资源简介

2025—2026 学年第二学期高一阶段检测
英语
注意事项：
1．答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改
动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在
本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂
到答题卡上。
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是 C。
1. What did the man do yesterday
A. He did homework.
B. He went on a picnic.
C. He went to the woman’s home.
2. What is the woman
A. A student. B. A teacher. C. A waitress.
3. What has the man been busy with
A. Traveling. B. Job hunting. C. Studying.
4. How will the woman get back from Glasgow to her home
A. By train. B. By plane. C. By car.
5. Why does the man refuse more food
A. He is already full. B. He doesn’t like fish. C. He is in a hurry to leave.
第二节（共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中
选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，
各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料，回答第 6、7 题。
6. What is the man doing
A. Asking for some information.
B. Looking for an extra bed.
C. Booking a room.
7. What is the highest price of a double room with an extra bed
A. 270 dollars. B. 330 dollars. C. 375 dollars.
听第 7 段材料，回答第 8、9 题。
8. Who is Mr. Dobson
A. The man’s teacher. B. The woman’s father. C. The man’s classmate.
9. What does the man mean at the end of the conversation
A. He’ll study medicine next term.
B. He is too busy to miss his family.
C. He’ll go home at the end of term.
听第 8 段材料，回答第 10 至 12 题。
10. What are the speakers mainly discussing
A. Whether to give Angelia a promotion.
B. What to do with the new plan.
C. How to choose a manager.
11. What is Angelia good at
A. Selling ideas.
B. Managing a team.
C. Training new employees.
12. What does the woman suggest doing
A. Arranging a job interview.
B. Talking with the boss.
C. Doing a survey.
听第 9 段材料，回答第 13 至 16 题。
13. What is the woman’s plan for the coming weekend
A. To go fishing. B. To write a report. C. To look after animals.
14. Where will the speakers go for a picnic
A. To a lake. B. To a park. C. To a mountain.
15. Whose car will the speakers take
A. Robert’s. B. Jackson’s. C. Mark’s.
16. How will they discuss the plan on Friday
A. Through the computer.
B. Face to face.
C. On the phone.
听第 10 段材料，回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. What was the original name of the Toronto International Film Festival
A. The Festival of Films.
B. The Festival of Festivals.
C. The Toronto Film Festival.
18. When did the festival change its name to the Toronto International Film Festival
A. In 1976. B. In 1994. C. In 2010.
19. What significant development happened to the festival in 2010
A. It moved into a new building.
B. It started showing international films.
C. It got money to build its own building.
20. What can we know about the TIFF Bell Lightbox
A. It operates only in September.
B. It runs workshops with local filmmakers.
C. It only shows films from first-time directors.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节 （共 15 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 37.5 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
For the upcoming school year, Mira Costa High School offers students a wide variety of educational travel
experiences. These trips aim to broaden students’ global views and provide meaningful learning chances outside
the classroom. Organized by school departments, these trips take place throughout the year and are supported by
academic teachers and extracurricular programs.
Spring Break in Japan
Scheduled from April 4 to 11, 2026, this trip is led by Spanish teacher Nancy Geczi, who has offered
international student programs since the early 1990s. The detailed plan covers Tokyo, Kyoto, Kamakura, Nara, and
Osaka. Students will deeply experience Japanese culture by learning about local traditions. Geczi points out the
importance of experiencing a new culture using all five senses. There are only 20 places left for this trip. Students
who are interested should go to Room 72 to get registration brochures.
Model United Nations (MUN)
Under the guidance of Annie Choi, the MUN program continues its tradition of competitive travel. While the
exact destinations for the coming year are being decided, common places for delegates include Washington D.C.,
New York, and many other international cities. These experiences help students move beyond their comfort zones
and greatly improve their ability to speak in public.
Winter Eco-Adventure in Central America
Happening from December 27 to January 4, this trip to Panama and Costa Rica is led by math teacher Nick
Scheftic. It combines natural eco-sights with physical activities, such as swimming in the sea, surfing, and climbing
through the rainforest. Importantly, students on this trip have a special chance to get both high school and college
credits.
Students who want to take part in these global trips are encouraged to attend information meetings and plan
early, because many students are interested and the number of places is limited.
21. What can we know about the Spring Break in Japan
A. It covers five Japanese cities. B. It will last for ten days.
C. It is fully booked now. D. It is led by a math teacher.
22. What advantage does the last trip offer
A. Chances to experience Japanese traditions.
B. Chances to practice public speaking skills.
C. Chances to travel many international cities.
D. Chances to earn high school and college credits.
23. What is the main purpose of the text
A. To introduce some extracurricular programs.
B. To tell students the importance of traveling.
C. To inform students of upcoming global trips.
D. To compare three different educational trips.
B
Holding the key to a car, 40-year-old Jessica Rader couldn’t help but weep. “It’s not just about the car,” she
whispered, her voice trembling with emotion. “It’s about community.”
The vehicle was more than a gift; it was a masterpiece of kindness crafted by students at Louisa County High
School. For several months, these teenagers had labored in their automotive workshop to repair the car specifically
for Rader, a single mother of three. “Kids who never met me cared enough to ensure my family’s safety,” Rader
remarked, still breathless from the encounter.
This heartwarming scene was part of a partnership between the school and Giving Words, a local nonprofit
founded by Eddie Brown. Having struggled as single parents themselves, Brown and his wife understood the stakes
(利害关系). “A broken-down car can mean losing a job or missing vital appointments,” Brown explained. Since
2018, they have donated over 60 cars to single mothers, with high-schoolers renewing about half of them.
In the school’s garage, the connection of education and real life becomes visible. Under the guidance of
teacher Shane Robertson, about 20 students per car handle everything from brake repairs to battery testing. For
16-year-old Holden Pekary, the experience is deeply rewarding. He recalled a recent presentation where the class
raised the garage doors and clapped as a mother with a baby received her keys. “I put the license plate on for her,”
Holden said proudly. “It was nice.”
For Rader, the car was a bridge to a new life. Within three months of connecting with the program, her world
shifted. “Because of this vehicle, I moved from a part-time job to a full-time career and started school,” she said.
Beyond the car, Giving Words also gave her free oil changes, as well as diapers (尿布) and clothing for her sons. A
little mechanical help can drive a soul toward a brighter future.
24. What did Rader value most
A. The car’s excellent performance.
B. The car’s extraordinary function.
C. The collective care of the community.
D. The academic credits students earned.
25. Why did Eddie Brown start the vehicle donation program
A. To assist single parents in hard times.
B. To provide technical training for teenagers.
C. To share his own successful parenting tips.
D. To reduce the unemployment rate locally.
26. How did the car program change Rader’s life
A. It improved her academic performance.
B. It secured her a more stable livelihood.
C. It encouraged her to become a mechanic.
D. It helped her get rid of financial crisis.
27. What’s the best title for the text
A. Transforming Lives Through Joint Kindness
B. The Professional Growth of High-Schoolers
C. A Creative Way to Recycle Old Cars
D. Challenges Facing Single Mothers
C
Andrewsarchus mongoliensis is a large meat-eating animal that walked on hooves (蹄子). It has confused
scientists who study ancient life for over 100 years. This special creature was first discovered in Inner Mongolia in
1923. Researchers have studied its huge and well-preserved skull, which is more than 2.7 feet long. The skull has
strong teeth that can easily break bones, as well as powerful mouth muscles.
However, scientists have found only a few fossils: the complete skull, some broken jaws and worn teeth.
Because of the limited fossils, experts still cannot decide its true body size or correct place in the development of
mammals (哺乳动物). People once believed it was the largest meat-eating animal that ever lived on land.
Over the years, scientists’ opinions about Andrewsarchus have changed many times. At first, they thought it
was related to thick-headed pig-like animals. Later, some believed it was similar to wolf-like animals or even an
early kind of whale living on land. But none of these ideas have been fully proved, as there are not enough
complete fossils.
A 2023 study suggested that Andrewsarchus might be close to early pig-like animals that ate both plants and
meat. But some scientists say similar body parts may come from similar living environments, not close blood
relationship.
Today, Andrewsarchus still remains an enigma to be solved. Although experts know it was huge and could
break bones, the exact shape of its head, the length of its legs, and whether it walked on two feet or four remain
unknown. Its real body structure will not be clear until more fossils are found in the future.
28. What is a feature of Andrewsarchus
A. It had a tiny but strong skull. B. It could run faster than many animals.
C. It was a small meat-eating animal. D. It had powerful teeth to break bones.
29. What makes experts have trouble in learning more about Andrewsarchus
A. Its unusual way of living. B. Its limited fossils.
C. Its skull of little research value. D. Its wrong position in the mammal tree.
30. What do some scientists think of Andrewsarchus
A. It was a kind of large pure hunter.
B. It had the same body form as living mammals.
C. It mainly hunted large animals for food.
D. It may be related to early pig-like animals.
31. What does the underlined word “enigma” in the last paragraph mean
A. A new scientific discovery. B. A secret or something not understood.
C. A special kind of fossil. D. A huge meat-eating animal.
D
A new study from the University of Hawaii (UH) at Mānoa proves that waste from deep-sea mining could
threaten major ecosystems in the Pacific Ocean’s Clarion-Clipperton Zone (CCZ). This area, one of the most
biologically rich areas of the deep sea, is now the focus of growing industrial interest.
Researchers found that waste let out during mining activities could damage marine life in the midwater
“twilight zone”, a habitat between 200 and 1,500 meters below the surface that supports large populations of tiny
animals called zooplankton — the base of the ocean’s food web.
The research examined the effects of deep-sea mining during a 2022 test in the CCZ, an area for the mining of
nodules (结核) that contain valuable metals. By collecting and studying water samples from the depths where
mining waste was let out, the scientists found that mining particles (颗粒) contained far fewer amino acids, an
important measure of food quality, than the natural particles that typically feed marine life.
During the mining process, nodules are collected from the seafloor along with sediments (沉积物), and sent
up to a ship where nodules are separated from the waste material. The waste sediments are then let out back into the
ocean. “When the sediments enter the ocean, the mining particles spread everywhere and water down the healthy,
natural food particles usually eaten by zooplankton,” said Michael Dowd, lead author of the study. “Small animal
species feeding on zooplankton travel between the depths and near surface waters, and are eaten by fish, seabirds
and large animals. So zooplankton’s eating junk food particles has the potential to damage the entire food web.”
At present, around 1.5 million square kilometers of the CCZ are allowed for deep-sea mining exploration, and
some companies have suggested letting out this waste within the twilight zone. However, no international rules
currently state where or how mining waste can be let out. If we don’t understand what’s in danger in the midwater,
we risk destroying ecosystems we’re only just beginning to study.
32. What is the purpose of the 2022 test in the CCZ
A. To measure the economic value of nodules.
B. To study the influence of deep-sea mining.
C. To observe the wildlife of the twilight zone.
D. To research the content of natural particles.
33. How do mining particles threaten zooplankton
A. They pollute zooplankton’s living space.
B. They stop zooplankton moving around.
C. They attract zooplankton’s enemies.
D. They reduce healthy food sources.
34. Why is zooplankton referred to as “the base of the ocean’s food web”
A. They feed most marine life directly or indirectly.
B. They help remove mining particles in the ocean.
C. They maintain water quality in the twilight zone.
D. They move between deep and surface waters.
35. What’s the author’s attitude to deep-sea mining
A. Curious and positive. B. Confused but interested.
C. Careful and objective. D. Concerned and opposed.
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 12.5 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The Art of Active Listening
In our busy lives, we often focus on learning how to speak well to express our ideas. 36 Active
listening is a skill that can improve your relationships and help you learn better. Here are some tips to become a
better listener.
Put away distractions
To listen actively, you must give the speaker your full attention. 37 When you are looking at your
screen, you are telling the other person that they are not important. Put your phone in your pocket and look at the
person who is talking.
Show that you are listening
38 Nod your head, smile, and maintain eye contact. Verbal encouragement is also helpful. Simple
words like “I see” or “Go on” encourage the speaker to continue. These small signals show that you are listening
attentively and following their train of thought.
Don’t interrupt
It is natural to want to jump in with your own opinion or a similar story. 39 Interrupting breaks the
speaker’s train of thought. Wait until they have finished their point before you ask questions or share your views.
Summarize what you heard
When the person finishes speaking, try to repeat the main idea back to them in your own words. You might
say, “So, what you are saying is…” 40 It also gives the speaker a chance to clarify if you misunderstood
something.
A. However, try to hold back.
B. Use body language to indicate you are engaged.
C. Listening is a natural talent that cannot be taught.
D. However, listening is just as important as speaking.
E. This confirms that you truly understood the message.
F. You should also try to solve their problems immediately.
G. This means putting down your phone or closing your book.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
It was the first day of our school hiking trip. The sun was burning hot, and my backpack felt heavier with
every step. I was 41 behind my classmates, feeling tired and annoyed. I wasn’t the sporty type, and I had
42 to come only because my best friend, Tom, begged me to.
“Come on, Jack! We’re almost at the top!” Tom shouted from ahead. I looked up at the steep hill and wanted to
43 .
Mr Lee, our teacher, stopped. 44 getting angry, he handed me a bottle of water. “Hiking isn’t a race,
Jack,” he said. “It’s about helping each other finish the 45 .”
Tom ran back down to me. “Here, let me carry your tent,” he said.
“No, that’s not fair,” I 46 .
“We are a 47 ,” Tom smiled. “When one person struggles, others help. Next time, you might help me.”
I felt a rush of 48 . With my load lightened and my friend by my side, I kept walking. The climb was
still 49 , but my mood had changed.
When we 50 reached the peak, the view was breathtaking. But what made the moment 51
wasn’t just the scenery. It was the feeling of 52 .
That evening, as we sat around the campfire, my legs 53 , but my heart was full. I realized that
physical strength is important, but the 54 to support others is what truly makes a person 55 .
41. A. hiding B. falling C. waiting D. driving
42. A. agreed B. expected C. struggled D. pretended
43. A. carry on B. take off C. give up D. turn down
44. A. Due to B. Apart from C. As for D. Instead of
45. A. homework B. game C. journey D. experiment
46. A. protested B. laughed C. recalled D. complained
47. A. class B. team C. band D. family
48. A. surprise B. heat C. warmth D. sadness
49. A. boring B. interesting C. challenging D. confusing
50. A. eventually B. obviously C. patiently D. doubtfully
51. A. dangerous B. special C. urgent D. scary
52. A. achievement B. relaxation C. excitement D. curiosity
53. A. broke B. kicked C. disappeared D. ached
54. A. plan B. excuse C. opportunity D. willingness
55. A. wealthy B. strong C. intelligent D. famous
第二节（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Wuxi, a city in Jiangsu Province in eastern China, is raising its voice on the global stage 56 (improve)
cultural exchange and urban promotion through the power of its unique Jiangnan melodies (旋律).
The “going global” of culture and art is 57 important name card that Wuxi presents to the world. In
February, the Wuxi Chinese Orchestra completed a 16-day “Spring of Chinese Music European” concert tour,
58 marked the orchestra’s first public appearance in Europe with its more than 80 musicians. It performed
seven 59 (concert) across seven cities in the countries of Belgium, Germany, Austria and Hungary.
This tour not only was the orchestra’s largest-ever overseas activity but 60 (represent) Wuxi,
composing a new page of cultural exchange and understanding between China and the world.
“This tour gave me the strongest feeling that music knows no borders (国界) and that culture can 61
(feel) by everyone through music,” said a player of the Wuxi Chinese Orchestra. “Every time we performed on
stage, I could 62 (true) sense the audience listening with their whole hearts. We showed our national
culture with music from the East 63 they welcomed it with the warmest applause (鼓掌).”
At the first 64 (perform) in the Centre for Fine Arts in Belgium, all 2,000 seats were filled, according
to the orchestra. When the melody of Horse Race filled the hall, the familiar tune moved many overseas Chinese to
tears, while European listeners couldn’t help 65 (clap) to the rhythm (节奏).
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40 分）
第一节（满分 15 分）
假定你是李华，你的英国朋友 Chris 对中国传统节日很感兴趣，但他听说一些节日习俗正在发生变化，
来信询问你的看法。请你回复邮件，内容包括：
（1）举例说明一个传统节日习俗的变化；
（2）分析变化的原因；
（3）你的态度。
注意：
（1）写作词数应为 80 个左右；
（2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Chris,
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分 25 分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
On a hot summer afternoon, John, his wife Judy and ten-year-old son, Tommy, looked over the wall of their
yard and watched curiously as the new neighbors moved their furniture into the house next door.
“Looks like they are from a very distant city ” Judy asked.
“Must be. Look at so many big bags. A bit much if you ask me,” John responded.
“Looks like there’s a kid there too. He looks like he’s my age,” Tommy said with excitement. Tommy and that
boy shared a brief nod of acknowledgment. Tommy was very happy that he was about to have a new friend. At that
moment, Tommy heard a loud shout from next door.
“Kevin! Stop staring off into the clouds and help your mother with the rest of the bags,” Kevin’s dad, Danny,
told his son, seeing him staring at the neighbors next door. “Looks like we’ve got some nosy (好 管 闲 事 的 )
neighbors,” Danny added in a low voice.
However, Kevin’s mother, Cindy, did not agree with her husband. She thought this might be really good for
their son Kevin, and that Kevin could even make friends with the boy next door. Since they had been very busy in
the past, they were not familiar with their neighbors, and Kevin had few friends. So she thought this was a fresh
start for them. She believed that they had nice neighbors, and they should grab (抓住) this chance.
A few days later, one afternoon, Kevin suddenly yelled in the yard, “Dad! Dad!”
“What’s wrong ” Danny asked, concerned.
“Over there! A dog in the yard!” Kevin whispered urgently, pointing to the dog.
“Are you okay ” Danny rushed out and asked.
“Yes, but the dog is making a mess of our yard,” Kevin replied.
Anger washed over Danny as he stepped in for a closer look and found a hole in the yard’s wall. Then he tried
to calm himself, but found it difficult, wondering what to do.
注意：
（1）续写词数应为 150 个左右；
（2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Just before Danny and Kevin decided to take action, there was a knock at the yard’s door.
“How about tearing down the wall for our future family activities ” Danny suggested.
2025—2026 学年第二学期高一阶段检测
英语参考答案
听力部分录音材料
听力部分。该部分分为第一、第二两节。
注意：做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答
案转涂到答题卡上。
停顿 00′10″
现在是听力试音时间。
M: Hello. International Friends Club. Can I help you
W: Oh, hello. I read about your club in the paper today and I thought I’d phone to find out a bit more.
M: Yes, certainly. Well, we are a sort of social club for people from different countries. It’s quite a new club —
we have about 50 members at the moment, but we are growing all the time.
W: That sounds interesting. I’m British actually, and I came to Washington about three months ago. I’m looking for
ways to meet people. Er, what kinds of events do you organize
M: Well, we have social get-togethers, and sports events, and we also have language evenings.
W: Could you tell me something about the language evenings
M: Yes. Every day except Thursday we have a language evening. People can come and practice their languages —
you know, over a drink or something. We have different languages on different evenings. Monday — Spanish;
Tuesday — Italian; Wednesday — German; and Friday — French. On Thursday we usually have a meal in a
restaurant for anyone who wants to come.
W: Well, that sounds great. I really need to practice my French.
M: OK. Well, if you can just give me your name and address, I’ll send you the form and some more information. If
you join now, you can have the first month free.
试音到此结束。
听力考试正式开始。
停顿 00′10″
请看听力部分第一节。
第一节
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
停顿 00′02″
例如：现在你有 5 秒钟的时间看试卷上的例题。
停顿 00′05″
你将听到以下内容：
M: Excuse me. Can you tell me how much the shirt is
W: Yes, it’s nine fifteen.
停顿 00′02″
你将有 5 秒钟的时间将正确答案标在试卷上。
停顿 00′05″
衬衫的价格为 9 镑 15 便士，所以你选择 C 项，并将其标在试卷上。
现在，你有 5 秒钟的时间阅读第 1 小题的有关内容。
停顿 00′05″
(Text 1)
W: Do you feel like going on a picnic with me today
M: I don’t think so. If I hadn’t done that yesterday, I would be glad to go picnicking with you.
(Text 2)
M: What are you planning to do during this summer holiday besides the homework
W: I’m going to find a part-time job.
(Text 3)
W: Mom wanted you to call her when you get a chance. She hasn’t seen you since our family dinner last month.
M: OK, I will. I’ve just been so busy job hunting. I’ve contacted at least 10 companies this week.
(Text 4)
W: Shall I get back by train
M: Well, Mum, the train is almost as expensive as flying and takes much longer. I’ve booked a flight. It lands in
Glasgow at 4 o’clock. And then we’ll hire a car to drive you home.
(Text 5)
W: Mr. Black, please help yourself to some more vegetables and fish.
M: It’s been a wonderful dinner, but I’ll burst if I eat another bite.
第一节到此结束。
第二节
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中
选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，
各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第 6 和第 7 两个小题。现在，你有 10 秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。
(Text 6)
W: Good morning, Plaza Hotel! What can I do for you
M: Hello! I’m just checking the room prices. How much are the rooms, please
W: Well, sir, the singles are from $180 to $240, and the double rooms are from $270 to $330.
M: Thank you. I think I got that. Can I get an extra bed if necessary
W: Certainly. An extra bed is $45.
M: OK. Thanks.
听下面一段对话，回答第 8 和第 9 两个小题。现在，你有 10 秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。
(Text 7)
M: Hi, Lily. It’s nice to hear your voice!
W: Me too! I’m calling to let you know that Mr. Dobson, one of the teachers at school, was asking about you.
M: Really! I remember him. He taught me chemistry for a few years. And he took us on a school trip to Liverpool.
What did he say
W: He just wanted to know how you are. I told him you’re studying medicine. He was very pleased!
M: Oh, that’s nice.
W: Mom and Dad want to know if you’re coming back to London any time soon.
M: Yes, but probably not until the end of term. I miss you all, though!
听下面一段对话，回答第 10 至第 12 三个小题。现在，你有 15 秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
(Text 8)
M: Angelia works for PAF. She’s in the creative department. We know her, and she knows us. But is that an
advantage
W: Well, what we need is a manager who can make the new plan work. We don’t really need new ideas. Angelia is
experienced. Hiring someone new is obviously a risk.
M: OK. She enjoys working for the company; she’s not going to leave suddenly; she’s popular in the department.
But… that doesn’t mean she’s good at managing a team.
W: But the number one thing is the new plan. The manager has to sell the new plan to the team. We know Angelia’
s a good saleswoman. She likes selling ideas.
M: Yeah. But what about the other people in the department They work with her at the moment. What happens if
they have to work for her
W: Well. Why don’t we have some talks with the other people, and check out if she’s suitable for the position
M: Maybe that’s a good idea.
听下面一段对话，回答第 13 至第 16 四个小题。现在，你有 20 秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。
(Text 9)
M: What do you plan to do for the coming weekend
W: Nothing special. Perhaps, I will write a report about volunteering to care for homeless animals for the magazine.
M: Nice. But I have another plan. Mark and I have decided to go for a picnic this weekend. Actually, we have also
invited Jackson and he will join us too.
W: Wow, where do you plan to go I mean, some park
M: No, we have decided to go beside the lake near Robert’s mountainous village.
W: Wow, that sounds good. May I join you guys
M: Sure. In fact, I came here to invite you to this trip. We will all go in Mark’s car. Robert will also join us after we
reach his village.
W: And how long will we stay there
M: We will reach there in the evening. We will go to see the starry nights there and then in the morning, we will go
to the lake with our luggage and picnic items. We will enjoy the whole day there. We will have a bath in the lake
and go fishing.
W: Right. Contact me on Friday and keep your phone on. We will discuss details on the phone. OK
M: Sure. I will be ready. Thanks.
听下面一段独白，回答第 17 至第 20 四个小题。现在，你有 20 秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。
(Text 10)
M: My name is Adam and I’d like to welcome you to this year’s Toronto International Film Festival. Let me
tell you a little bit about the festival itself. When it originally started back in 1976, it was actually called the
Festival of Festivals. The aim back then has not changed much. The original organizers wanted to show films from
other festivals around the world. They wanted to build a cultural center for international films in Canada. The
festival then grew in size and became well known among both filmmakers and film industry professionals. After
that, it changed its name in 1994 to what we have now. In 2010, we moved into our own building, the TIFF Bell
Lightbox, which has five floors filled with cinemas, galleries of film art, as well as a film library. The festival runs
in September, but the building is open all year round. It runs workshops with local filmmakers and helps raise
money for films from first-time directors. Now, let’s see some parts from all the films on offer this year.
第二节到此结束。
现在，你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
听力部分到此结束。
试题答案
听力（共 20 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分）
1—5 BABCA 6—10 ACACA 11—15 ACBAC 16—20 CBBAB
阅读（共 20 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 50 分）
21—23 ADC
21. A 22. D 23. C
24—27 CABA
24. C 25. A 26. B 27. A
28—31 DBDB
28. D 29. B 30. D 31. B
32—35 BDAD
32. B 33. D 34. A 35. D
36—40 DGBAE
七选五：文章介绍了积极倾听的重要性以及四个实用技巧。
36. D 37. G 38. B 39. A 40. E
语言运用 第一节（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
41—45 BACDC 46—50 ABCCA 51—55BADDB
完形填空
41. B 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. C 46. A 47. B 48. C 49. C 50. A 51. B 52. A 53. D 54. D 55.
B
第二节（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
56. to improve 57. an 58. which 59. concerts 60. represented
61. be felt 62. truly 63. and 64. performance 65. clapping
语法填空
56. to improve 57. an 58. which 59. concerts 60. represented 61. be felt 62. truly 63. and
64. performance 65. clapping
评分原则：
1．铅笔作答不给分。
2．有拼写或大小写错误的作答不给分。
3．所填词汇正确，但有形式错误的不给分。
4．英式、美式拼写均可给分。
5．除所列答案外，若试评过程中发现其他可接受答案，经评卷专家组讨论确认后也可给分。
写作：
第一节（满分 15 分）
参考范文：
Dear Chris,
You mentioned that some festival customs are changing — indeed, they are. Take the Spring Festival as an
example. Traditionally, people set off firecrackers to celebrate. However, this custom is now changing.
In many cities, real fireworks have been replaced by electronic displays or cultural performances, which are
safer and eco-friendlier. The changes mainly result from growing environmental awareness and government
policies to reduce pollution and fire risks.
Personally, I welcome these changes, believing that they show the resilience of our culture. A festival’s true
spirit lies in family reunion and gratitude, not in the noise or smoke.
Yours,
Li Hua
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为 15 分，按五个档次进行评分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调
整档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于 60 个的，酌情扣分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美
拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（13—15 分）
——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述清楚、合理。
——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。
——有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（10—12 分）
——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述比较清楚、合理。
——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（7—9 分）
——覆盖了大部分内容要点，有个别地方表述不够清楚、合理。
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（4—6 分）
——遗漏或未清楚表述一些内容要点，或一些内容与写作目的不相关。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
——几乎不能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
未能达到预期的写作目的。
第一档（1—3 分）
——遗漏或未清楚表述大部分内容要点，或大部分内容与写作目的不相关。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
完全未达到预期的写作目的。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容与题目要求完全不相关。
第二节（满分 25 分）
参考范文：
Just before Danny and Kevin decided to take action, there was a knock at the yard’s door. They went to open
the door and saw John and Tommy standing outside with a gift in Tommy’s hand. “This is for you. I’m sorry that
my dog interrupted you and brought you some trouble.” Tommy apologized sincerely. Danny’s anger faded slowly
when he heard their polite words and realized it was just an accident, not something done on purpose. And John
also said they would have the wall repaired as soon as possible.
“How about tearing down the wall for our future family activities ” Danny suggested. He added that removing
the wall would connect their yards, letting Tommy and Kevin play together freely and that it would also bring the
two families much closer in the long run. John agreed at once with a warm smile, realizing this was indeed a
wonderful fresh start for both families and feeling glad to meet such kind neighbors. The two boys cheered loudly,
already looking forward to their new shared play area.
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为 25 分，按五个档次进行评分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）创造内容的质量，续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调
整档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于 120 个的，酌情扣分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美
拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21—25 分）
——创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。
——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。
——有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档（16—20 分）
——创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高。
——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档（11—15 分）
——创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档（6—10 分）
——内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度脱节。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
——未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档（1—5 分）
——内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。

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