资源简介

高一英语
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂
到答题卡上。
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1.Why does the woman come to the man
A. To get her tablet computer fixed.
B. To exchange a tablet computer.
C. To get the cost of repairs back.
2. Who might the woman be
A. A doctor. B. A nurse. C. A patient.
3. Where does the conversation take place
A. In a hotel. B. In a restaurant. C. In a bookstore.
4. What is Jason going to do for the girl
A. Lend a pen to her.
B. Share a book with her.
C. Help her prepare for a test.
5. When did Amy place the online order
A. At 6:30 p.m. B. At 4:30 p.m. C. At 2:30 p.m.
第二节（共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中
选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，
各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料，回答第 6、7 题。
6. How many pets does the man have
A. One. B. Two. C. Three.
7. What pet will the woman probably keep
A. Some goldfish. B. A parrot. C. A cat.
听第 7 段材料，回答第 8 至 10 题。
8. How does Eric feel about his work at the library this week
A. Satisfied. B. Bored. C. Anxious.
9. What did Eric have difficulty in doing yesterday
A. Finding some rare information.
B. Perfecting the library file system.
C. Managing customer complaints.
10. What does Aishah usually do when it isn’t busy at the front desk
A. Read novels.
B. Catalogue books.
C. Plan book donation events.
听第 8 段材料，回答第 11 至 14 题。
11. What does the man think of growing cut flowers
A. It’s easy. B. It’s relaxing. C. It’s complicated.
12. What does the man say matters most when planting a sustainable cut flower garden
A. Considering the water needs of plants.
B. Arranging the planting areas properly.
C. Getting the best flower seeds.
13. What kind of flowers are recommended for the areas with a mix of sunlight and shade
A. Roses. B. Sunflowers. C. Lilies.
14. What will the man talk about next
A. The ways to take care of some picky varieties of flowers.
B. The soil conditions required for planting climbing vines.
C. The best time to plant some special flowers.
听第 9 段材料，回答第 15 至 17 题。
15. What did the woman’s parents want her to major in
A. Computer Engineering. B. Journalism. C. Medicine.
16. Which of the following has cooperation agreements with the giant panda college
A. Sichuan Forestry and Grassland Administration.
B. Chengdu Research Base of Giant Panda Breeding.
C. East China Normal University.
17. What is the man most interested in doing
A. Constructing a panda park.
B. Studying pandas’ habits.
C. Protecting the ecological environment.
听第 10 段材料，回答第 18 至 20 题。
18. How much does it cost per person to climb Mount Fuji from July 1st, 2024
A. 200 yen. B. 2,000 yen. C. 4,000 yen.
19. What did Tomoyo Takahashi do for Mount Fuji in 2023
A. She called on the government to preserve it.
B. She joined a cleaning activity.
C. She launched a donation event.
20. What does the speaker mention in the end
A. Many Japanese attractions deal with overtourism by charging extra fees.
B. Japan’s environmental issues are getting severe after the pandemic.
C. Overtourism has become the biggest problem for Mount Fuji.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节（共 15 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 37.5 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Paragliding is a kind of flying, but instead of the wing being made of metal, wood or plastic, it is made of
nylon. And the wing is attached to a harness (吊带) by lines, where a pilot sits. Paragliding is as safe as sailing. The
big advantage is that it’s probably the slowest form of flying, so if you do crash, you’ll hit the ground quite gently!
It’s also a very relaxing sport as you’re mostly sitting down.
Where do I learn
There are lots of schools, mainly based inland by appropriate hills or mountains, and there are also schools on
the coast near striking rocks. These are very attractive, though the prospect of touching down in the sea seems to
discourage beginners! It takes seven days to get your basic license; then you’re free to fly independently at sites
across the country.
What do I need
Pilots normally wear warm clothes in case they get very high up, and a helmet (头盔) in case they fall when
landing. Schools generally supply basic training equipment; however, you’ll probably prefer to purchase your own,
more advanced equipment.
Who can do it
There’s no upper age limit provided your instructor judges you capable, but the youngest is 14. Anybody with
good eyesight and good balance is a potential paraglider pilot. Flying a paraglider is a great sport. We hope to see
you in the air with us this season!
21. What can we learn about paragliding according to the passage
A. It is safe and relaxing. B. It is fast and challenging.
C. It is exciting but risky. D. It is attractive but expensive.
22. What can we infer from the passage
A. Beginners may dislike coastal paragliding schools.
B. Learners must buy all equipment by themselves.
C. A 13-year-old boy can get a basic paragliding license.
D. People with poor balance can also try paragliding.
23. Who is most likely to become a paraglider pilot
A. A teenager with poor eyesight but flexible body.
B. A 12-year-old girl who loves outdoor sports.
C. A 60-year-old man with good balance and eyesight.
D. A young man who has no sense of balance.
B
When Maggie was a very young girl, she loved looking up at the stars in the sky, and she loved a British
television stop-animation (定格动画) series, The Clangers, about mousy-looking beings from another planet. It’s
debatable as to which fueled her dream of becoming a space scientist more, but one thing is for sure: the passion
Maggie had for space inspired a career and helped her overcome her dyslexia (读写困难).
The now celebrated space scientist, mechanical engineer, and science communicator grew up bouncing from
one area of the country to another, the child of two Nigerian immigrants. Diagnosed with dyslexia at the age of
eight, Maggie faced enormous challenges in traditional learning environments. Dyslexia often made reading and
writing difficult, and she was sometimes looked down upon by classmates.
Despite these obstacles, her passion for science and space exploration shone through. Rather than focusing on
the limitations dyslexia imposed, Maggie discovered its advantages: her brain was good at visualization and
problem-solving, enabling her to think creatively and approach challenges from unique perspectives. Her journey to
success wasn’t easy. After overcoming early academic struggles, she went on to earn degrees in physics and
mechanical engineering. Today, she is well known for her work in space science, including the development of
satellites and instruments used to explore the universe. Her contributions to science are widely recognized, and she
has become an inspiring role model for young people, particularly those facing learning difficulties.
Her story is a powerful reminder that dyslexia is not a limitation but a different way of processing the world,
one that can lead to extraordinary achievements. Maggie’s life and career prove that facing what makes you
different can turn challenges into strengths, inspiring others to see the potential in their own unique abilities.
24. What fact about Maggie is stated in the first paragraph
A. She naturally possessed outstanding gifts in space science from birth.
B. Her learning disorder became a barrier on her way to realize her dream.
C. Her strong fascination with space greatly boosted her professional path.
D. The animated TV show was the major inspiration behind her childhood dream.
25. Which adjective best describes Maggie’s early school life
A. Fascinating. B. Amusing. C. Delighting. D. Challenging.
26. What factor contributed most to Maggie’s outstanding accomplishments
A. Her inner passion and eagerness. B. Assistance from her family members.
C. Support from her school peers. D. Wide recognition from society.
27. What does the author aim to do by writing this article
A. To present the scientific breakthroughs made by a female researcher.
B. To talk about the negative impacts caused by dyslexia.
C. To motivate people to face up to life hardships with courage.
D. To emphasize the great significance of space research.
C
Many people often complain that they always feel they lack time, even though they actually have plenty of
spare time. When we talk about time, we should realize that the quality of our free time matters as much as how
much free time we have. Most of us wish that we could have an extra hour in the day, but what surprises many
people is that even when we get it, many still feel time-pressed.
This common feeling is what we call “time poverty”, which describes a situation where people are buried in
various tasks and do not have enough time to finish all that they need to do. Researchers have found that this
feeling, which troubles so many people, depends more on how we feel inside than on the total amount of time that
we own. Studies show that it is not the shortage of time itself but frequent distractions, long to-do lists and the loss
of control over our daily plans that worsen this feeling.
To understand this better, researchers have tried to find an “optimal” amount of free time. A research project
that surveyed more than 35,000 Americans found that those who spent two to five hours every day on enjoyable
activities felt the happiest. However, this desirable time is subjective. If people use their free time for hobbies or
quality time with friends and family, we will never feel unsatisfied even when we have too much free time.
A study in China with 100,000 people also got an interesting result. More than half of the people who said
they felt time-poor actually had over 1.8 hours of free time each day. On the other hand, over one-third of those
whose spare time was quite limited did not have such worries at all. The result clearly shows that there is a big
difference between the time one has and how one feels about it. More research revealed that high time pressure and
fragmented (碎片化的) time made people feel more time-poor. In contrast, feeling deeply involved in activities
made them feel richer in time.
Reducing time poverty requires both individual and societal changes, researchers say. On an individual level,
experts suggest doing a “daily audit”. This means tracking your activities, how long they take, and how you feel
afterward. This can help you understand how you spend your time, for example, on social media, and then make
changes to use your time more wisely.
28. What can we learn about “time poverty” in Paragraph 2
A. It makes people unable to manage their time properly.
B. It is chiefly people’s inner feeling rather than real time shortage.
C. It only appears when people are loaded with numerous tasks.
D. It is closely connected with insufficient free time.
29. What does the underlined word “optimal” most probably mean in Paragraph 3
A. Regular. B. Extra. C. Ideal. D. Average.
30. Why does the author mention a study in China
A. To draw a sound conclusion. B. To provide solid evidence.
C. To make reasonable comparisons. D. To raise a confusing question.
31. What does the last paragraph mainly talk about
A. Joint efforts from individuals and the whole society.
B. Detailed steps to finish a careful daily audit.
C. Smart skills to cut down wasted time online.
D. Practical solutions to relieve time poverty.
D
On Nov 8. Wang Yaping, a female taikonaut of Shenzhou XIII mission, became China’s first and the world’s
16th female spacewalker. The expected six-month journey in space has left many people curious about the
differences between male and female astronauts, especially when it comes to performing extravehicular (舱外的)
activities (EVAs). Despite physical challenges, female astronauts have unique advantages.
Understanding between astronauts is very important for carrying out EVAs, which is the basis of excellent
communication skills. Women master communication and language expression, which helps female astronauts
conduct EVAs. Female astronauts’ strong communication skills and energy also contributes to maintaining high
team spirit throughout their stay, according to Pang Zhihao, a spaceflight researcher in Beijing.
Men and women are different in body size, which also gives women unique advantages for spacewalks. A
different body shape requires a different spacesuit. A tailor-made spacesuit was prepared for Wang’s EVAs, which
weighed less than the model designed for male astronauts. Designers improved this spacesuit to make it more
suitable for astronauts with slimmer figures.
Existing research reveals that female astronauts are highly adapted to carrying out space missions,
outperforming male astronauts when it comes to careful observation on detail and thinking from all angles. Besides,
men often do well in shorter-term, goal-driven situations, while women are better in longer-term, living-type
environments, according to National Geographic.
Women’s participation in EVAs is a necessary part of space missions, and we are marking a historic moment
thanks to Wang’s bravery, according to Pang.
32. What is the benefit of female astronauts’ communication skills
A. Conducting various tasks. B. Doing some space research.
C. Approaching physical challenges. D. Keeping the astronauts’ mental positivity.
33. What do we know about Wang’s EVAs
A. She is the first ever female spacewalker.
B. The spacesuit she wore was specially adjusted.
C. She performed some tasks that her male partners couldn’t do.
D. Her communication skills helped her finish all space research alone.
34. Which of the following is an advantage females have over male astronauts
A. Females can adjust to space more quickly.
B. Female bodies are stronger and more flexible.
C. Females deal with goal-driven situations better than males.
D. Females pay more attention to details and all-round thinking.
35. What is the text mainly about
A. The importance of female astronauts.
B. The advantages of females performing EVAs.
C. The preparations for the first female spacewalk.
D. The challenges female astronauts face during a spacewalk.
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 12.5 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Night markets in Haikou, China are typical open-air shopping spots, where street vendors (小 贩 ) occupy
designated streets to run their stalls. They are ideal places for people to wander around, pick up goods and enjoy
the inviting smell of local snacks.
Each night market comprises a different combination of stalls. 36 Hence, there is always something
new and exciting to look forward to at each visit. You can even be addicted to antique treasure hunts which can be
found in some night markets.
The night markets are typically from 5 p.m. till 11:30 p.m. You can buy anything from night markets, be it
groceries, clothing, delicious local food, hot snacks, household items or fresh produce. By around 6 p.m., the
market becomes extremely busy as the first groups of people sweep in. For those who cook, there are rows of stalls
selling fresh seafood, meat products, and a limitless variety of vegetables. 37
It’s widely known that tasty street food is the biggest highlight of all night markets. 38 Besides,
popular drinks like soy milk and sugarcane juice are always on sale.
There are so many interesting things to discover. 39 It is not a place for the faint-hearted or quiet
people, but for many, it is a fun and thrilling place to explore. It is really an exciting experience and a feast for the
eyes on a tropical night out. The atmosphere is almost festive. 40
A. Your curiosity will be satisfied here.
B. There is so much to see, buy, and eat.
C. Some visitors feel disturbed by the loud noise and crowds.
D. Large crowds and lively noises are typical of night markets.
E. It would be a regret not to try these mouth-watering local dishes.
F. New items are constantly being added to follow the latest trends.
G. Dried and preserved items such as dried beef and salted eggs are easily available here too.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
For our big trip, my husband and I decided to travel with our camper trailer (露营拖车). We brought our bikes,
surfboards and our 41 , Anzac. At first, everything went 42 .
However, a fun day of mountain biking suddenly turned into a (n) 43 situation when my husband
broke his leg on the trail. Thanks to the local emergency services, he was quickly 44 , rescued and taken to
hospital by helicopter.
As I watched him being flown away, I felt great 45 . Soon after, reality hit. I was now alone and
responsible for the dog, the vehicle and the camper trailer still set up at the campsite (营地). 46 the trailer
was difficult for one person, and my family and friends were far away. I felt exhausted and worried.
The next day, new neighbours arrived at the campsite. Although I was 47 , I managed a small smile
when a man named Sam said hello. He asked a few gentle questions and the whole story poured out. That evening,
Sam and his wife, Hillary, offered their help without 48 . They said they would pack everything up for me
and 49 me to share dinner with them.
The next morning, they arrived as 50 . With my husband giving 51 over the phone, Sam
worked carefully through the task, while Hillary offered encouragement and support. What would have taken me
days was finished much faster with their 52 .
Their kindness did not 53 there. They also helped me find a place to stay near the hospital and
continued to check in with us on the journey home.
I will never 54 that holiday. Not because of the 55 , but because of the people who helped
when I needed it most. When you are far from family and friends, you realise how important kindness and human
connection actually are.
41. A. dog B. son C. friend D. cat
42. A. poorly B. quickly C. smoothly D. unexpectedly
43. A. odd B. awkward C. ridiculous D. stressful
44. A. found B. treated C. identified D. surrounded
45. A. guilt B. relief C. anxiety D. excitement
46. A. Packing up B. Packing off C. Packing into D. Packing away
47. A. scared B. alone C. heartbroken D. tired
48. A. doubt B. hesitation C. difficulty D. reason
49. A. reminded B. allowed C. invited D. persuaded
50. A. required B. promised C. predicted D. specified
51. A. orders B. updates C. details D. instructions
52. A. help B. guidance C. method D. hospitality
53. A. exist B. end C. pause D. remain
54. A. take B. repeat C. forget D. enjoy
55. A. wound B. scenery C. assistance D. accident
第二节（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Lin Qiaozhi, a resident physician in the OB-GYN department of the PUMC Hospital, delivered over 50,000
babies in her career, 56 (enjoy) the title of “mother of ten thousand babies”.
When she was five years old, her mother’s death had a 57 (true) profound impact on her. At the age of
18, she opted to study medicine instead of getting married like the 58 (major) of girls. After graduating
from Peking Union Medical College (PUMC), she was the first woman 59 (become) a resident physician in
the OB-GYN department of the PUMC Hospital. Having worked for a few years, she went abroad for 60
(far) education. Although she had the chance to work abroad, she returned to China. In 1941, she became the first
Chinese woman director of the OB-GYN department of the PUMC Hospital. A few months later, 61 the
war broke out, the department was closed. Bearing in mind all those 62 need of help, Dr Lin set up a
private clinic where she lowered the fees for poor patients. Sometimes she was even occasionally spotted riding a
donkey to faraway villages to provide medical care.
After the founding of the new People’s Republic of China, Lin Qiaozhi 63 (appoint) to many
important positions, but she was more interested in caring for patients and doing medical research. Since she had no
children of 64 (her), Dr Lin left her savings to a kindergarten and 65 fund for new doctors.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40 分）
第一节（满分 15 分）
假定你是李华。为丰富校园生活，你校在上周举办了一年一度的校园艺术节，请你向学校校报投稿，
写一篇短文介绍这次活动。内容主要包括：
1．活动目的；
2．活动内容；
3．活动意义。
注意：
1．写作词数应为 80 个左右；
2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
第二节（满分 25 分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I faced a tight budget when I was nine. On November 1st, I used up most of the money I saved. With a small
amount of pocket money left before Christmas I didn’t have enough to buy presents for the family.
I was seriously considering going to my dad and asking for an advance on the next year’s pocket money, so I
could at least buy gifts for my family members. But then, one evening, I was sitting in my room reading
advertisements in the back of a magazine. Several greeting-card companies were telling us how people could make
money by selling their cards and stationery (文具). Normally, I would have passed right over the ads, but this time
my situation was so difficult that I felt I had nothing to lose.
The ad that attracted me most was one by a well-known greeting-card company in my nation, whose products
were of high quality. With my parents’ help, I contacted the company, although they preferred adults or older kids
to advertise their products. After my sincere request, they agreed to give me, a nine-year-old boy, a chance.
My sales materials arrived within the week. I had expected something small and neat, but the package looked
like a dinosaur’s shoebox; it was close to three feet long and nearly a foot wide, full of stuff. There was a thick
binder (活页夹) containing a complete selection of the cards and some writing paper, which I would be selling for
around $ 3 per box.
Although my parents supported my try to make money by myself, they had little confidence in my success;
after all, instead of an outgoing kid, I was somewhat shy. However, I was determined to have a try to challenge
myself.
注意：
1．续写词数应为 150 左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Wasting no time, I set off and knocked on doors in my neighborhood.
Eventually, I earned over $ 20, a large sum of money for a 9-year-old kid.
高一英语期末试题参考答案
第一部分 听力 (共两节，每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分)
1～5 ABABC 6～10 CBAAB 11～15 CBACC 16～20 BABCA
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分 50 分)
21-23 AAC 24-28 CDAC 29-31 BCBD 32-35 DBDB 36-40 FGEAB
第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分 30 分)
第一节 (共 10 小题;每小题 1 分，满分 15 分)
41-55 ACDAB ADBCB DABCD
第二节 (共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分)
56. enjoying 57. truly 58. majority 59.to become 60. further
61. when 62. in 63. was appointed 64. herself 65. a
第四部分 写作 （共两节，满分 40 分）
第一节 (满分 15 分)
One possible version:
In order to enrich our school life and broaden the students’ horizons, our school
held the annual School Art Festival last week.
As scheduled, the festival started with a singing competition, attracting dozens of
students who had a talent for music. Ten contestants stood out and won the prizes in
the end. Then followed the school art show, in which many works from both the
students and teachers were on exhibition, ranging from calligraphy to paintings.
The art festival provided a platform for us students to showcase our talents and
passions, whether it be through music, dance, drama, or visual arts.
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为 15 分，按各档次评分标准给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，
确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于 60，酌情扣分。
4. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：时态、人称、内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和
准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6. 如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档 (13-15 分)
覆盖了所有内容要点，表述清楚、合理。
使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但不完全影响理解。有效地使用
了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档 (10-12 分)
覆盖了所有内容要点，表述比较清楚、合理。
使用了比较多样并且恰当的词和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。比较有效地使
用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档 (7-9 分）
覆盖了大部分内容要点，有个别地方表述不够清楚、合理。
使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不当之处，但基本不影响理解。基本有效地使
用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（4-6 分）
遗漏或未清楚表述一些内容要点，或一些内容与写作目的不相关。
所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
几乎不能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清，意义不够连贯。
未能达到预期的写作目的。
第一档 (1-3 分)
遗漏或未清表述大部分内容要点，或大部分内容与写作目的不相关。
所使用的词汇有限，语法结单调，错误多，严重影响理解。
几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
完全未达到预期的写作目的。
零分
未作答、所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判所写内容与题目要求完全不相关。
第二节 （满分 25 分）
One possible version:
Wasting no time, I set off and knocked on doors in my neighborhood. Gathering
my courage, I introduced myself as the young representative of the well-known
greeting-card company. The initial responses were mixed — some were hesitant,
while others were fascinated by the idea of a child engaged in such a venture. As I
showcased the high-quality cards and shared the story behind each design, the doubt
began to fade away, replaced by genuine interest. Surprisingly, my shy character
transformed into enthusiasm, and I found myself engaging in conversations that
extended beyond the purpose of sales.
Eventually, I earned over $20, a large sum of money for a 9-year-old kid . The
community’s response exceeded my expectations, and the support I received went
beyond mere financial transactions. Neighbors were not just buying cards; they were
encouraging a young entrepreneur. This unexpected journey into sales not only
alleviated my financial concerns for Christmas but also instilled a sense of
accomplishment and self-confidence. It broadened my horizons and laid the
foundation for a newfound belief in the possibilities that determination and courage
could unfold, regardless of age.
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为 25 分，按 5 个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来
衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于 130，酌情扣分。
4. 评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑：与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；内容的丰
富性和对所标出的关键词的应用情况；应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；上下文的连
贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以
考虑。
6. 如书写较差，以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档（21-25 分）
创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。
使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但不完全影响理解。有效地使用
了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档（16-20 分）
创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高。 使
用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档（11-15 分）
创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。
使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。基本有效地
使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档（6-10 分）
内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度脱节。所使用的词汇
有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档（1-5 分）
内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。
所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，严重影响理解。
几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
零分
未作答、所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判，所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全
不相关。
听力录音稿：
Text 1 换屏幕
W: I dropped my tablet computer and the screen cracked. How much would a replacement
cost
M: Let me see. For your model, a new screen would cost $215. I can change the screen in an
hour.
W: Okay.
Text 2 术后疼痛
M: My leg hurts a lot after the operation.
W: Have you been taking your painkillers
M: Yes, but they only help a little.
W: I’ll report your situation to the doctor and see if he can adjust the type of painkillers to
make you feel better.
Text 3 指路
W: Hi there, I’m going to the Blue Restaurant. Can you tell me how to get there
M: Certainly. When you exit our hotel, turn right and go down Elm Road for two blocks.Then
turn left at the Fancy Bookstore. You’ll find the restaurant about 500 meters ahead on your left.
Text 4 同学之间互助
W: Jason, I forgot my math textbook at home. Can you share yours with me
M: Sure. My pen broke in the test last Wednesday and you saved the day for me.
Text 5 鲜花速递
M: You look worried, Amy. What’s wrong
W: I ordered a bunch of flowers online 2 hours ago. I still haven’t received it yet.
M: It’s 4:30 p.m. now. Why don’t you call the deliveryman and ask what happened
Text 6 养宠物
W: I’m considering getting a pet. Do you have any pets
M: I have a dog and two cats.
W: Really Do they get along
M: Yes. What kind of pet would you like to get
W: I’m not sure. I’d love to have a cat, but my roommate is allergic to cat hair. And I don’t have
time to walk a dog every day.
M: Have you ever thought about getting a parrot or some goldfish
W: A parrot doesn’t sound bad.
Text 7 图书管理员的工作
W: Hey, Eric! How was your work at the library this week
M: Hi, Aishah. I’ve been very busy, but in a good way.
W: I’m glad you’ve adjusted to the job so quickly. Is it hard for you to help people find
information
M: It’s been good! Sometimes I struggle with unusual requests. Yesterday, someone wanted
information on rare medical conditions from the 1800s!
W: If you can’t find what they need in our library file system, you can try interlibrary loans. It’s a
service that allows us to borrow resources from other libraries.
M: I’ll bear that in mind. Speaking of which, how do you manage to deal with all the different
aspects of your job, like customer service and cataloguing
W: Being organized. If it’s busy at the front desk, I focus on customer service. When it’s not
busy, I catalogue or help digitalize some of our older records.
M: There’s so much to absorb and apply.
W: Yes. When I started, it felt like drinking from a fire hose. Just keep learning and adapting. We’
ll hold a book donation drive next month. It will be a great learning opportunity.
Text 8 切花花园
W: Planting a cut flower garden sounds relaxing and easy. We just need to prepare the soil and
then grow the flowers, right
M: Well, there is a lot more to it than that. Cut flowers are often grown in specific varieties.
Each variety has its own tips on keeping them healthy. It can be hard to find the right and
sustainable varieties.
W: Then what should we do if we want a sustainable cut flower garden
M: The most important thing to consider is that different plants require different growing
areas. Check out our garden at different times of the day to assess the light conditions. Full sun
will help us grow field plants like daisies and sunflowers. For shade, try hellebore, hydrangeas or
irises.
W: What about the areas with a combination of sunlight and shade
M: Then we might do well with roses, tulips, daffodils or climbing vines.
W: Are there any other factors we should consider for our cut flower garden
M: Yes, consider the amount of water our plants need and the type of soil we have, especially if
we’re growing some picky varieties of flowers like lisianthus.
W: I see. And are all flowers best planted in spring
M: Well, most bulbs are planted in the fall and seeds are spread in the spring, but there are
exceptions. For instance…
注释：cut flowers：切花，又称鲜切花，常指从活体植株上切取下来的花朵、花枝、叶片等。
切花具有观赏价值，用于插花或制作花束、花篮等花卉装饰。
Text 9 大熊猫学院
M: Jenifer, long time no see! I heard you were admitted to Tsinghua University. What are you
studying
W: I major in Computer Engineering, even though my parents wanted me to study Medicine.
What about you I guess you chose Journalism since you want to be a journalist.
M: No. I’m studying at China’s first giant panda college in southwest China’s Sichuan
Province, which is also home to giant pandas.
W: Giant panda college I’ve never heard of it.
M: Well, it’s a new college of China West Normal University, which was established by the
Sichuan Forestry and Grassland Administration. The college has signed cooperation agreements
with the Chengdu Research Base of Giant Panda Breeding and several national nature
reserves. So we have the opportunity to interact with giant pandas.
W: Cool! By the way, what have you learned there
M: We’ve learned how to protect the ecological environment, restore animal habitats,
promote panda population growth and how to construct a panda park. I really want to
participate in the building of a panda park one day.
W: I’m sure you’ll make it.
Text 10 富士山收取登山费
W: Mount Fuji, a UNESCO World Heritage site and an icon of Japan, has put new
regulations in place for climbers amid concerns about overcrowding. From July 1st, 2024,
climbers must pay 2,000 yen per person, with a daily maximum of 4,000 climbers per day.
“By strongly promoting comprehensive safety measures for climbing Mount Fuji, we will ensure
that Mount Fuji, a treasure of the world, is passed on to future generations,” said Koutaro
Nagasaki, a local official. In 2023, a volunteer named Tomoyo Takahashi asked visitors to
voluntarily contribute 1,000 yen toward maintaining the mountain. Not everyone paid the
1,000 yen, which made Takahashi sad. Now, she can finally get her wish.
M: Overtourism—with its consequences like rubbish and rising carbon emissions—has become
the biggest problem for Mount Fuji. According to the local government, 5 million people hiked
Mount Fuji in 2019, a rise of 3 million from 2012. Actually, overtourism has become a bigger
issue in Japan since the country reopened following the pandemic. Many other scenic spots
have started to collect the “tourist tax” which is used to maintain the site and its
infrastructure.

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