一个要点的，即使句子有单词错误，也可以得 3 分，两个要点的得 6 分。不仅仅只看字数。
若卷面书写不工整，可酌情从总分中扣 1-2 分。单词有一处错误，酌情扣分（0.5-1 分）。相同单词错误不重复扣分。
作文可分为六个等级:
① 21-25 分：短文覆盖所有内容要点，语句自然流畅，全文结构紧凑，语言丰富地道，书写清晰工整，字数符合要求，语法错误较少 (1~3 处)，表现出较强的语言运用能力，完全达到预期写作目的。
② 16-20 分：短文基本覆盖所有内容要点，语句较流畅，全文结构较紧凑，语言准确，书写工整，字数符合要求，语法错误较少 (4~5 处)，表现出一定的语言运用能力，达到预期写作目的。
③ 11-15 分：短文覆盖主要内容，语句尚通顺，内容较连贯，书写较工整，语法错误较多，字数在 80 词左右，基本达到预期写作目的。
④ 6-10 分：短文漏掉一些内容要点，有些内容与主题无关，语句不够通顺，语法错误较多，影响了对写作内容的理解，书写一般，字数在 40 词以下，信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
⑤ 1-5 分：明显遗漏要点，写了一些无关的内容，偏离主题，语法结构或词汇方面的错误较多，词不达意。
⑥ 0 分：空白卷；所写内容全部与主题无关；全部抄袭试卷阅读部分的语段；全部来自日常单元习作的范文，没有自己的语言。
听力原文（节选）
第一部分 听力测试（共 20 小题，计 30 分）
第一节 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.She likes swimming.
2.Keep yourself healthy.
3.He didn’t give up easily.
4.Can he draw well
5.How was your weekend
第二节 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6.W: What do you think of the art show last night, Tom
M: It’s fantastic. We saw so many creative works.
7.W: David, what time do you usually get up
M: I usually get up at a quarter to seven in the morning. I often have breakfast 15 minutes later.
8.W: Look at the sky. It looks gray.
M: Yeah. It may rain soon.
W: Let’s stay at home today.
9.W: I need these red roses for my mother’s birthday. How much are they
M: They are 50 yuan.
W: OK. I’ll take them.
10.W: We can’t eat in the classroom, talk in class or listen to music in class.
M: Sounds strict. But as students, we should follow the rules. Teachers make them to help us.
第三节 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
M: Hi, Lucy! Long time no see. Did you have a good trip this summer
W: Yes, it was educational.
M: Where have you been
W: I’ve been to a mountain village in the southern mountains of Jinan.
M: How far is it from your home
W: It’s about 15 kilometers. I took part in a three-week volunteer program there to teach children English. I took a bus to go there every weekend.
M: Sounds interesting. More and more young people spend their vacation helping others for free.
W: Being a volunteer is great! Have you ever done volunteer work, Jack
M: Yes. I went to Langmao Mountain this summer vacation with a group of middle school students. We went there by bike.
W: What did you do there
M: We planted trees and picked up rubbish.
W: Wow, that’s really meaningful!
第四节 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
Dear Mike,
I’m glad to receive your letter and know your unforgettable experience. Now I’d like to share mine. Last Friday, I was cleaning my room and found an old photo in a box. While I was looking at it, the lovely memory of that day came back to me.
It was my mother’s birthday eight years ago, and I decided to give her a surprise with a home-made birthday cake. I got up early and quietly went to the kitchen. I spent about one and a half hours making it, but I still failed.
The moment I was going to throw everything away, my mother came in. I showed her the cake and told her what happened. Surprisingly, she tasted it and said it wasn’t bad! She smiled warmly and looked happy. In fact, we ended up laughing and ate it up.
This week is her fiftieth birthday. I will make a birthday cake for her again, and this time I will make it.
I’m looking forward to your reply!
Yours,
Lucy

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