资源简介

写作的评分细则
第一节（满分15分)
(一)评分原则
1.本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，
最后给分。
3.词数少于60的，酌情扣分。
4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及
词汇用法均可接受。
6.若书写较差以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
(二)各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(13~15分)
——完全完成试题规定的任务。
覆盖所有内容要点。
应用较多的语法结构和词汇。
语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用
能力。
有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
完全达到预期的写作目的。
第四档(10~12分)
一完成试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉1~2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致。
使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
达到预期的写作目的。
第三档(7~9分)
基本完成试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
整体而言，基本达到预期的写作目的。
第二档(46分)
未适当完成试题规定的任务。
—漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
-语法结构单调，词汇有限。
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。
较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档(13分)》
一未完成试题规定的任务。
明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题的要求。
语法结构单调，词汇有限。
较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。
缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：白卷、内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
第二节（满分25分）
(一)评分原则
1.本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调
整档次，最后给分。
3.词数少于130或多于170的，从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑：
(1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
(2)内容的丰富性和关键信息的利用情况：
(3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
(4)上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼
写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.若书写较差以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
(二)各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(21~25分)
一与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接合理。
内容丰富，利用了文中的关键信息。
所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。
有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档(16~20分)
一与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
内容比较丰富，基本利用了文中的关键信息。
所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。
比较有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。
第三档(11~15分)
与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
写出了若干有关内容，部分利用了文中的关键信息。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。
使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档(6~10分)
一与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
写出了一些有关内容，较少利用文中的关键信息。
语法结构单调，词汇有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，且影响了意义的表达。
较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档(1~5分)
与所给短文和所提供的各段落开头语的衔接较差。
写出的内容较少，很少利用文中的关键信息。
语法结构单调，词汇很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。
缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。
0分
一未能传达给读者任何信息：白卷、内容太少，无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。25级创新班 5月质量检测·高一英语
参考答案、提示及评分细则
听力部分录音稿
(Text 1)
W: How do you like your new job, Charlie
M: Well, the pay is good and I don’t have to work long hours every day. I don’t think I can find a better one.
(Text 2)
W: Excuse me. Can I get back my money for my ticket I have to cancel my trip because I have something
important to deal with. It is Train No. 29 and will leave in four hours.
M: It is not too late. Pass your ticket to me, please.
(Text 3)
M: I’ll have a glass of wine please, and my friend will have a beer.
W: Would you like them now or during your meal
M: Bring them to us now, please.
(Text 4)
W: What kind of exercise do you usually do when you go to the gym
M: Well, I lift weights once a week, and I practice boxing a little less often. I also go jogging twice a week.
(Text 5)
W: Can you speak French
M: Yes, of course. It’s my native language. I can also speak English and Japanese. What about you
W: I can speak English and Chinese.
(Text 6)
M: Hello, my name is Tom Smith. I have a reservation.
W: One second, please. Ah, yes, Mr. Smith, coming here for a business conference on 25th. Three nights in a
single room, right
M: That’s right.
W: OK. Would you fill in this form with your name, address and phone number, please
M: OK. Here you go.
W: Thanks. So you should pay $150 per night. And you’re in Room 406, and the conference room is on the
first floor.
(Text 7)
M: Linda, tell me something about your daily life.
W: Well, I’m a nurse. I start work at 11:00 at night. I work until 7:00 am. Sometimes I feel tired and sleepy.
M: Wow, so what time do you get up
W: I get home at 8:00 am and I usually go to bed at about 8:30 am. And I sleep until 4:00 pm.
M: And what do you do in the evening
W: You know, I have dinner, watch TV, see friends… It’s a great schedule for me.
(Text 8)
M: I’m going to a rock concert in the park on Saturday. It’s free. How about you
W: I want to do the housework in the morning. And Brian and I are going to see a basketball game in the
afternoon.
M: And what are you going to do on Sunday
W: Brian is going to visit his mother in the hospital. But I’m not going to do anything really. I’ll read a book at
home.
M: I’m going to have some friends over for a barbecue in my back garden. Would you like to come
W: Thanks. I’d love to.
(Text 9)
W: Hello. 4421.
M: Thank goodness I’ve got hold of you at last. I’ve been trying to reach you all morning.
W: There’s something wrong with the telephone. What’s the matter
M: There’ve been some changes to the fax I sent.
W: OK. Wait a moment, I’ll get a pen and paper so I can pass on the information to Ron. He’s gone to the sales
department, but he’ll be back here to have a meeting later. OK. I’m ready.
M: You’ll need more copies of the report to hand out. How many have you got
W: Exactly fifty.
M: Well, according to my information, there’ll be ten more people attending the exhibition, so you’ll have to make
up the difference.
W: Fine, I can do that. And how are we getting to the Wilton
M: There’s a regular bus service from the station but I think it might be safer for us to take a taxi. It shouldn’t cost
much.
W: Couldn’t we walk I mean, it’s not far.
M: Good idea. OK. Please tell Ron the information and see you later.
W: OK, bye.
(Text 10)
W: When travel agents mention Pamplona, Spain, most travelers think of the famous festival during the second
week in July, known as the Running of the Bulls. This festival started in the Middle Ages when butchers needed to
get their meat to the market. Long ago, these meat sellers would drive the cattle in front of them through the narrow
streets to the marketplace. If you want to save money, come to Pamplona any of the other 51 weeks of the year.
You are sure to find plenty to do. Treat yourself to a five-star meal featuring local beef and, of course, wine. And if
you’re interested in history, you’ll probably enjoy the Museo de Navarra, the local museum. The building was a
hospital in the Middle Ages, and it now houses a unique collection including everything from Roman drawings to
modern Spanish art. No trip to Spain would be complete without a visit to a church, so you’ll want to save some
time for the Cathedral of St. Mary. The outside was built in the 18th century, but the heart of the church is from the
later part of the Middle Ages. Now, who is ready to book their vacation of a lifetime
参考答案
1 ~ 5 AABCA 6 ~ 10 ACBBC 11 ~ 15 BCCBC 16 ~ 20 ABCAB
21. A 22. D 23. B 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. C 29. D 30. D
31. A 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. B 36. B 37. D 38. F 39. G 40. A
41. D 42. C 43. B 44. C 45. D 46. A 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. A
51. B 52. D 53. A 54. C 55. D
56. titled 57. and 58. wonderful 59. pieces 60. by
61. building 62. merely 63. stressed 64. which 65. to open
第一节
One possible version:
Dear Peter,
I’m eager to offer suggestions for the upcoming Campus First-Aid Contest. Firstly, include both theoretical
and practical parts. The theoretical part can cover basic first-aid concepts, while the practical part can have students
perform CPR or bandage wounds. This comprehensive approach ensures students truly master skills. Secondly,
invite medical experts as judges. Their professional and detailed feedback can help students improve significantly.
I hope these suggestions will help make the Campus First-Aid Contest a great success and benefit all
participants. Thank you for considering my ideas.
Best regards,
Li Hua
第二节
One possible version:
Every day, she would rise early and get down to work. She looked through our small kitchen cabinet for
ingredients and experimented with new recipes, making the most of what little we had. As word spread in the local
community about her delicious treats, more and more people came to buy. She even started taking special orders
for birthdays and small gatherings. The income from her baking steadily grew, providing a much-needed boost to
our finances.
My dad, on the other hand, never gave up on his job-hunting. He expanded his search area, applying to
hospitals not only in our town but also in neighboring cities. He networked with old friends and colleagues,
constantly asking for referrals. Finally, after countless interviews and rejections, his perseverance paid off. A
hospital a few towns away offered him a position as a traveling doctor. The moment he got the call, joy filled our
truck. This new job not only brought in a stable income but also hope for a brighter future.25级创新班 5月质量检测
高一英语
考生注意：
1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分 150分，考试时间 120分钟。
2．答题前，考生务必用直径 0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3．考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用 2B铅笔把答题卡上
对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径 0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答
题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
4．本卷命题范围：人教版必修第一册 ～ 选择性必修第二册。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30分）
第一节（共 5小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 7.5分）
听下面 5段录音。每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选
项。听完每段录音后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播
放两遍。
1. How does the man feel about his new job
A. Satisfied. B. Bored. C. Disappointed.
2. Where does this conversation most probably take place
A. At the train station.
B. At the airport.
C. At the bus stop.
3. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Friends. B. Waitress and customer. C. Coworkers.
4. What type of exercise does the man do the most
A. Lifting weights. B. Boxing. C. Jogging.
5. Which language can both the man and the woman speak
A. English. B. Chinese. C. Japanese.
第二节（共 15小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 22.5分）
听下面 5段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选
项。听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完后，每小题都有 5秒钟
的作答时间。每段录音播放两遍。
听第 6段录音，回答第 6、7题。
6. What does the woman ask Mr. Smith to do
A. Fill in a form.
B. Pay $150 first.
C. Have a conference.
7. How much should Mr. Smith pay in total for his stay
A. $150. B. $300. C. $450.
听第 7段录音，回答第 8、9题。
8. How long does Linda usually sleep every day
A. For about 6 hours.
B. For about 7.5 hours.
C. For about 8.5 hours.
9. What does Linda mention doing in the evening
A. Reading books.
B. Meeting friends.
C. Exercising at the gym.
听第 8段录音，回答第 10至 12题。
10. What will the man do on Saturday
A. Play basketball.
B. Do the housework.
C. Go to a rock concert.
11. Where will Brian go on Sunday
A. To the park.
B. To the hospital.
C. To the man’s home.
12. What event will the woman attend on Sunday
A. A movie screening.
B. A sports match.
C. A get-together.
听第 9段录音，回答第 13至 16题。
13. What happened to the woman’s telephone
A. It was lost.
B. It was turned off.
C. It was out of order.
14. Why did the man call the woman
A. To ask her to write a report.
B. To inform her about changes.
C. To remind her to pick up Ron.
15. Where is probably Ron now
A. At the exhibition.
B. In the meeting room.
C. In the sales department.
16. How will the speakers get to the Wilton
A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By taxi.
听第 10段录音，回答第 17至 20题。
17. When does the Running of the Bulls festival take place
A. In June. B. In July. C. In August.
18. What is the speaker’s suggestion for travelers who want to save money
A. Stay at four-star hotels.
B. Visit during the festival.
C. Travel in non-festival weeks.
19. What can visitors see at the Museo de Navarra
A. Roman drawings. B. A famous church. C. Local beef recipes.
20. What is special about the Cathedral of St. Mary
A. It was built in the 11th century.
B. It keeps the old part from the Middle Ages.
C. It holds the biggest Spanish art collection.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50分）
第一节（共 15小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Winter is a magical season, especially on the East Coast, where you can enjoy snowy mountains, warm
beaches, and everything in between.
Stowe, Vermont
Stowe is known as the Ski Capital of the East. This small town in Vermont offers over 116 ski trails (道) at
Stowe Mountain Resort, located on Mount Mansfield, the state’s highest mountain. After a day of outdoor fun, visit
local shops and cafes. Stowe Bee Bakery & Cafe is famous for its sweet treats, while Harrison’s Restaurant serves
delicious food.
Savannah, Georgia
Savannah is a perfect winter getaway with its pleasant temperatures and interesting history. The city’s Historic
District features 22 oak (橡树)-covered public squares, including Forsyth Park, which has beautiful walking paths
and a large fountain. Other attractions include the Victorian-style Bonaventure Cemetery and the Telfair Museums,
the oldest public art museum group in the Southeast. Savannah is also a food lover’s paradise. The Grey offers
seasonal dishes in a historic bus stop, while Mrs. Wilkes’ Dining Room is famous for Southern classics like fried
chicken and cheese.
Kennebunkport, Maine
Kennebunkport is a scenic town just a short drive from Boston. In winter, it hosts the Christmas Prelude, an
11-day celebration with unique attractions like a tree made of lobster traps and light displays. For outdoor activities,
you can snowshoe or cross-country ski at Harris Farms or hike through the scenic trails at Wells Preserve. If you
need a break from the cold, visit the Maine Classic Car Museum or the Portland Museum of Art.
Miami, Florida
Miami is the perfect destination for those seeking warm weather in winter. With its sandy beaches and
exciting city life, Miami offers a refreshing break from the cold. Visit the Art Deco District on South Beach,
explore the Miami Design District with its high-end shops and galleries, or hike through the nearby Everglades
National Park to spot unique wildlife. At night, enjoy the city’s lively bars and restaurants.
21. What can visitors do in Savannah according to the text
A. Enjoy Southern classic food. B. Watch light displays.
C. Ski on 116 trails. D. Visit the Portland Museum of Art.
22. What is the main attraction of Kennebunkport during winter
A. The Telfair Museums.
B. Victorian-style Bonaventure Cemetery.
C. High-end shops in the Design District.
D. The Christmas Prelude celebration.
23. Where can visitors see unique wildlife
A. At Wells Preserve. B. In Everglades National Park.
C. At Stowe Mountain Resort. D. In Forsyth Park.
B
On a recent Saturday near Seattle, Cheryl Ewaldsen pulled three golden loaves of whole wheat bread from her
oven. The bread was meant for a local food bank, which helps families struggling with hunger and rising grocery
costs. “I got excited knowing it was going to someone who would make multiple sandwiches,” said Ewaldsen, a
75-year-old volunteer.
She bakes (烘烤) for Community Loaves, a nonprofit that connects home bakers with food banks. Founded by
Katherine Kehrli, a former cooking school director, the organization has donated over 200,000 loaves of fresh
bread and 220,000 energy cookies. Its network includes nearly 900 bakers across Washington, Oregon, California,
and Idaho, making it one of the largest such initiatives nationally.
With rising food prices and national cuts to food aid programs, demand for food donations is greater than ever.
“Most food banks don’t receive whole-grain bread,” Kehrli noted. “Their constant request is simply, ‘Bring us
more.’”
Ewaldsen’s bread goes to the Edmonds Food Bank, where the number of households served has nearly tripled
in three years. Nationwide, over 50 million people rely on charitable food assistance annually. Anti-hunger experts
expect the need to grow as government policies reducing food aid take effect.
Unlike typical food bank bread (often highly processed), Community Loaves provides honey oat, whole
wheat, and sunflower rye loaves, all made with whole grains. Recipients like Chris Redfearn, who used a food bank
while seeking work, appreciated the quality. “It’s wholesome and matches healthy store-bought bread,” he said.
While most food banks avoid homemade items, Community Loaves, operating under state rules, permits
certain home-baked bread donations. Volunteers follow approved recipes, cover ingredient costs, and bake on a
common schedule. For bakers like Ewaldsen, the act is both practical and meaningful. “It’s an opportunity to share
with others and show they are cared for,” she said. However, experts like Gina Plata-Nino warn that while
community efforts are beautiful, they cannot replace government services. “A loaf of bread will feed one person,”
she noted, “but there are millions in line.”
24. What does Community Loaves do
A. Train bakers for cooking schools.
B. Link home bakers with food banks.
C. Teach cooking skills to volunteers.
D. Sell whole-grain bread to food banks.
25. What is Chris Redfearn’s attitude towards Community Loaves’ work
A. Dissatisfied. B. Grateful. C. Doubtful. D. Unconcerned.
26. It can be inferred that Cheryl Ewaldsen .
A. finds baking for others worthwhile B. works at a local cooking school
C. bakes bread for personal profit D. relies on the food bank for meals
27. What is the main purpose of the text
A. To explain rising food prices nationwide.
B. To encourage people to run food banks.
C. To introduce an anti-hunger nonprofit.
D. To advertise homemade whole-grain bread.
C
Climate leaders around the world are now accepting a serious fact: Earth’s average temperature is likely to go
past the important 1.5°C limit set by the 2015 Paris Agreement. But this does not mean they are giving up. Instead,
they are talking more about a plan called “overshoot”. This means the temperature might rise above the limit for a
while, but then through strong efforts, it would be brought back down to a safer level.
The 1.5-degree mark is not just a goal; scientists see it as a critical boundary. Going beyond it greatly
increases dangers. These include the large-scale loss of coral reefs (珊瑚礁), more common and severe heatwaves,
and the risk of setting off big, possibly permanent changes in Earth’s systems. These changes could include the
melting (融化) of huge ice sheets in Greenland or major damage to the Amazon rainforest.
Recently, leaders from the United Nations have changed their message. While they once insisted staying
below 1.5 degrees was possible, they now say a temporary overshoot is likely. However, they stress that we must
not accept this as a permanent situation. The goal is to cool the planet down again after the overshoot.
This idea of overshoot is now a practical backup plan. It relies on two key measures. First, the world must
quickly cut the pollution that causes warming by moving to cleaner energy sources. Second, we need to use and
develop technology that can pull the harmful gases already in the air back out.
Even if the world does its best to cut pollution, estimates indicate that temperatures could still go past 1.5
degrees around 2030, possibly reaching a maximum of 1.7 degrees before starting to fall back down around the
2060s. The length of time and the height of the temperature increase during this overshoot period matter a great
deal. The higher and longer the overshoot, the more damage we can expect. Although the chance to avoid
overshooting completely has probably passed, the 1.5-degree limit remains the essential guide for all climate
actions to prevent the worst outcomes for our planet.
28. What does paragraph 2 mainly discuss
A. Causes of coral reef and ice sheet loss.
B. The global average temperature.
C. Risks of going beyond the 1.5°C limit.
D. The temperature limit in Paris Agreement.
29. What can we infer from paragraph 3
A. Natural factors drive temperature rise.
B. Global climate efforts prove successful.
C. The 1.5℃ goal is no longer worth achieving.
D. UN leaders once denied the possibility of overshoot.
30. What are the two key actions that support the overshoot plan
A. Develop energy and limit temperature rise.
B. Protect forests and reduce heatwaves.
C. Save coral reefs and stop ice melting.
D. Cut pollution and remove harmful gases.
31. Why does the length of the overshoot period matter
A. Longer overshoot means more damage. B. It affects Paris Agreement’s authority.
C. It decides ice sheet melting speed. D. Shorter overshoot needs less clean energy.
D
In today’s automated industries, robots and humans are working together more closely than ever. Imagine a
busy auto factory: a robot fits together car doors at high speed, while a human technician checks each one for
quality. This partnership combines the accuracy and strength of machines with the judgment and adaptability of
people. Yet as collaboration increases, so do the risks. Human unpredictability, errors, or miscommunication can
lead to situations that robots are not programmed to handle — sometimes with serious outcomes.
To tackle this challenge, researchers are developing new ways to help robots operate safely and effectively
around humans. A team at the University of Colorado Boulder, led by Professor Morteza Lahijanian, has created
algorithms (算法) that allow robots to assess and manage risks in real time. “How do we advance from structured,
robot-only settings to unstructured environments full of uncertainty and people ” Lahijanian asked.
When working with a person, a robot predicts likely human actions and adjusts its behavior accordingly. “A
robot must be able to interact, take risks, and decide how much risk is acceptable,” Lahijanian explained.
The researchers turned to game theory — a mathematical tool from economics that treats each robot as a
player in a game where the goal is to complete a task. Since human behavior makes the outcome unpredictable, the
team introduced “admissible strategies”. Rather than maximizing its chance of completing the task, these strategies
help the robot minimize harm and avoid actions it may regret later. This approach emphasizes safety without
sacrificing (牺牲) efficiency.
For instance, if a human in an auto factory makes repeated mistakes, the robot can safely correct the errors or
move the task to a safer location. Just as a chess player thinks several moves ahead, the robot anticipates human
actions and acts to prevent accidents. Lahijanian stressed, “Successful collaboration requires the robot to adapt to
the human — not the other way around.”
This flexibility enables robots to work with both beginners and experts. Beyond industrial production, such
systems can be used in healthcare — where robots could assist nurses with medication delivery — or in
construction, where they could perform heavy lifting while humans handle precision work. Agriculture may also
benefit, with robots harvesting crops at scale as farmers focus on sustainability.
32. Why is the auto factory mentioned in the first paragraph
A. To illustrate human-robot collaboration.
B. To promote robot-only production.
C. To show robots’ speed advantages.
D. To prove quality checks are not reliable.
33. What can be learned about the new algorithms
A. They emphasize speed over safety. B. They rely on fixed human behaviors.
C. They work best with predictable humans. D. They adapt to unstructured environments.
34. What does the underlined phrase “admissible strategies” in paragraph 4 refer to
A. Plans to maximize task wins. B. Actions to control humans.
C. Methods for minimizing harm. D. Rules to avoid human errors.
35. What does the author want to explain in the last paragraph
A. Farmers’ focus on sustainability. B. The system’s wide application.
C. Nurses’ need for medication delivery. D. The requirements for flexible robots.
第二节（共 5小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选
项。
If you want to develop more confident body language or improve your ability to read other people’s nonverbal
communication, the following tips can help.
36 . Notice the gestures you use when you’re happy or when you’re upset. Think about how you change
the tone of your voice depending on the emotions you are feeling. Being aware of your own nonverbal
communication is the first step to changing the ones you want to change.
Look for inconsistencies (不一致). Do your friends say that they’re fine, then shut the door violently to show
that they’re upset 37 Both can be signs of feeling a certain way but not yet being ready to admit or
discuss it.
Become a student of others. It can also be helpful to see how others communicate nonverbally. What do their
facial expressions say What type of gestures do they use Becoming familiar with their nonverbal communication
patterns helps you recognize when they might be feeling a certain way quicker. 38 .
Ask before you assume. 39 . They can also vary based on someone’s personality. Before assuming that
a person’s body language or tone actually means, ask. “I notice that you won’t look me in the eye when we speak.
40 ” Give them the opportunity to explain how they are feeling so you know for sure.
A. Are you upset with me
B. Pay attention to your own behavior
C. This can give those around them mixed messages
D. Or do they shake their head when they are saying yes
E. Do you want other people to know exactly how you’re feeling
F. It may also help you recognize nonverbal behavior you may want to adopt
G. Some nonverbal communication can mean different things in different cultures
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 30分）
第一节（共 15小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Earlier this year, 7-year-old Adriana suffered a serious injury in an accident. One of the first to 41 to h
er side was Ricky Powell, a rescue worker from Douglas County Fire / EMS. During those key first moments, Rick
y stayed 42 and kept focused on giving Adriana the immediate care she 43 . From that day on, the t
wo became 44 .
Weeks later, it was Adriana’s first day back to school — a day she had eagerly looked forward to after weeks
of 45 . To her great surprise, Ricky appeared at the school gate as she 46 up with her mom. Severa
l teachers nearby also 47 to watch, smiling at the heartwarming scene. This time, he didn’t 48 any
medical supplies. Instead, he held a handful of bright flowers, some small toys as 49 , and flashed a big, war
m smile. A week earlier, Ricky had 50 Adriana’s mom about her favorite things, just to make her return to
school a little more 51 .
As soon as Adriana saw Ricky, her face 52 . “Mr. Ricky!” she called out 53 . She let go of her
mom’s hand and ran toward him, her eyes filled with happiness. She 54 her arms around him, and Ricky g
ently patted (拍) her back, saying, “Welcome back to school, Adriana.” In that moment, Adriana could 55
how much care Ricky had for her — far more than just the help he’d provided before.
41. A. point B. shout C. fall D. rush
42. A. ashamed B. annoyed C. calm D. thankful
43. A. recognized B. needed C. refused D. missed
44. A. roommates B. cousins C. friends D. classmates
45. A. reflection B. hesitation C. uncertainty D. recovery
46. A. walked B. caught C. teamed D. rolled
47. A. gathered B. pretended C. struggled D. promised
48. A. borrow B. waste C. carry D. hide
49. A. tools B. gifts C. rewards D. symbols
50. A. asked B. reminded C. informed D. warned
51. A. reasonable B. special C. flexible D. adventurous
52. A. tightened up B. clouded over C. cooled down D. lit up
53. A. excitedly B. worriedly C. nervously D. roughly
54. A. waved B. touched C. threw D. cleaned
55. A. prove B. express C. doubt D. feel
第二节（共 10小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The second China-Australia Dialogue Exhibition, 56 (title) “Postcards from China: An Artistic
Odyssey”, opened at the China Cultural Centre in Sydney on August 28, attracting around 110 attendees from the
cultural, artistic 57 media circles of the two countries.
The opening ceremony featured a 58 (wonder) performance of guzheng solo High Mountains and
Flowing Water, one of China’s ten great ancient 59 (piece), and Eugène Ysaye’s Violin Sonata No. 2, Op.
27.
Co-organized 60 the centre, the Australian Watercolor Institute and Guangxi Arts University, the
exhibition featured 40 works by 10 Chinese and Australian artists that explore themes of cultural integration and
exchange.
Wang Shuyu, cultural counselor of the Chinese Consulate General in Sydney, highlighted the unique power of
art in crossing borders and 61 (build) friendship between the two countries. “These creations are not
62 (mere) paintings on paper; they’re like postcards carrying stories, dreams and hopes between the two nation
s,” she said.
David van Nunen, president of the Australian Watercolor Institute, 63 (stress) the exhibition’s role in
showcasing the outcomes of a visit to China by Australian artists, 64 lasted from August last year to July
this year. “We are devoted to advancing cross-cultural exchanges and look forward to deeper cooperation with
China not only 65 (open) up more spaces for artistic creation, but also to build a closer emotional bond
between artists from both sides,” he said.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40分）
第一节（满分 15分）
假定你是李华，你校拟举办首届“校园急救大赛（Campus First-Aid Contest）”，现面向全体学生征
集活动方案。请你给校学生会负责人 Peter写一封建议信，内容包括：
1．你的想法；
2．你的理由。
注意：1．写作词数应为 80 个左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Peter,
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
Best regards,
Li Hua
第二节（满分 25 分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
At just nine years old, my life got really messed up. My dad, who was a doctor, suddenly lost his job at a local
hospital. This one bad thing hit our family hard and turned our once-stable life upside down. Because we couldn’t
pay the mortgage (贷款), we had to leave our nice house. Our new home became a small truck that we used to take
out only for nice weekend camping trips. I had to quickly leave my private school, and my parents started the tough
job of teaching me at home.
Life in the truck was really tough. Space was super tight. The first time our whole family — Mom, Dad, and
I — sat on the small couch that became my parents’ bed at night, we felt uncomfortable. We spent many days and
nights driving around, really trying hard to find safe and legal places to park our mobile home. At one really bad
time, we had no choice but to park in a far-away, lonely lot on the edge of town, far from the nice things in town.
The situation was really tough. As the last bit of our small amount of food — just a single piece of fried
chicken — was cooked on the stovetop, we could feel how bad things were. My mom, with a worried look on her
face, sat at the small table. She knew our food was almost consumed, so she started writing a shopping list. Even
though things seemed hopeless, our family didn’t want to just sit around and wait for help from others. Instead, we
decided to do something by ourselves to get through this hard time.
One day, when I was helping my dad clean the old, dusty truck, I found an old box full of things we could
recycle — empty cans, glass bottles, and some scrap metal. We took them to the recycling center. The money we
got, even though it wasn’t a lot, was a nice addition to our small amount of money for food. This small act of mine
inspired my mom, who had always been a full-time housewife and was good at baking, to use her skills to make
money.
注意：1．续写词数应为 150 个左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Every day, she would rise early and get down to work.
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
My dad, on the other hand, never gave up on his job-hunting.
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________

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