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2026年浙江中考押题卷
英 语
（考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分）
学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________
考生注意：
1.本试题卷共10页，满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试难度：0.75
第一部分 听力 (满分20分)
第一节：听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1分）
1．What time will the girl arrive at the station
A．At 8:00. B．At 8:10. C．At 8:20.
2．Which club does the girl want to choose this term
A．The Music Club. B．The Sports Club. C．The Art Club.
3．How often does the man go to the gym
A．Once a week. B．Twice a week. C．Three times a week.
4．What’s the relationship between the two speakers
A．Husband and wife. B．Brother and sister. C．Mother and son.
5．Where is the restaurant
A．Behind the park. B．Next to the park. C．Across from the park.
第二节：听下面两段对话。每段对话后有2至3个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分）
6．What is the cake for
A．A tea party. B．A school project. C．A birthday.
7．Who taught Emma to make the cake
A．Her grandma. B．Her mother. C．Her aunt.
听下面一段较长对话，回答小题。
8．What did Emma collect for the animal hospital
A．Some money. B．Some toys. C．Some animal food.
9．Why did Tom prepare games for the animals
A．To make them feel comfortable.
B．To help them find new homes.
C．To let them stay around people.
10．What will the two speakers do next
A．Visit the hospital together.
B．Encourage others to join.
C．Collect more things for animals.
第三节：听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分）。
11．Where is Amy’s hometown
A．In eastern China. B．In southern China. C．In western China.
12．How did Amy use to go to the city
A．By bike. B．By bus. C．By car.
13．What did Amy enjoy doing on the beach
A．Riding a bike. B．Building sand castles. C．Playing ball games.
14．What did tourists think of the beach
A．Big and quiet. B．Clean and relaxing. C．Nice and interesting.
15．How does Amy feel about her hometown
A．Proud. B．Excited. C．Surprised.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
16．What information can we get from the texts
A．The rules of ABC high school. B．The organizer of the drama club.
C．The opening time of the library. D．The result of the basketball game.
17．Ken and James want to join the basketball game. After reading the texts, which might be their conversation
A．K: Hey, I’ve already been in the team.
J: Me too. See you on June 16.
B．K: Let’s get Emma and Elle to join us.
J: I don’t think girls can take part in.
C．K: It must be an exciting game against Green High.
J: Of course. I’m looking forward to it.
D．K: How can I join the game J: Call and tell your student number.
18．Where can we most probably read the texts
A．In a storybook. B．On a website.
C．In a science magazine. D．On a noticeboard.
B
People who stay up at night and go to bed late are more likely to have cognitive decline (认知减退) than morning people, UMCG research shows.
“Are you an early bird or a night owl (猫头鹰) It’s hard to change your body clock, but you can change your life to fit it as well as possible,” says researcher Ana Wenzler. “In my research, I want to find out whether your sleep habits affect (影响) your brain through your daily behavior.” She then looked at the results of an over-10-year cognitive decline test. The result is that evening people decline cognitively faster than morning people.
“Evening people are more likely to have unhealthy habits,” says Wenzler. “They smoke and drink more often and exercise less. Smoking and poor sleep may increase the risk of cognitive decline.” The study also found that evening people with higher levels of education faced a greater risk. This may be because many of them still need to get up early for work. As a result, they often do not get enough sleep.
There is little you can do about being an evening person. That is why Wenzler suggests following your body clock. “You can try to go to sleep earlier, but it seems difficult to fall asleep early because your body is not used to it yet. This means that your brain still can’t get enough rest. It would be nice if more consideration (考虑) was given to evening people who have to work early, for example, by giving them the chance to start working later.”
19．How did Ana Wenzler study the effects of sleep
A．By interviewing people. B．By reading medical books.
C．By doing long-term research. D．By sleeping late herself.
20．What is Paragraph 3 mainly about
A．How morning people stay healthy. B．How unhealthy habits affect sleep.
C．Why keeping healthy is important. D．Why evening people face greater risk.
21．What does Wenzler advise evening people to do
A．Start working later. B．Sleep much earlier.
C．Do more exercise. D．Eat healthier food.
22．Who may be most interested in the text
A．People who have good eating habits. B．People who usually stay up late.
C．People who love different sports. D．People who want to lose weight.
C
①In modern China, an increasing number of names draw inspiration from Chinese history and classical texts. From high-tech products to newborns, names offer a window into the nation’s rich cultural heritage (遗产) and ongoing development.
②Inspired by the Chinese classic Tao Te Ching, a 34-year-old mother in Chengdu named Cheng Mengyue chose a name for her daughter that carries a deep meaning about life: “Liao Chirou”. The name “Chirou” comes from a line in the classic that speaks to the quiet power of softness: “The way of the gentlest of things can master the hardest.” “I want my daughter to carry this quiet strength within her,” Cheng said.
③Like Cheng, a growing number of parents, especially from the post-1990 generation, are now naming their children with traditional classics. And this change can be seen in the lists of “2025 newborn names” from more provinces, including Yunnan and Sichuan.
④According to the latest survey, names like “Jincheng” and “Yanzhou” have seen a 30% increase in usage compared to last year, making them the top trending names among 2025 newborns in Yibin. The name “Jincheng” is rooted in the four-character Chinese idiom “Qian Cheng Si Jin”, which means “a good future”. Another name, “Yanzhou” has roots in a poem by Zeng Gong, a poet of the Song Dynasty. In this poem, an inkstone (砚) is compared to a boat that carries thought, which is expressed through the brush and ink.
⑤Cultural expert Xu Shumin says that these names are not just about being special, but rather a sign that young parents are showing their confidence in traditional Chinese culture. “Parents of the post-1990 generation live in a time marked by parallel developments in technology and traditional culture. Just as they might wear hanfu to express themselves, naming their children is another form of expressing their cultural identity,” Xu mentioned.
23．What do names in modern China show according to Paragraph 1
A．The power of technology. B．The beauty of nature.
C．The passing down of culture. D．The history of the city.
24．What does the underlined word “trending” in Paragraph 4 probably mean
A．Ancient. B．Popular. C．Special. D．Long.
25．Why do post-1990 parents choose names with cultural meanings
A．To respect Chinese ancient poets. B．To be different from others.
C．To support the government decisions. D．To show their own cultural belonging.
26．What is the best title for the passage
A．The History of Chinese Names. B．How to Choose a Special Name.
C．Naming the Future with the Past. D．The Popularity of Traditional Culture.
D
In China today, pets are no longer just animals—they are family. Many young people, especially those in big cities, call their dogs and cats “fur kids” and spend a large amount of money on them. This growing love for pets has created a huge industry known as the “pet economy (经济).”
The numbers are surprising. In 2024, China’s city pet market was worth over 300 billion yuan, and it is still growing fast. Young people born in the 1990s and the 2000s make up more than two-thirds of pet owners. Their spending goes far beyond (超出) basic food and medical care. They buy fashionable clothes, smart devices like GPS finders, and even mental health services for their pets. Some also choose professional pet burial services, which can cost thousands of yuan.
Why are young Chinese so willing to spend on pets One reason is that many live alone in big cities. Pets provide companionship and help cut down loneliness and stress. Another reason is the falling birth rate—with fewer children in families, pets fill an emotional gap. As one pet owner said, “My dog never judges me. He’s always happy to see me. That support is priceless.”
However, the pet economy also brings challenges. Some people think spending too much on pets is unwise. Others question whether treating pets like human family members is going too far. But there is no sign that this trend (趋势) is slowing down. As society changes, pets will likely play an even bigger role in Chinese family life.
27．What do the underlined words “fur kids” in Paragraph 1 refer to
A．A new kind of toy for children.
B．Animals that live on the street.
C．Pets treated like family members.
D．Young children who wear fur coats.
28．What do we know about China’s pet economy from Paragraph 2
A．Pet burial services cost little.
B．It is a small but important industry.
C．It only includes food and medical care.
D．Young people are main customers in this market.
29．What is the main idea of Paragraph 3
A．The advantages of owning a pet.
B．The challenges of the pet economy.
C．The influence of the falling birth rate.
D．The reasons for the rise of the pet economy.
30．What does the writer think of the future of the pet economy
A．It will probably continue to grow.
B．It will remain the same as it is now.
C．It may slowly disappear in the future.
D．It may be stopped by the government.
第二节 任务型阅读(共5题，每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面材料，从所给的A-E五个选项中选出正确的选项(其中一项是多余选项)，将其序号填入第1-4小题，并回答第5小题。
Why Do We Feel Freer With Strangers
When you look at your photo, do you think it is truly yourself Most people feel easy to be real when staying with strangers, while feeling nervous around people they know. Why does this happen
I meet lots of strangers in daily life. Though we share few same interests, I always feel comfortable with them. I can talk and behave naturally as long as I am polite.
Do you have the same feeling I can talk about my true thoughts easily with strangers. Perhaps it is because we may never meet again. But things are different with familiar persons. I sometimes keep away from certain topics with friends. It is hard to show new sides of myself. They may feel it is not like me. So why
Sometimes we can treat our friends like strangers. We do not need to keep old manners, and can stop acting in the way they always see us. It helps us know each other better and be more like ourselves.
When you meet new people, you can change your style, or express yourself freely. At first, people around you might feel surprised. Strangers will accept you as you are, but friends may take time to get used to it. When you stop living for others’ ideas, you can finally feel free and proud of who you are.
A．I fear my words may sound strange.
B．I always feel free when talking to them.
C．Making friends with strangers is easy.
D．The problem is just about their old way of seeing me.
E．Soon they will come to know and accept the real you.
31．
32．
33．
34．
35．Do you like talking to strangers or people you know well Why (No more than 20 words)
第三部分 语言运用 (共三节，满分40分)
第一节 完形填空 (共15 小题，每小题1分，满分15 分)
Mark had always carried one small, quiet secret deep in his heart. That was: he couldn’t 36 . When he was seven, his dad 37 him to ride. He ran alongside, holding the seat, but his balance was 38 . He fell into the bushes and his knees hurt badly. After two weeks, his dad sighed, “Maybe next year.” But that “next year 39 came. The childhood shame stayed with him for 40 .
When Mark grew up, he had a family. He never told anyone his secret 41 his wife Lena. But she didn’t let it out. One day, his kids planned a “Family Bike Adventure”. They picked a campsite (营地) by the lake and talked about the race 42 . Mark smiled, 43 his stomach felt tight. He was afraid to let them 44 .
So he made a (n) 45 : every night after the kids slept, he would practise riding in the empty parking lot. But 30 years later, his body still improved 46 . The bike shook under him, and his legs felt weak. Sometimes he crashed into the wall, leaving bruises (淤痕) on his knees.
One night, he fell hard. Just then, a soft voice came: “Dad ” Mark looked up and saw his daughter Alice. She had followed him out of curiosity. Mark’s face 47 red, ready to make an excuse. But Alice knelt down and helped him up. “It’s okay, Dad,” she said. “We don’t care 48 you can ride or not. We just want you to be with us.”
Mark finally told his secret. To his surprise, the kids 49 him tightly. The next day, they changed their plan. Instead of biking, they had a picnic by the lake. Mark stayed with them happily, playing games with them. He realized that being 50 was more important than being perfect. Sometimes, love means accepting the parts of us that aren’t perfect.
36．A．drive a car B．ride a bike C．do housework D．take photos
37．A．taught B．stopped C．forced D．watched
38．A．great B．terrible C．normal D．powerful
39．A．seldom B．often C．never D．always
40．A．days B．weeks C．months D．years
41．A．besides B．between C．except D．including
42．A．excitedly B．slowly C．quietly D．softly
43．A．but B．and C．or D．so
44．A．up B．down C．in D．on
45．A．note B．excuse C．plan D．choice
46．A．something B．anything C．nothing D．everything
47．A．stayed B．looked C．turned D．became
48．A．though B．whether C．because D．unless
49．A．beat B．nodded C．caught D．hugged
50．A．careful B．healthy C．present D．patient
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
A.将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。
effort have provide small serious in hospital
People should work hard in every kind of job. A teacher needs to help students learn well in class, and a doctor must take good care of sick people 51 . To do these jobs well, they need to put in much 52 and never give up easily. They should also 53 helpful support to others when they meet difficulties at work.
People with good work spirit always take their work 54 . They will notice every important moment during their work time and never forget even 55 things of all. Without doubt, it is pleasant 56 such people in any workplace, so they are welcome. Their good work helps the group do better and gives them more good chances in the future.
B;阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
Have you ever heard about the 24-hour food banks in Shenzhen It is a heartwarming project, which is using smart 57 (科技) to reduce food waste and help those in need. These 24-hour community “food banks” are special machines that store food donated by local supermarkets and hotels. The food is often short-dated but is still 58 (完美) good to eat.
The system is designed to help those who need it most. People in need, like poor families, people with diseases or disabilities, the elderly living alone, or sanitation workers (环卫工人), can sign up for the 59 (服务). Using the “iShenzhen” app, they can 60 (选择) the food, including meat, vegetables, fruits, bread and drinks, and collect them every day before 8:00 p.m. If any food is left after that time, it becomes available to 61 (每个人). This makes sure all food is taken every day and nothing is wasted.
The project has saved nearly 200 tons of food from being thrown away 62 (自从) 2022. For safety, community workers carefully check all donated food before putting it into the machine, where it is kept below 10℃.
A 63 (关键) part of the program is that it protects people’s privacy. The whole process is done through the app, avoiding face-to-face communication.
The food banks offer not only 64 (有价值) help but also a lesson in responsibility. Shenzhen’s food banks are providing important support while encouraging a waste-free 65 (社会).
第三节 语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Every summer, the small town Key West holds an unusual competition called Hemingway Look-Alike Contest. People from all over 66 world come to dress up like the famous writer Ernest Hemingway.
This year, the winner was 68-year-old David Douglas. He had wanted 67 (win) the contest for years. He had taken part in the contest fifteen 68 (time) before. He always came close but never won. “I kept coming back 69 I love this town and I love the spirit of Hemingway,” Douglas said 70 (happy) after his victory.
To look like Hemingway, Douglas 71 (put) on a white beard, an over-sized sweater, and a captain’s hat. He spent hours preparing 72 the contest. “The secret is not just the look,” he explained. “You have to feel Hemingway yourself.”
More than 100 men competed this year. They walked onto the stage one by one, trying to look tougher and 73 (strong) than the others.
When Douglas’s name was called as the winner, tears filled 74 (he) eyes. “Fifteen years of trying finally paid off,” he told the crowd with excitement. “Never give up on your dreams no matter 75 long it takes.”
第四部分 书面表达 (共一节，满分20分)
76．假如你是李华，你校在开展题为“My Favorite Activity During the 15-minute Break”的征文活动。请根据以下相关信息，结合一次亲身经历，用英语写一篇短文投稿。
注意：
（1）可适当发挥，所给提示仅供参考；
（2）文中不得出现真实姓名、校名等信息；
（3）词数80左右。
My Favorite Activity During the 15-minute Break
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
参考答案
题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
答案 B A B C C C A C A B
题号 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
答案 B B C B A A A D C D
题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
答案 A B C B D C C D D A
题号 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
答案 B A B C D C A A B C
题号 46 47 48 49 50
答案 C C B D C
1．B
【原文】A: Sally, when will you get to the station The train leaves at 8:20.
B: Don’t worry. It’s 8 o’clock now and it takes me 10 minutes to walk there.
2．A
【原文】M: Would you like to join the Art Club with me this term
W: I’d love to, but I prefer the Music Club because I like singing.
3．B
【原文】M: Sports time! I’ll take you to a gym near here.
W: Wow! Do you often go there
M: Yes. I go there every Monday and Thursday.
4．C
【原文】W: Tony, your room is a bit messy. Can you clean it up at the weekend
M: Don’t worry, Mum. I’ve already put it on my to-do list.
5．C
【原文】A: Excuse me, are there any places to eat around here
B: Yes, there is an Italian restaurant over there across the park.
6．C 7．A
【原文】M: Emma, can you help me
W: Sorry, Dad. I’m making a cake in the kitchen.
M: A cake Who is going to have a birthday
W: It’s you, Dad. Don’t you remember tomorrow is your birthday
M: Oh, I nearly forgot it. Who taught you how to make a cake
W: Grandma. She told me basic steps last week, but I try to make one in a heart shape today.
M: Oh, thank you, Emma.
8．C 9．A 10．B
【原文】A: Hi Emma, have you heard the news The animal hospital needs our help.
B: Yes, I collected some animal food last week. What about you, Tom Did you do anything for them
A: Of course. I prepared some games for those animals.
B: That’s nice. Why did you do that
A: It made the animals feel comfortable around people. You know, it can help them get ready for their future homes.
B: Great! Let’s ask more classmates to join us and help the animals together.
11．B 12．B 13．C 14．B 15．A
【原文】
W: Hello, I’m Amy. I’d like to tell you something about my hometown. It is a small village in southern China. It’s a bit far from the city. When I was little, I used to take a bus to the city. But now people usually drive a car to the city. There is a beautiful lake in my village. Local people like to have fun there. I also enjoy riding a bike around the lake or playing ball games on the beach with my friends. But the beach didn’t get popular until last year. Some tourists found the place clean and relaxing. Since then, a growing number of people have come here for their holidays. And the government is also trying hard to improve tourists’ travel experiences. I’m so proud of my hometown and I hope it will be better and better in the future.
16．A 17．A 18．D
本文是ABC高中公告栏上的四则通知，分别是图书馆失物招领、校园行为规范、戏剧俱乐部招募和篮球友谊赛招募，介绍了学校的各类活动信息。
16．A选项，原文首篇告示即为ABC高中的校园行为规则，可从文本得到该信息，符合题意；B选项，文本未提及戏剧社组织者的信息，不符合；C选项，文本只有图书馆失物招领通知，未提及图书馆开放时间，不符合；D选项，篮球赛尚未举办，文本未给出比赛结果，不符合。
17．根据篮球赛通知“ABC High VS Maple High”“Date：June 16”“We need both boys and girls for the teams”“email us at sports@abchigh.edu. Use the subject ‘I’m in’ and don’t forget your student number”：A选项“6月16日篮球赛见”，符合文意；；B选项“女生不能参加”与原文“both boys and girls”矛盾；C选项对手是Maple High，不是Green High，错误；D选项“怎么加入？打电话报学号”与原文“email us... don’t forget your student number”的流程不符，应是发邮件报名，因此A选项正确。
18．本文是学校的四则通知（失物招领、社团招募、活动信息），这类内容最可能出现在学校公告栏（noticeboard）上，而非故事书、网站或科学杂志。
19．C 20．D 21．A 22．B
本文是一篇说明文，主要讲述了UMCG的研究发现：熬夜、晚睡的人比早起的人更容易出现认知减退，并分析了原因（如不健康的生活习惯、受教育程度高的夜猫子因早起工作而睡眠不足等），最后提出了相应的建议。
19．第二段指出Ana Wenzler说：“She then looked at the results of an over-10-year cognitive decline test.”，说明她是通过超过10年的长期研究来调查睡眠对大脑的影响。
20．第三段主要说明夜猫子面临更大认知减退风险的原因：“Evening people are more likely to have unhealthy habits... They smoke and drink more often and exercise less... evening people with higher levels of education faced a greater risk”，整段都在解释为什么晚睡的人面临更大的风险。
21．第四段中Wenzler建议：“It would be nice if more consideration was given to evening people who have to work early, for example, by giving them the chance to start working later.” 说明她建议晚睡的人可以晚些开始工作。
22．本文主要讨论的是熬夜、晚睡的人更容易认知减退的问题，因此最感兴趣的读者应该是那些经常熬夜的人。
23．C 24．B 25．D 26．C
本文是一篇说明文，主要讲述了当代中国越来越多的名字从中国历史和古典文本中汲取灵感，体现了年轻父母对中国传统文化的自信与文化认同。
23．第一段指出：“names offer a window into the nation’s rich cultural heritage and ongoing development”，这直接说明现代中国的名字展现了文化的传承与延续。
24．第四段提到：“names like ‘Jincheng’ and ‘Yanzhou’ have seen a 30% increase in usage compared to last year, making them the top trending names”，结合语境，使用率大幅增长的名字属于“流行的”名字，因此“trending”的含义是“Popular”。
25．第五段文化专家提到：“naming their children is another form of expressing their cultural identity”，这说明90后父母选择有文化内涵的名字，是为了表达自己的文化归属感。
26．全文围绕“用传统经典为孩子取名”展开，讲述了这种取名方式的来源、流行趋势和背后的文化自信，因此最适合的标题是“Naming the Future with the Past”。
27．C 28．D 29．D 30．A
本文介绍了中国宠物经济的市场规模、年轻人热衷养宠消费的原因，同时提及相关争议，并指出该行业未来仍会持续发展。
27．第一段明确指出“In China today, pets are no longer just animals—they are family. Many young people, especially those in big cities, call their dogs and cats ‘fur kids’ and spend a large amount of money on them.”，前文说明宠物被视作家人，因此fur kids指被当作家人对待的宠物。
28．第二段明确指出“Young people born in the 1990s and the 2000s make up more than two-thirds of pet owners.”，90 后、00 后占宠物主人三分之二以上，说明年轻人是市场主要消费群体。
29．第三段明确指出“Why are young Chinese so willing to spend on pets One reason is that many live alone in big cities. Pets provide companionship and help cut down loneliness and stress. Another reason is the falling birth rate—with fewer children in families, pets fill a feeling break.”，段落用两个原因解释年轻人愿意为宠物消费，即宠物经济兴起的原因。
30．第四段明确指出“But there is no sign that this trend is slowing down. As society changes, pets will likely play an even bigger role in Chinese family life.”，趋势没有放缓迹象，未来作用更大，因此宠物经济大概率会继续发展。
31．B 32．A 33．D 34．E 35．I like talking to people I know well. Because I feel more relaxed and understood by them.
本文是一篇议论文，主要探讨了为什么人们在陌生人面前比在熟人面前感觉更自由，并分析了其中的心理原因及应对建议。
31．根据文章第2段“I always feel comfortable with them.”以及后文“I can talk and behave naturally”可知，此处应表达与陌生人交流时的自由感。选项B“I always feel free when talking to them.”点明和陌生人交谈无拘束的感受，符合语境。
32．根据文章第3段“I sometimes keep away from certain topics with friends.”以及后文“They may feel it is not like me.”可知，此处应解释避开话题的原因，即担心被评判。选项A“I fear my words may sound strange.”传达“可能听起来奇怪”之意，符合语境。
33．根据文章第3段末尾“So why ”以及第4段后文“We do not need to keep old manners”可知，此处应回答朋友为何难以接受新的一面，原因在于他们的旧印象。选项D“The problem is just about their old way of seeing me.”点明问题根源在于朋友固有的印象，符合语境。
34．根据文章第5段“friends may take time to get used to it.”可知，此处应说明之后的结果，即朋友最终会接受。选项E“Soon they will come to know and accept the real you.”说明经过了解并接受后朋友会接纳真实的你，逻辑连贯，符合语境。
35．开放性题目，谈谈你是否喜欢和陌生人或熟悉的人说话并说明原因。
36．B 37．A 38．B 39．C 40．D 41．C 42．A 43．A 44．B 45．C 46．C 47．C 48．B 49．D 50．C
本文讲述了Mark因童年阴影不会骑车。为了不让期待自行车旅行的孩子们失望，他偷偷练习被女儿发现。最终他坦白秘密，孩子们给了他温暖的拥抱，让他明白陪伴比完美更重要。
36．那就是：他不会骑自行车。
根据后文“When he was seven, his dad…him to ride”以及他学车失败的经历可知，他的秘密是不会骑自行车。因此，ride a bike意为“骑自行车”，符合语境。drive a car意为“开车”，do housework意为“做家务”，take photos意为“拍照”，均不符合语境。
37．当他七岁时，他的爸爸教他骑车。
根据前文他无法骑车，以及后文爸爸在旁边扶着座位可知，爸爸是在教他。因此，taught意为“教”，符合语境。stopped意为“停止”，forced意为“强迫”，watched意为“观看”，均不符合语境。
38．他的平衡感很差。
根据后文“He fell into the bushes and his knees hurt badly”可知，他的平衡能力不好。因此，terrible意为“糟糕的”，符合语境。great意为“极好的”，normal意为“正常的”，powerful意为“强大的”，均不符合语境。
39．但那个“明年”再也没有到来。
根据后文“The childhood shame stayed with him for years”以及他成年后仍不会骑车可知，他再也没有尝试学车。因此，never意为“从未”，符合语境。seldom意为“很少”，often意为“经常”，always意为“总是”，均不符合语境。
40．童年的羞耻感伴随了他很多年。
根据前文他七岁时学车失败，后文他长大成家后仍然不会骑车可知，这个秘密伴随了他多年。因此，years意为“多年”，符合语境。days意为“几天”，weeks意为“几周”，months意为“几个月”，均不符合语境。
41．他从未告诉任何人他的秘密，除了他的妻子Lena。
根据后文“But she didn’t let it out”可知，他告诉了妻子，妻子没有说出去。因此，except意为“除了”，符合语境。besides意为“除……之外（还）”，between意为“在……之间”，including意为“包括”，均不符合语境。
42．孩子们选了一个湖边的露营地，兴奋地谈论着比赛。
根据后文“Mark smiled”以及孩子们对家庭活动的期待可知，他们谈论时是兴奋的。因此，excitedly意为“兴奋地”，符合语境。slowly意为“缓慢地”，quietly意为“安静地”，softly意为“轻柔地”，均不符合语境。
43．Mark笑了，但他的胃感到紧绷。
根据前文Mark微笑，后文他感到紧张害怕，前后形成转折关系。因此，but意为“但是”，符合语境。and意为“和”，or意为“或者”，so意为“所以”，均不符合语境。
44．他害怕让他们失望。
根据前文他隐瞒自己不会骑车的秘密，以及孩子们计划骑车探险可知，他担心自己无法参与而让孩子们失望。因此，let down意为“让……失望”，符合语境。let up意为“减弱”，let in意为“让……进来”，let on意为“泄露”，均不符合语境。
45．于是他制定了一个计划：每晚孩子们睡觉后，他在空停车场练习骑车。
根据后文他每晚偷偷练习可知，他制定了一个秘密计划。因此，plan意为“计划”，符合语境。note意为“笔记”，excuse意为“借口”，choice意为“选择”，均不符合语境。
46．但30年后，他的身体仍然没有任何进步。
根据后文“The bike shook under him, and his legs felt weak”以及他仍然会撞墙可知，他的骑车技能没有提升。因此，nothing意为“没有什么”，符合语境。something意为“某事”，anything意为“任何事”，everything意为“每件事”，均不符合语境。
47．Mark的脸变红了，准备找个借口。
根据前文女儿突然出现，Mark的秘密可能被发现，以及后文“ready to make an excuse”可知，他因尴尬而脸红。因此，turned意为“变得”，符合语境。stayed意为“保持”，looked意为“看起来”，became意为“成为”，均不符合语境。
48．我们不在乎你会不会骑车。
根据后文“We just want you to be with us”可知，女儿表示无论他会不会骑车，家人都爱他。因此，whether意为“是否”，符合语境。though意为“虽然”，because意为“因为”，unless意为“除非”，均不符合语境。
49．令他惊讶的是，孩子们紧紧地拥抱了他。
根据前文Mark说出秘密后，孩子们的反应是接纳和理解，以及后文他们改变计划可知，孩子们用拥抱表达爱。因此，hugged意为“拥抱”，符合语境。beat意为“打”，nodded意为“点头”，caught意为“抓住”，均不符合语境。
50．他意识到，在场比完美更重要。
根据后文“Sometimes, love means accepting the parts of us that aren’t perfect”以及他最终开心地参与野餐和游戏可知，他明白了“在场、陪伴”的意义。因此，present意为“在场的”，符合语境。careful意为“小心的”，healthy意为“健康的”，patient意为“耐心的”，均不符合语境。
51．in hospital 52．effort 53．provide 54．seriously 55．the smallest 56．to have
本文是一篇议论文，主要论述了良好工作精神的内涵，说明了拥有认真负责工作态度的人更受欢迎，也更能助力团队发展。
51．老师需要帮助学生在课堂上学好，而医生必须好好照顾住院的病人。医生照顾好病人地点是在医院，in hospital是介词短语，在句中作地点状语，用来说明医生照顾病人的场所，符合语境。
52．为了做好这些工作，他们需要投入很多努力，并且从不轻易放弃。much修饰不可数名词，effort是不可数名词，意为“努力”，符合语义搭配。
53．当别人在工作中遇到困难时，他们也应该给别人提供有用的支持。情态动词should后接动词原形，空格处需要填动词，provide sth to sb是固定搭配，意为“给某人提供某物”，符合语境。
54．拥有良好工作精神的人总是认真对待自己的工作。此处需要副词修饰动词take，用serious的副词形式seriously，take sth seriously是固定搭配，意为“认真对待某事”，符合“认真工作”语境。
55．他们会注意到工作中的每一个重要时刻，甚至不会忘记所有事情中最细小的事。名词“things”前需要形容词作定语，small修饰things，和前文“important”形成大小对比。根据范围标志“of all”可知此处需要形容词最高级，small的最高级是smallest，最高级前面须加定冠词the，即the smallest。
56．毫无疑问，在任何工作场所拥有这样的人都令人愉快，因此他们很受欢迎。根据“such people in any workplace”可知，在工作场所有这样的人很好，have“有”，It is+形容词+to do sth是固定句型，It作形式主语，真正主语是后面的动词不定式，因此用have的不定式形式to have。
57．technology 58．perfectly 59．service/services 60．choose 61．everyone/everybody 62．since 63．key 64．valuable 65．society
本文介绍了深圳24小时智能食物银行项目，该项目借助科技减少食物浪费、帮助有需要的人，同时保护用户隐私、传递责任理念。
57．这是一个暖心项目，它正在使用智能科技来减少食物浪费并帮助有需要的人。该处需一个名词，在句中作using的宾语；“科技”对应technology；smart technology为固定搭配。
58．这些食物通常是临期的，但食用起来仍然完美没问题。该处需一个副词，在句中修饰形容词good；“完美”对应的副词为perfectly，修饰形容词表示程度。
59．有需要的人，如贫困家庭、患病或残疾人士、独居老人或环卫工人，可以申请这项服务/这些服务。该处需一个名词，在句中作介词for的宾语；“服务”service可作可数或不可数名词，此处表示该项目提供的服务，可用单数service或复数services。
60．使用“iShenzhen”应用程序，他们可以选择食物，包括肉类、蔬菜、水果、面包和饮料，并在每天晚上8点前领取。该处位于情态动词can后，需填动词原形；“选择”对应choose。
61．如果在那之后还有剩余的食物，它就会对每个人开放。该处需一个代词，在句中作介词to的宾语；“每个人”对应everyone/everybody，二者均可表示所有人。
62．自2022年以来，该项目已避免了近200吨食物被丢弃。该处需一个介词，在句中引导时间状语；“自从”对应since；since后接过去时间点，常与现在完成时连用。
63．该项目的一个关键部分是它保护人们的隐私。该处需一个形容词，在句中修饰名词part；“关键”对应key。
64．这些食物银行不仅提供有价值的帮助，也传递了责任的道理。该处需一个形容词，在句中修饰名词help；“有价值”对应valuable。
65．深圳的食物银行在提供重要支持的同时，也在鼓励一个无浪费的社会。该处位于不定冠词a后，需一个单数名词；“社会”对应society。
66．the 67．to win 68．times 69．because/as/since 70．happily 71．put 72．for 73．stronger 74．his 75．how
本文是一篇记叙文，讲述了David Douglas连续15年参加海明威模仿大赛，最终夺冠的励志故事。
66．来自全世界的人们打扮成著名作家Ernest Hemingway的样子前来参赛。此处考查固定搭配all over the world，意为“全世界”。
67．多年来他一直想要赢得这场比赛。win意为“赢得；获胜”，是动词，want to do sth.是固定短语，意为“想要做某事”，此处用动词不定式to win。
68．他之前已经参加过十五次比赛，总是差一点但从未获胜。time意为“次；次数”，是可数名词，fifteen是基数词，意为“十五/15”，其后接可数名词复数，time表示“次数”时复数为times。
69．“我一直坚持回来参赛，因为我热爱这座小镇，也热爱海明威的精神，”Douglas在获胜后开心地说道。 后半句是前半句的原因，用连词because/as/since引导原因状语从句，because/as/since意为“因为”。
70．“我一直坚持回来参赛，因为我热爱这座小镇，也热爱海明威的精神，”Douglas在获胜后开心地说道。happy意为“高兴的”，是形容词，此处修饰动词said要用副词，happy的副词形式是happily。
71．为了看起来像海明威，Douglas戴上白胡子、穿上超大号毛衣并戴上船长帽。put on意为“穿上；戴上”，put是动词，全文是一般过去时，动词要用过去式，put的过去式还是put。
72．他花了数小时为比赛做准备。此处考查固定搭配prepare for，意为“为……做准备”。
73．他们逐一走上舞台，努力让自己看起来比其他人更坚毅、更强壮。strong意为“强壮的”，是形容词，在句中作表语，句中有than，要用形容词比较级，strong的比较级是stronger。
74．当Douglas的名字被宣布为冠军时，泪水充满了他的双眼。he意为“他”，是人称代词主格，空后的eyes是名词，用形容词性物主代词his修饰名词，his意为“他的”。
75．无论需要多久，永远不要放弃你的梦想。根据“Never give up on your dreams”可知，此处考查固定搭配no matter how long，意为“无论多久”。
76．例文1:
My Favorite Activity During the 15-minute Break
My favorite break activity is chatting with friends. It helps me relax and share happy moments.
Last Monday, after a math class, I felt a bit tired. I found my friend Tom on the playground. We talked about our weekend plans and told funny stories. Soon, we were both laughing and feeling better. That talk made my day brighter.
I think chatting is great, but we should also listen to others carefully. A friendly chat can make everyone happy. Let’s enjoy our break and spread smiles!
例文2:
My Favorite Activity During the 15-minute Break
What I enjoy most is relaxing in the hallway. After a long class, I like standing by the window and clear my mind.
One rainy afternoon, I was very tired. I went to the hallway as usual. The sound of the rain was soft and peaceful. I watched the raindrops on the window and took a few deep breaths. All my tiredness just went away.
This experience shows me the power of a quiet moment. Sometimes, doing nothing and just being with your thoughts is the best way to relax.
例文3:
My Favorite Activity During the 15-minute Break
For me, nothing beats playing on the playground during the break. I love running freely and playing fun games with classmates.
I clearly remember a sunny morning. We played a simple chasing game. We ran, laughed and shouted happily. For fifteen minutes, I felt so alive and free, which brought me great happiness.
That game filled me with energy for the whole afternoon. It reminds me that playing is the language of happiness. This short break is a valuable gift that brings us laughter and makes our friendship closer.
写作步骤
[第一步：审题立意]
确定文体：介绍性记叙文，以一般现在时为主，结合过去时描述亲身经历
明确要点：15分钟课间活动、具体活动内容、一次亲身经历、活动带来的感受
确定人称：第一人称（I/my）
注意事项：不出现真实姓名、校名，词数80左右
[第二步：构思布局]
三段式结构：
开头段：点明最喜欢的课间活动是什么
主体段：结合一次亲身经历，描述活动过程及感受
结尾段：总结活动意义或表达对课间活动的喜爱
[第三步：要点展开]
要点一：活动内容及原因
活动选择：chat with friends/play on the playground/relax in the hallway/draw pictures/listen to music/walk around the campus等
原因表达：help me relax/help me relax and share happy moments/make me happy/give me energy/cheer me up/help me forget my stress等
要点二：亲身经历
时间背景：last Monday/last Friday/one sunny morning/after a math class/after a long class/after a difficult exam等
地点描述：on the playground/in the classroom/near the window/by the garden/in the hallway等
人物对象：my friend Tom/my classmate Li Ming/my deskmate/my best friend等
具体活动：talk about weekend plans/tell funny stories/share snacks/play a short game/laugh together/sit by the window and watch the rain等
心理感受：laugh and feel better/felt better/make my day brighter/feel relaxed/my tiredness go away/feel alive and free等
要点三：建议或总结
建议表达：listen to others carefully/talk to a friend/take a short walk/rest a little/put down your phone/look out of the window等
意义总结：A friendly chat can make everyone happy./Let’s enjoy our break and spread smiles./A short break can bring great happiness./A good rest helps us study better.等(共6张PPT)
2026年浙江中考英语押题卷 答案
一、听力测试
1-10:BABCC CACAB 11-15:BBCBA
二、阅读理解
16．A 17．A 18．D
19．C 20．D 21．A 22．B
23．C 24．B 25．D 26．C
27．C 28．D 29．D 30．A
一、快速核对
第二节 任务型阅读
31．B 32．A 33．D 34．E 35．I like talking to people I know well. Because I feel more relaxed and understood by them.
三、完形填空
36．B 37．A 38．B 39．C 40．D 41．C 42．A 43．A 44．B 45．C 46．C 47．C 48．B 49．D 50．C
第二节 词汇运用
A:51．in hospital 52．effort 53．provide 54．seriously 55．the smallest 56．to have
B:57．technology 58．perfectly 59．service/services 60．choose 61．everyone/everybody 62．since 63．key 64．valuable 65．society
第三节 语法填空
66．the 67．to win 68．times 69．because/as/since 70．happily 71．put 72．for 73．stronger 74．his 75．how
76．例文：
My Favorite Activity During the 15-minute Break
My favorite break activity is chatting with friends. It helps me relax and share happy moments.
Last Monday, after a math class, I felt a bit tired. I found my friend Tom on the playground. We talked about our weekend plans and told funny stories. Soon, we were both laughing and feeling better. That talk made my day brighter.
I think chatting is great, but we should also listen to others carefully. A friendly chat can make everyone happy. Let’s enjoy our break and spread smiles!2026年浙江中考押题卷
英语·答题卡
姓名：______________________________________
准考证号 条 码 粘 贴 处
缺考标记 注意事项
1．答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚。
考生禁止填涂 2．请将准考证条码粘贴在右侧的[条码粘贴处]的方框内。
缺考标记！只能 3．选择题必须使用 2B铅笔填涂；非选择题必须用 0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔填写，字体工整。
由监考老师负 4．请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答，超出范围的答案无效，在草纸、试卷上作答无效。
责用黑色字迹 5．保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。
的签字笔填涂。 6．填涂样例 正确 [■] 错误 [--][√] [×]
选择题(请用 2B铅笔填涂)
第一部分（听力）(第 1-5 每小题 1分，6-15每小题 1.5分，共 20分)
1.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 6.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 11.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
2.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 7.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 12.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
3.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 8.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 13.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
4.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 9.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 14.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
5.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 10.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 15.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
第二部分（阅读理解）(共 20小题，每小题 2分，满分 40分)
16.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 21.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 26.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 31.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
17.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 22.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 27.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 32.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
18.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 23[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 28.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 33.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
19.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 24.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 29.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 34.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
20.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 25.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 30.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
35.______________________________________________________
第三部分 第一节 完形填空(共 15 小题，每小题 1分，满分 15 分)
36.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 41.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 46.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
37.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 42.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 47.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
38.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 43.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 48.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
39.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 44.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 49.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
40.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 45.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 50.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
非选择题(请在各试题的答题区内作答)
第二节 词汇运用(共 15小题，每小题 1分，满分 15分)
A:51.___________ 52. ____________ 53. ____________ 54 ____________ 55. ____________
B:56.___________ 57. ____________ 58. ____________ 59 ____________ 60. ____________
61.___________ 62. ____________ 63. ____________ 64 ____________ 65. ____________
第三节 语法填空(共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
66.___________ 67. ____________ 68. ____________ 69 ____________ 70. ____________
71.___________ 72. ____________ 73. ____________ 74 ____________ 75. ____________
第四部分语言运用 (共一节，满分 20 分)
My Favorite Activity During the 15-minute Break
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！

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