资源简介

厦门外国语学校2026届高三高考适应性考试
英语试题
本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分，共10页，满分为150分。考试用时120分钟
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音读两遍。
1. Where are the speakers going
A. A new restaurant. B. A convenience store. C. Their office.
2. When is the class presentation according to Vicky
A. On Thursday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Tuesday.
3. Why does the woman make the call
A. To check the price. B. To make an apology. C. To cancel her order.
4. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Husband and wife. B. Boss and employee. C. Salesperson and customer.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Tom’s friends at school. B. Their move to a new place. C. A sports center.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段录音读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What does the girl tell her dad
A. She decides to quit college.
B. She worries about her academic ability.
C. She is unpopular with her classmates.
7. How does the father help his daughter
A. By telling a funny joke.
B. By sharing his own story.
C. By planning a school tour.
听第7段材料，回答第8 至10题。
8. Who is the man
A. A researcher. B. A bird watcher. C. A radio host.
9. When do birds sing quieter
A. On weekend mornings. B. During rush hours. C. In early evenings.
10. What is Dr. Zollinger going to do next
A. Summarize her studies. B. Play some recordings. C. Answer more questions.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. Where was Jena born
A. In Canada. B. In Japan. C. In Australia.
12. How old was Mike when he left Glasgow
A. Five. B. Six. C. Ten.
13. What do we know about Mike’s parents
A. They first met at the age of 20.
B. They enjoy living abroad.
C. They will start their own company.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. What is the first question to Mr. Green about
A. His physical condition.
B. His adventure in space.
C. His doctor’s advice.
15. How does Mr. Green feel about traveling to Mars
A. It’s physically demanding. B. It’s unlikely to happen. C. It’s a chance not to miss.
16. Which is Mr. Green’s favorite movie
A. Apollo 13. B. Blue Earth. C. Space Station.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What is the speaker doing
A. Giving a report. B. Introducing a musical play. C. Making an announcement.
18. What are the students expected to do
A. Carry school flags. B. Wear fun clothes. C. Design fancy masks.
19. Where can the parents stand and watch
A. On the sidewalk. B. On the playground. C. In front of the office.
20. What should the students do if they don’t take part
A. Let their teacher know. B. Stay in the lecture hall. C. Do some reading.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Each ARTS FIRST festival is a unique annual celebration of the Harvard community’s artistic creativity. We invite you to join us for the coming ARTS FIRST. We look forward to welcoming you as we showcase the creativity of the Harvard arts community through performances, art exhibitions and art-making activities. The festival is a public event for Harvard and community members of all ages.
Light Awash in Watercolor
Learn about the materials and qualities of watercolor paint with experts from the Harvard Art Museums Materials Lab. Try your hand at some of the painting tricks used by artists whose works will be in the upcoming exhibition of American Watercolors 1880-1990: Into the Light.
Spineless Artists: Invertebrate Creativity
From webs to cocoons, invertebrates (无脊椎动物) create some of nature’s most delicate and beautiful designs. Join Javier Marin from the Harvard Museum of Natural History to learn how insects and other invertebrates dance, inspire fashion and create art, while making your own spineless artists out of craft materials.
Wheel Throwing
Join instructors from the Ceramics Program and great potters from Quincy, Cabot and Mather Houses for demonstrations using the potter’s wheel. Then create your own masterpiece!
Knitting and Pom-Pom Making
Join the Harvard Undergraduate Knitting Circle to make pom-poms and tassels out of thread, or pick up a pair of needles and learn to knit (编织).
21. What do we know about ARTS FIRST
A. It is an exhibition of oil paintings.
B. It offers art courses for all ages.
C. It presents recreational activities.
D. It is a major tourist attraction.
22. Which program will you join if you’re interested in drawing pictures
A. Light Awash in Watercolor. B. Spineless Artists: Invertebrate Creativity.
C. Wheel Throwing. D. Knitting and Pom-Pom Making.
23. What can you do together with Javier Marin
A. Practice a traditional dance. B. Feed invertebrates.
C. Visit a local museum. D. Make handcrafts.
B
“I didn’t like the ending,” I said to my favorite college professor. It was my junior year of undergraduate, and I was doing an independent study on Victorian literature. I had just finished reading The Mill on the Floss by George Eliot, and I was heartbroken with the ending. Prof. Gracie, with all his patience, asked me to think about it beyond whether I liked it or not. He suggested I think about the difference between endings that I wanted for the characters and endings that were right for the characters, endings that satisfied the story even if they didn’t have a traditionally positive outcome. Of course, I would have preferred a different ending for Tom and Maggie Tulliver, but the ending they got did make the most sense for them.
This was an aha moment for me, and I never thought about endings the same way again. From then on, if I wanted to read an ending guaranteed to be happy, I’d pick up a love romance. If I wanted an ending I couldn’t guess, I’d pick up a mystery. One where I kind of knew what was going to happen, historical fiction. Choosing what to read became easier.
But writing the end — that’s hard. It’s hard for writers because endings carry so much weight with readers. You have to balance creating an ending that’s unpredictable, but doesn’t seem to come from nowhere, one that fits what’s right for the characters.
That’s why this issue of Writer’s Digest aims to help you figure out how to write the best ending for whatever kind of writing you’re doing. If it’s short stories, Peter Mountford breaks down six techniques you can try to see which one helps you stick the landing. Elizabeth Sims analyzes the final chapters of five great novels to see what key points they include and how you can adapt them for your work.
This issue won’t tell you what your ending should be — that’s up to you and the story you’re telling — but it might provide what you need to get there.
24. Why did the author go to Prof. Gracie
A. To ask for a reading list. B. To submit a book report.
C. To argue for a writer. D. To discuss a novel.
25. What did the author realize after seeing Gracie
A. Writing is a matter of personal preferences.
B. Readers are often carried away by character.
C. Each type of literature has its unique end.
D. A story which begins well will end well.
26. What is expected of a good ending
A. It satisfies readers’ taste. B. It fits with the story development.
C. It is usually positive. D. It is open for imagination.
27. Why does the author mention Peter Mountford and Elizabeth Sims
A. To give examples of great novelists.
B. To stress the theme of this issue.
C. To encourage writing for the magazine.
D. To recommend their new books.
C
Grizzly bears, which may grow to about 2.5m long and weigh over 400kg, occupy a conflicted corner of the American psyche — we are awed by them even as they give us frightening dreams. Ask the tourists from around the world that flood into Yellowstone National Park what they most hope to see, and their answer is often the same: a grizzly bear.
“Grizzly bears are re-occupying large areas of their former range,” says bear biologist Chris Servheen. As grizzly bears expand their range into places where they haven’t been seen in a century or more, they’re increasingly being sighted by humans.
The western half of the US was full of grizzlies when Europeans came, with a rough number of 50,000 or more living alongside Native Americans. By the early 1970s, after centuries of cruel and continuous hunting by settlers, 600 to 800 grizzlies remained on a mere 2 percent of their former range in the Northern Rockies. In 1975, grizzlies were listed under the Endangered Species Act.
Today, there are about 2,000 or more grizzly bears in the US. Their recovery has been so successful that the US Fish and Wildlife Service has twice attempted to delist grizzlies, which would loosen legal protections and allow them to be hunted. Both efforts were overturned due to lawsuits from conservation groups. For now, grizzlies remain listed.
Obviously, if precautions aren’t taken, grizzlies can become troublesome, sometimes killing farm animals or walking through yards in search of food. If people remove food and attractants from their yards and campsites, grizzlies will typically pass by without trouble. Putting electric fencing around chicken houses and other farm animal quarters is also highly effective at getting grizzlies away. “Our hope is to have a clean, attractant-free place where bears can pass through without learning bad habits,” says James Jonkel, longtime biologist who manages bears in and around Missoula.
28. How do Americans look at grizzlies
A. They cause mixed feelings in people.
B. They should be kept in national parks.
C. They are of high scientific value.
D. They are a symbol of American culture.
29. What has helped the increase of the grizzly population
A. The European settlers’ behavior. B. The expansion of bears’ range.
C. The protection by law since 1975. D. The support of Native Americans.
30. What has stopped the U. S. Fish and Wildlife Service from delisting grizzlies
A. The opposition of conservation groups. B. The successful comeback of grizzlies.
C. The voice of the biologists. D. The local farmers’ advocates.
31. What can be inferred from the last paragraph
A. Food should be provided for grizzlies.
B. People can live in harmony with grizzlies.
C. A special path should be built for grizzlies.
D. Technology can be introduced to protect grizzlies.
D
The benefits of regular exercise are well documented but there’s a new bonus to add to the ever-growing list. New researchers found that middle-aged women who were physically fit could be nearly 90 percent less likely to develop dementia (失智症) in later life, and as they did, it came on a decade later than less sporty women.
Lead researcher Dr. Helena Horder, of the University of Gothenburg in Sweden, said: “These findings are exciting because it’s possible that improving people’s cardiovascular (心血管的) fitness in middle age could delay or even prevent them from developing dementia.”
For the study, 191 women with an average age of 50 took a bicycle exercise test until they were exhausted to measure their peak cardiovascular capacity. The average peak workload was measured at 103 watts.
A total of 40 women met the criteria for a high fitness level with a capacity of 120 watts or higher, while 92 women were in the medium fitness category. A total of 59 women were in the low fitness category, with a peak workload of 80 watts or less, or having their tests stopped because of health problems.
These women were then tested for dementia six times over the following four decades. During that time, 44 of the women developed dementia. Five percent of the highly fit women developed dementia, compared to 25 percent of the women with medium fitness and 32 percent of the women with low fitness.
“However, this study does not show cause and effect between cardiovascular fitness and dementia, it only shows an association. More research is needed to see if improved fitness could have a positive effect on the risk of dementia and also to look at when during a lifetime a high fitness level is most important.” She also admitted that a relatively small number of women were studied, all of whom were from Sweden, so the results might not be applicable to other groups.
32. What is on the ever-growing list mentioned in the first paragraph
A. Positive effects of doing exercises.
B. Exercises suitable for the middle-aged.
C. Experimental studies on diseases.
D. Advantages of sporty woman over man.
33. Why did the researchers ask the women to do bicycle exercise
A. To predict their maximum heart rate.
B. To assess their cardiovascular capacity.
C. To change their habits of working out.
D. To detect their potential health problems.
34. What do we know about Dr Horder’s study
A. It aimed to find a cure for dementia.
B. The results were far from satisfactory.
C. Some participants withdrew from it.
D. Data collection was a lengthy process.
35. Which of the following is the best title for the text
A. More Women Are Exercising to Prevent Dementia
B. Middle-Aged Women Need to Do More Exercise
C. Fit Women Are Less Likely to Develop Dementia
D. Biking Improves Women’s Cardiovascular Fitness
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Let’s take a minute to think about the water we use. The human body is 60% water and we need to drink lots of water to be healthy. When we are thirsty we just go to the kitchen and fill a glass with clean water.
36 For example, farmers, who produce the food we eat, use water to make the plants grow. When we turn on a light or switch on a TV or a computer we use energy and we need water to produce this energy.
The truth is that we are lucky enough to have clean water whenever we want, but this is not the case for many people around the world. 37 That’s around one in 10 people in the world. If we drink dirty water, we can catch diseases from the bacteria and become ill. Every year over 500,000 children die from diarrhea (腹泻) from dirty water. That’s around 1,400 children every day! Also, in some countries children walk many kilometres every day to get water. 38 Therefore, they don’t have time to learn how to read or write and don’t get an education.
39 On this day every year, countries around the world hold events to educate people about the problems of dirty water and that clean water is something that everyone should have around the world. At one school in the UK, children between the ages of 10 and 15 walk 6km with six litres of water. 40 People give them money to do this and all the money helps get clean water to as many people as possible around the world.
A. We use water indirectly too.
B. Every system in our body depends on water to function.
C. It is to inspire people to learn more about water-related problems.
D. If children walk many hours a day to get water, they can’t go to school.
E. Did you know that around 750 million people do not have clean water to drink
F. In 1993 the United Nations decided that March 22nd is the World Day for Water.
G. In this way, they know how it feels to walk a long distance carrying heavy bottles.
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文, 从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Molai grew up in a tiny village in India. The village lay near some wetlands which became his second 41 . He learned the value and beauty of 42 there from a very young age.
When he was 16, Molai began to notice something 43 happening around his home. A flood had hit the area earlier that year and the 44 it caused had driven away a number of birds. 45 , the number of snakes had declined as well. He 46 that it was because there weren’t enough trees to protect them from the 47 . The solution, of course, was to plant trees so the animals could seek 48 during the daytime. He turned to the 49 department for help but was told that nothing would grow there. However, Molai went looking on his own and 50 a nearby island where he began to plant trees.
51 young plants in the dry season was 52 for a lone boy. Molai built at the 53 of each sapling (幼树) a bamboo platform, where he placed earthen pots with small holes to 54 rainwater. The water would then drip (滴落) on the plants below.
Molai 55 to plant trees for the next 37 years. His efforts have resulted in 1,360 acres of naturally-grown land that has become home to many plants and animals.
41. A. dream B. job C. home D. choice
42. A. nature B. youth C. culture D. knowledge
43. A. precious B. interesting C. disturbing D. awkward
44. A. waste B. tension C. pain D. damage
45. A. Besides B. However C. Therefore D. Otherwise
46. A. agreed B. realized C. remembered D. predicted
47. A. noise B. heat C. disease D. dust
48. A. directions B. partners C. help D. shelter
49. A. labor B. police C. forest D. finance
50. A. rebuilt B. discovered C. left D. managed
51. A. Decorating B. Observing C. Watering D. Guarding
52. A. tough B. illegal C. fantastic D. beneficial
53. A. back B. top C. foot D. side
54. A. cool down B. keep off C. purify D. collect
55. A. returned B. learned C. failed D. continued
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Although parks of all sizes and types exist at any level, the national parks, in particular, tend 56 (catch) our attention because of their large size and variety. They are treasures of American heritage (遗产). How did the national park system come about On a cool, 57 (star) night in mid-September 1870, four men relaxed before a campfire along the Firehole River in 58 is now northwestern Wyoming. They were part of 59 18-member exploring party that had spent almost five awesome weeks 60 (witness) the natural beauties there.
What should 61 (do) with such a beautiful place They wondered out loud. This area, with its unique and breathtaking natural beauty, must be well preserved 62 all people of the nation to enjoy — as a national park. They all agreed and vowed (承诺) to promote the idea at the 63 (complete) of their journey. Their promotional work 64 (pay) off. Two years later, 18 years before Wyoming became a state, Yellowstone became the first national park in the United States and the world. Yellowstone was the largest United States national park — 2.2 million acres — until Wrangell-Saint Elias in southern Alaska, 65 became a national monument in 1978, took the honors as a national park in 1980 with 12.3 million acres.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是某国际学校学生李华。你校将于下周五举办以“旧物新生（Old Items, New Life）”为主题的手工制作大赛。请给本校留学生Kevin写一封邮件，邀请他与你组队参赛。
内容包括：1．你的创意设想；
2．表达期待。
注意：1．写作词数应为80左右；
2．可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整短文。
When Dr. Henderson was assigning project mates for his psychology class, I secretly hoped he would pair me with my best friend or at least a classmate I could have some fun with. Above all, I hoped he wouldn’t assign me to work with the fiercely competitive, extremely serious fellow who always wore dark clothes and apparently had a personality to match. As fate would have it, Dr. Henderson very deliberately matched everyone in class and announced that I would be working with the one person in class I wanted to avoid.
I went up to my new teammate and introduced myself. He looked at me as though I weren’t there. I felt he treated me as though I would hold him back and probably make him fail to get an A in the course. He wasn’t mean or abusive; he just gave me the impression he could do whatever project we dreamed up better if he did it alone.
Needless to say, I didn’t look forward to an entire term of being brushed off, but I tried to make the best of it and didn’t say anything for fear that I would make things worse.
The project required each team to develop a hypothesis (假说), set up an experiment to test the hypothesis, do the statistical analysis and present the findings. Whatever grade the team received would be shared by both students.
When my teammate and I met to discuss our project, I was uneasy. Here was this challenging student who had a reputation for single-mindedness and good grades — the exact opposite of me. I was outmatched. I actually wanted to drop the class at one point, but stopped short because I didn’t want to give him the satisfaction of my chickening out. I decided to stick to it no matter what.
After long discussions we somehow agreed to do a study on the psychological well-being of teenagers. I wasn’t sure what it meant exactly, but at least we had a topic.
注意：1．续写词数应为150左右；
2．请按如下格式作答。
Paragraph 1: We started to meet regularly to draw up our plans. Paragraph 2: One day I got word that he was admitted to hospital for a serious disease.
厦门外国语学校2026届高三高考适应性考试
英语参考答案
听力：1. ACACB 6. BBCAB 11. ABBAC 16. ACBCA 17-20. 略
阅读：21-23. CAD
24-27. DCBB
28-31. ACAB
32-35. ABDC
36-40. AEDFG
完形：41. CACDA 46. BBDCB 51. CABDD
语填：56. to catch 57. starry 58. what 59. an 60. witnessing
61. be done 62. for pletion 64. paid 65. which
写作：略
听力原文：请在语段中划重点+朗读
(Text 1)
M: Look, we have time for a hamburger from a fast-food restaurant.
W: Forget that. I know a new restaurant on Maple Street, not far from our company. Is that okay with you
M: Perfect.
(Text 2)
M: Hi, Vicky. I remember our class presentation is on Wednesday, but you said it’s on Thursday. Are you sure
W: Oh, sorry. It was a slip of the tongue 口误. I meant Tuesday for sure.
(Text 3)
M: Allen’s Furniture, can I help you
W: Hi, I’m the one who asked about the price of a glass tea table top just now. I’m sorry I made a mistake. The size should be 75 cm × 50 cm.
M: Oh, that’ll make a difference in the price. Hold on, and let me find out.
(Text 4)
W: These are our new arrivals 新货上市. Every man should own at least one woolen sweater. Don’t you think
M: I agree. Any suggestions
W: The one with two pockets sells best 卖得好 (用主动语态) this year, light weight and stylish 时髦的；时尚的. Would you like to try it on
(Text 5)
W: How do you like your school, Tom
M: Oh, I like it a lot. And I also like the area. The nearby recreation center 娱乐中心 is cool. Thank you, Mom.
W: What a relief that you’re happy with your new home.
(Text 6)
W: ⑥I don’t know if I want to go to college. I don’t think I’ll do very well there.
M: Why not
W: ⑥Because I’m not smart.
M: Yeah, it can be scary.
W: Did you ever come close to dropping out 差点辍学, Dad
M: No. ⑦But I worried a lot before I went, because I thought college would be full of brains 聪明人. Once I got there, I found out that most of the kids were just like me.
(Text 7)
M: Hello, listeners. People around the world are reporting that birds are much louder these days. Now, I’ve connected with Dr. Zollinger, and let’s hear what she will say.
W: Well, we feel that they are singing louder because they sing in typically noisy places, but when the noise is gone, they sing quieter than they normally do.
M: So, in other words, birds are like us. In a noisy bar, for example, people will raise their voices
W: Exactly. ⑨We know that birds sing quieter on the weekend mornings. This is because the noise levels are lower than the weekday rush 工作日早晚高峰, and that’s probably what’s happening now. Here, ⑩I’ve recorded a call of the songbird. Listen to see if you can hear the difference.
(Text 8)
M: Hi, I don’t think we’ve met before. I’m Mike.
W: Hi, Mike. My name is Jena. Nice to meet you.
M: Nice to meet you, Jena. Where do you come from
W: Well, originally, I’m from Canada, but we moved to Australia when I was about five years old. Now, my parents live in Tokyo. How about you, Mike
M: I was born in Glasgow, and we lived there until I was six. Then, since my father worked for an international trade company, we moved all over the place.
W: Oh, yeah Where are some of the places you’ve lived Most of the time we lived abroad. We spent a total of ten years in Japan, Germany and Korea. We came back to the UK only two years ago, but I think my parents would prefer to stay overseas for another 20 years.
W: Wow, it sounds like you’ve had an interesting life.
(Text 9)
W: Good morning. Welcome the space hero, Mr. Green, to my studio.
M: Hello, Maria. Hello, my dear friends.
W: Well, let’s start from the first question I collected from the audience. Did you have any moments of dizziness头晕 since you landed back on the Earth
M: The first three days back were pretty tough. Your body system is all messed up 身体机能紊乱, so you feel dizzy. It’s quite normal, though.
W: Thanks. Another question. Would you go for the first manned 载人的 Mars travel if you have the chance
M: Absolutely. A trip to Mars is hugely exciting. I’m always ready for it.
W: I know you can watch movies on the space station. What’s your favorite space movie Some people asked.
M: Apollo 13 is probably my top one. And my son’s love — Blue Earth. It was brilliant watching the new movie on board the space station.
(Text 10)
W: Our next dress up day will be on Friday, October 28th, and it is our annual dress up day. On this day, students may dress up in fun clothes, and there will be a march around the school. Students are reminded not to carry sharp things, such as knives and swords 刀剑. And please make sure that you can see and breathe easily if you wear masks. Parents are invited to watch the event, but are asked to stand either in front of the office, near the flag pole 旗杆, or in the grassy courtyard. The students will be marching around on the sidewalks, so we do need to keep all sidewalks clear 保持行人道通畅. Parents and friends may also join in the march if they are dressed in appropriate clothes. But if you’re just watching, we’d like to ask you to stay in one spot to reduce traffic jams. Students who do not wish to take part in the event for religious or other reasons should inform their teacher, and they will be allowed to stay in the office until after the event.

展开更多......

收起↑