湖北襄阳市致远中学教联体2025-2026学年高一下学期5月期中英语试题(含答案,无听力原文,无音频)

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湖北襄阳市致远中学教联体2025-2026学年高一下学期5月期中英语试题(含答案,无听力原文,无音频)

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高一年级5月阶段检测 英语试卷
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将姓名、准考证号等在答题卷上填写清楚。
2.选择题答案用2B铅笔在答题卷上把对应题目的答案标号涂黑,非选择题用0.5mm的黑色签字笔在每题对应的答题区域内做答,答在试题卷上无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,听完每段对话后,你都有时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. How will Mary spend this Saturday
A. By studying at home.
B. By going to the movie.
C. By staying with her mother.
2. Why won’t the woman go boating on the weekend
A. She likes watching TV.
B. She doesn’t like boating.
C. She’s too busy with the housework.
3. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Ways to make money.
B. Their parents’ advice.
C. College majors (专业).
4. How will the man probably go downtown
A. By taxi.
B. By bus
C. By subway
5. When does the man want to meet Mr Smith
A. At about 11 o’clock next Sunday morning.
B. At about 10 o’clock next Monday morning.
C. At about 10 o’clock next Saturday morning.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答6、7小题
6. What will the speakers do first
A. Go to the concert.
B. Walk along the river.
C. Have dinner.
7. How much should the family pay for the concert in total
A. $50.
B. $40.
C. $20.
听下面一段对话,回答8~10小题
8. What is the conversation mainly about
A. The time spent online at work.
B. The use of the Internet for work.
C. The effect of time management online
9. Why does the man surf the Internet at work
A. To kill time.
B. To help him relax.
C. To talk with friends.
10. What does the woman decide to do
A. Go on Facebook every day.
B. Spend little time chatting online.
C. Try to be more creative by browsing the Web.
听下面一段对话,回答11~13小题
11. Where will the woman stay on her holiday
A. In a hotel.
B. In her uncle’s house.
C. In a camp.
12. What may the woman NOT do on her holiday
A. Go swimming.
B. Play beach ball.
C. Lie in the sun.
13. What will the man do this summer holiday
A. Go to the beach as well.
B. Go to the farm.
C. Take violin lessons.
听下面一段对话,回答14~17小题
14. What are the two speakers talking about
A. Sydney.
B. Hawaii.
C. Christmas holidays.
15. Who will the man stay with during his stay in Hawaii
A. His parents.
B. A host family.
C. His friends.
16. What is the woman eager to do
A. Travel by plane.
B. Enjoy the warm weather.
C. See the koalas.
17. How do the two speakers go abroad for the Christmas holidays
A. By ship.
B. By train.
C. By air.
听下面一段独白,回答18~20小题
18. What is the most attractive about the small towns
A. A peaceful life.
B. Comfortable hotels.
C. Scenic places.
19. What did the speaker do during the trip
A. He made many friends.
B. He tried different foods.
C. He took a lot of pictures.
20. What is the purpose of the talk
A. To suggest a quick trip.
B. To advertise a travel agency.
C. To introduce a way of socializing.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A Where to Find Help
Looking for support with your health Here are some places that can help.
Crisis Support
If you are in crisis and worried about your own safety, you can call 999 or go to A&E. You can also reach Samaritans by dialing 116 123 or sending an email to jo@samaritans.org.
General Listening Lines
SANELine
SANELine provides support and information from 4 pm to 10 pm. You can contact them at 0300 304 7000.
Mind
Mind offers advice from 9 am to 6 pm on weekdays, excluding bank holidays. You can call 0300 123 3393 or send an email to info@mind.org.uk.
ADHD Resources
To learn more about ADHD and get access to advice and services, you can visit the website adhduk.co.uk.
Financial Advice
For free guidance on any financial topic, as well as money tools and calculators, you can visit moneyhelper.org.uk.
Help with Eating Disorders
BEAT helplines are open from 3 pm to 8 pm on weekdays. You can check beateatingdisorders.org.uk to find your local helpline.
More Support
You can head to for additional services and support.
21. What can we infer from the text about SANELine and Mind
A. Both are only available on bank holidays.
B. Both only provide help for eating disorders.
C. Both have fixed service hours on weekdays.
D. Both offer round-the-clock online chat services.
22. What can people do with health issues not mentioned here in the passage
A. Visit
B. Browse adhduk.co.uk
C. Contact info@mind.org.uk
D. Check moneyhelper.org.uk
23. Who is this passage most probably intended for
A. Those who are passionate about finances.
B. Those who are interested in mental diseases.
C. Those who are suffering from health issues.
D. Those who are keen on holiday destinations.
B
Every morning in graduate school, Christy would wave to the woman selling hot dogs outside her building. “If she wasn’t there on a given day, things didn’t feel right. I missed her,” says Christy, now a psychology (心理学) expert at a university in the U.K. “It was this huge source of comfort and safety, and it was with someone I never talked to.”
That connection satisfied a deep, bodily need for Christy, just like water relieves thirst. Humans are intensely social animals, and research increasingly suggests that losing our connections to others can negatively impact our health. A 2023 report called widespread loneliness in the U.S. a deadly health risk comparable to smoking up to15 cigarettes (香烟) a day. On the other hand, a Harvard study found that having strong relationships is key to living a long and happy life. The study also showed that people between 80 and 89 years old in happy marriages reported that their happiness remained stable even on days when they were in greater physical pain.
But close relationships aren’t the only social ties that matter. Chatting with a stranger, giving a smile of recognition to the waiter in your local coffee shop, or waving to the people you see every day at the park creates a much-needed sense of community. “We can’t achieve happiness by ourselves. We simply cannot survive or live well without feeling like we are accepted,” says Christy.
These “weak tie” relationships aren’t a replacement for the deeper, more meaningful connections we also need. But Christy says we should recognize and celebrate their importance, and push ourselves to engage in them because they’re so beneficial to our sense of well-being. “I am not outgoing,” she says. “And, at the same time, I love talking to strangers. I believe that anyone can do it.”
24.How did Christy feel when she couldn’t see the woman as usual
A.Safe. B.Disappointed. C.Angry. D.Satisfied.
25.What did the Harvard study find
A.Older adults feel happier in marriages.
B.Physical pain negatively affects happiness.
C.Close relationships lead to long-term well-being.
D.Happiness has little to do with social connections.
26.Why are “weak tie” relationships meaningful
A.They contribute to our happiness. B.They help us to be outgoing.
C.They replace close relationships. D.They push us to communicate.
27.What is the best title for the passage
A.Advantages of Being Lonely B.Influence of Meeting New People
C.Value of Strong Social Connections D.Importance of “Weak Tie” Relationships
C
“Award” and “reward” have similar meanings. They both can be different parts of speech-nouns and verbs. They are something you get for your behaviour, but there are major differences. Let’s look more deeply at each word.
“An award” is a noun. It is something valuable that is given, like a prize, to someone for their accomplishments. “Awards” are usually given by someone to someone else. As a verb, “award” means to give someone something, like a prize or money, for an accomplishment. Look at the following sentences: The students received an award from the teacher for not missing any school days. The judges awarded first place to the dance group.
In the area of law, “award” has slightly different meanings. As a verb, “award” means to give an official judgment (判决) of an amount or sum of money. As a noun, “award” is the amount of money the court or judge decides. Look at the following sentences: The judges awarded money to the victims (受害者). The award totaled 2.5 million dollars.
Let’s move on to “reward”. “A reward” is a benefit given to someone in exchange for a certain behaviour or action. “Reward” as a verb means to give someone a prize for their actions or behaviour. Look at the following sentences: The reward for all the students passing the test was an ice cream party. I rewarded my cat with some fish after he did a trick.
Remember, “award” is based on accomplishments. And “reward” is based on behaviours or actions.
What question do you have about American English Send us an email at learningenglish .
28.What is the text mainly about
A.The development of American English.
B.The differences between two English words.
C.The history of foreign language.
D.The key to telling a noun from a verb.
29.What does the underlined word “accomplishment” in Paragraph 2 probably mean
A.Success. B.Wealth. C.Friendship. D.Mind.
30.Which of the following people can get “an award”
A.Mark who got the last place in the race.
B.Sara who won a lawsuit (诉讼) over a case.
C.Lily who finished her exciting day.
D.Andrew who helped his friend get a ticket.
31.From which part of a magazine can you probably find the text
A.Science. B.Study. C.Tradition. D.History.
D
Graphene (石墨烯), a single layer of carbon atoms, is a remarkable material with amazing features: it is stronger than steel, lighter than aluminum and can conduct electricity better than most materials. Now, scientists have discovered another superpower of graphene — it can kill germs (细菌) when set off by light. Led by materials scientist Giacomo Reina from EMPA in Switzerland, a new graphene-based material is being developed to take full advantage of this special ability.
Discovered 22 years ago, graphene has developed into a “family” of useful materials. Scientists have created various types of graphene, which can add strength to tennis rackets and improve the performance of electronic devices.. Reina’s team used graphene oxide, a type of graphene with oxygen, and mixed it with water to form an acid. By blending this acid with a small amount of nitrogen (氮气), they created nitrogen-mixed graphene acid, which becomes the basis of the germ-killing liquid.
The germ-killing process of this material is a two-step reaction. First, light heats the material up enough to kill some germs. Second, it causes a chemical reaction between the mixed graphene and oxygen in the air, producing the liquid that can fight bacteria and viruses. More importantly, the reaction only needs ordinary light to work, a great advantage compared with traditional anti-germ things. Lab tests show it can kill germs under a kind of light — present in sunlight and indoor lighting — and it causes no harmful reactions, proving it is safe for the human body.
The team’s primary goal is to apply this material to treating teeth, as the mouth is a germ-rich area. Most importantly, it may help fight superbugs — germs that are hard to treat with medicine and cause 1.25 million deaths every year. This new graphene material thus offers a powerful new tool in the global fight to kill germs.
32. How are the features of graphene mentioned in the first paragraph
A. By sharing the history of graphene use.
B. By listing some products made of graphene.
C. By making comparisons with other materials.
D. By looking through previous research findings.
33. What does the underlined word “blending” in paragraph 2 mean
A. Heating. B. Mixing. C. Decreasing. D. Removing.
34. What is a key advantage of the new graphene-based material
A. It kills germs with heat.
B. It is made from pure graphene oxide.
C. It functions with ordinary light.
D. It can wipe out superbugs in the body.
35. What is the best title of the text
A. A New Way to Treat Dental Problems
B. A New Material with Amazing Features
C. A Tool of Producing Germ-Killing Materials
D. An Effective Solution to Removing Superbugs
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
I put on a headset, and in seconds I am somewhere else. Large ice lies on dark water. Wind brushes my ears, cold and strong. Moments later, I find myself inside a museum, leaning close to a painting I have never seen in real life. __36__ This is the promise of virtual reality (VR): a world delivered to us without leaving home.
There is much to appreciate in this form of travel. __37__ There is no need to consider weather conditions, health problems or money worries. You may enter distant places at any moment and leave just as freely. For those limited by schedule, health, or income, VR quietly clears away the difficulties that traditional travel often brings.
__38__ Travelers walk through unfamiliar streets, taste local dishes, and communicate face-to-face with people shaped by different traditions. Such experiences wake up the senses and create lasting memories. More importantly, they change how places feel to us, not just how we understand them.
This difference is clear, because learning about a destination is not the same as being there. Virtual travel offers designed scenes and programmed feelings, but it remains carefully controlled. Real travel, by contrast, is shaped by the unknown. __39__. In those unplanned moments, understanding becomes lived rather than recorded.
Virtual reality will undoubtedly continue to develop, enriching how we plan journeys and imagine distant worlds. Still, it cannot replace (代替)actual presence. Travel is not simply about seeing farther; it is also about feeling where you stand. __40__
A. I am not moving, yet I am traveling.
B. Yet real travel leaves a deeper mark.
C. My feet ache as my journey continues across the day.
D. Virtual journeys are convenient, time-saving, and widely accessible.
E. Some knowledge, it seems, only arrives when your feet are on the ground.
F. It demands choices, adaptation, and continuous awareness of the unexpected.
G. But the convenience may gradually weaken our curiosity to explore the real world.
第三部分 语言知识运用 (共两节,满分30分)
第一节 完形填空 (共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Early in my teaching career, I heard countless amusing excuses, like “The dog ate my homework.”
As I grew less __41__ cheated, I grew tired of those empty excuses. Therefore, I __42__ accepting any excuses unless there was evidence. I usually warned my students on the first day and even collected __43__ at the beginning of each class. When they didn’t have it, I never asked why. __44__, I sighed loudly and recorded a zero. Soon, I gained the reputation I wanted.
One afternoon, shortly after the dismissal bell rang, Anthony __45__ me. “Could I talk to you ” he asked __46__, not taking his eyes off the floor. “You said it doesn’t matter why we don’t have our homework __47__, but I’m not a slacker (偷懒的人). Actually, my parents work late, so I have to take care of my little brothers. Sometimes they cry and it makes it hard to __48__.”
I patted him and asked, “Then, would it help __49__ you stayed here until finishing it ”
The next day, I announced that I’d be __50__ an after-school study program. Always, Anthony was the first student to __51__. And later, I had a room full of eighth graders.
Afterwards, I still had a large collection of excuses. All, however, were very real. None were __52__. The things I learned weren’t taught in the education classes I’d __53__ in college. Not all kids have a __54__ bedroom with a desk and study light. Some don’t have a home where a parent is even around. Most importantly, I learned that “I’ll listen.” __55__ a whole lot better than “No excuses!”
41. A. easily B. happily C. obviously D. comfortably
42. A. escaped B. appreciated C. finished D. quit
43. A. homework B. excuses C. advice D. questions
44. A. However B. Besides C. Instead D. Therefore
45. A. visited B. approached C. told D. answered
46. A. anxiously B. curiously C. shyly D. privately
47. A. found B. done C. prepared D. made
48. A. rest B. concentrate C. sleep D. calm
49. A. unless B. since C. though D. if
50. A. offering B. taking C. checking D. setting
51. A. show up B. look up C. break in D. rush out
52. A. common B. reasonable C. amusing D. terrible
53. A. taught B. learned C. taken D. touched
54. A. clean B. big C. new D. quiet
55. A. sounds B. works C. becomes D.develops
第二节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Pegasus 3, directed by Han Han and starring Shen Teng, __56__(become) the biggest box office hit of the 2026 Spring Festival in the last two months. It earned over 1.6 billion yuan in just four days, taking more than half of the holiday’s total box office and __57__(win) wide praise from audiences.
As the final chapter of the series, the film follows Zhang Chi, a middle-aged racer __58__ sticks to his dream through hard times. With partners, he sets up an __59__(independence) team for the Muchen 100 Rally. Instead of a personal comeback, the film __60__(focus) on group perseverance and team spirit.
Zhang Chi’s team faces a tough challenge from a rival (对手) __61__(equip) with hybrid cars and AI-assisted driving systems, showing a conflict between human experience and modern technology. All actors took professional training and shot real scenes, making the film thrilling.
Beyond __62__ exciting racing film, Pegasus 3 carries a thoughtful and timely message: AI can calculate routes and speed, __63__ can never replace human courage, passion, and teamwork. The story honors ordinary people who hold on to their dreams in spite __64__ pressure and difficulties.
Combining fine production, warm feelings and inspiring values, the film strikes a chord with modern views. Its __65__(popular) shows that stories about human spirit still touch hearts in the high-tech age.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
66. 假定你是李华,你的英国朋友Peter所在的学校将举办“中国文化周”活动,他想制作一段视频介绍中国传统节日,发来邮件请你推荐一个节日。请你给他写一封回信,内容包括:
(1)选定的节日;(2)推荐该节日的理由;
注意:1. 词数应为100词左右。2. 可适当增加细节使行文流畅。
Dear Peter,
________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
“Another A+, and I’ll get you that new game you’ve been wanting,” my mom said with a smile.
It was just the motivation I needed. I was usually a pretty good student, but with that extra push, I was determined to do well on my next math test. Every evening, I buried myself in my notes, practicing problems. My confidence grew with every completed practice test.
When the big day arrived, I felt ready. I took a deep breath as I entered the classroom and tried to keep calm. But despite all the preparation, my nerves got the better of me. Halfway through the test, I blanked on a formula(方程式), and time was running out. I scribbled down the best answers I could and handed in my paper, hoping for the best.
A week later, I got the test back. My heart sank as I saw the big red “A-” at the top. “No game,” I thought miserably. It wasn’t a bad grade, but it wasn’t enough. Disappointed, I stared at the grade, wishing it could magically turn into an “A+”. I could almost hear my mom’s voice, full of pride, congratulating me on my hard work. The idea gnawed (啃咬) at me until I did something I never thought I’d do. I changed the “-” into a “+”.
The moment I got home, I handed the test to my mom with a forced smile. She looked at it and congratulated me, hugging me proudly. Then she turned to walk toward her bedroom. My heart raced-part excitement, part a sharp twist of guilt I couldn’t ignore. A moment later, she emerged holding a black box, the logo of the game I’d begged for glinting in the lamplight. “I picked it up yesterday, just knowing my hardworking kid would pull through,” she said, pressing the box into my hands. I forced a thank-you, my voice tight.
注意:1. 续写词数应为150个左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Later that night, I tossed and turned (翻来覆去) in bed, lost in reflection.
________________________________________________________
The next morning, I decided to tell her the truth even if it meant losing the game.
________________________________________________________
参考答案
听力(略)
阅读理解
A篇 21.C 22.A 23.C
B篇 24.B 25.C 26.A 27.D
C篇 28.B 39.A 30.B 31.B
D 32.C 33.B 34.C 35.B
七选五36-40
36.A 37.D 38.B 39.F 40.E
完形填空41-55
41.A 42.D 43.A 44.C 45.B 46.C 47.B 48.B 49.D 50.A
51.A 52.C 53.C 54.D 55.B
语法填空56-65
56.has become
57.winning
58.who/that
59.independent
60.focuses
61.equipped
62.an
63.but
64.of
65.popularity
应用文范文
Dear Peter,
I'm glad to receive your email. I recommend the Mid-Autumn Festival for your video.
Falling on the 15th day of the eighth lunar month, it is a vital traditional festival symbolizing family reunion. On that day, families gather for a big dinner, enjoy delicious mooncakes and admire the full bright moon outdoors. Besides, many ancient folk stories about Chang'e are widely spread, which will make your video attractive.
I hope my advice is helpful to you.
Yours,
Li Hua
读后续写范文
Later that night, I tossed and turned in bed, lost in reflection. The new game laid beside my pillow, yet I had no desire to play it. Every time I glanced at the gift, the sense of guilt grew stronger. Mom bought the game in advance believing in my efforts, but I cheated to get the reward dishonestly. Lying to my dearest mother was eating me up inside.
The next morning, I decided to tell her the truth even if it meant losing the game. With the game box in hand, I apologized sincerely and admitted altering my grade. Unexpectedly, Mom didn’t get angry. She praised my honesty and said the valuable character was far more important than a game. We agreed I could earn the gift through real progress next time.

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