山东省菏泽市鄄城县2025-2026学年八年级下学期7月期末考试英语试卷(含答案,含听力原文及音频)

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山东省菏泽市鄄城县2025-2026学年八年级下学期7月期末考试英语试卷(含答案,含听力原文及音频)

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初中八年级英语学习素养诊断测试
2026年7月
注意事项:
1.本试题满分120分,考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前将自己的个人信息填涂在答题纸规定的位置。答题时,选择题答案用2B铅笔填涂,非选择题试题答案用0.5毫米黑色签字笔书写。
一、听力测试(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,请将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5个句子。听完每个句子后,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳应答语。听完每个句子后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子读两遍。
1. A. It was great. B. Twice a day. C. That’s right.
2. A. You’re welcome. B. Yes, please. C. No, you can’t.
3. A. I was OK. B. I was cooking. C. It was terrible.
4. A. Say “Ciao”. B. Say “Nihao”. C. Say “Hello”.
5. A. No, I haven’t. B. Yes, I do. C. Thanks a lot.
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有一个或几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第1段材料,回答以下小题。
6. What does the man think of the book
A. It’s interesting. B. It’s just so-so. C. It’s surprising.
听第2段材料,回答以下小题。
7. What’s the relationship between the two speakers
A. Brother and sister. B. Classmates. C. Workmates.
听第3段材料,回答以下小题。
8. Why did Sue’s aunt give her a watch
A. Because the watch was very nice.
B. Because Sue was often late for school.
C. Because Sue’s old watch didn’t work.
9. What birthday gift will Sue send her aunt
A. A cake. B. A schoolbag. C. A CD.
听第4段材料,回答以下小题。
10. What should you do if your pen pal in Brazil invites you to dinner
A. Arrive on time. B. Arrive half an hour late. C. Arrive fifteen minutes early.
11. Where can Laura get more information about Brazil
A. In a storybook. B. On the Internet. C. In a newspaper.
听第5段材料,回答以下小题。
12. What club did Emily join
A. Time Managing Club. B. Weather Reporting Club. C. Natural Science Club.
13. Why did Emily join the club
A. To have fun. B. To learn more. C. To prepare for exams.
14. Which activity does Emily like best
A. Watching plants. B. Doing simple tests. C. Recording weather changes.
15. What was hard for Emily at first
A. Managing her time wisely.
B. Catching up with the others.
C. Planning spare-time activities.
第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面1段独白。独白后有5个填空题,根据所听内容在空格内填入适当的单词。听独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,你将有1分钟的作答时间。该段独白读两遍。
How Doubao Helps with Learning
Main role It works like a private 16 .
Support for students ◇ It finds students’ learning mistakes and suggests 17 to help improve. ◇ It gives quick feedback (反馈) on how to pronounce 18 . ◇It recommends reading materials based on students’ 19 .
Support for teachers ◇It helps teachers know students’ level from the 20 .
二、阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读选择(共15小题:每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Amy’s Reading Note
The Name of the Book: Around the World in Eighty Days
Writer: Jules Verne Type of book: Adventure (冒险) The Main Character: Phileas Fogg
Main Subject: The book is all about Phileas Fogg’s trip. Phileas Fogg travels around the world in 80 days. He takes the train, takes the ship, and so on. He meets different people and faces new problems. From his story, we can learn that if we plan well and keep trying, we can do some difficult things.
Favorite Parts: My favorite part is when Phileas rides an elephant to cross a forest. It’s so cool! Another part I love is when he almost misses the last ship but runs fast to catch it. I feel happy for him!
Feelings: This book makes me want to travel too! It teaches me “never stop trying” — that’s a great lesson. You should read it if you like fun adventures!
21. Who is the main character of the book
A. Amy. B. Jules Verne. C. Phileas Fogg.
22. How long does it take the main character to travel around the world
A. 60 days. B. 80 days. C. 100 days.
23. What does the underlined word “it” refer to
A. The last ship B. The last elephant. C. The last forest.
24. What is Amy’s purpose in writing this text
A. To encourage readers to travel around the world.
B. To introduce a book and advise readers to read it.
C. To teach readers how to take the train for travel.
25. What is the text
A. A story. B. A poem. C. A book report.
B
Sophie used to be a girl who always made last-minute changes. She believed that only a “perfect” piece of work could show her value. So, she often stayed up late rewriting her homework again and again. Because of this, Sophie was always tired in class and found it hard to pay attention.
Then one afternoon came a turning point, During a physics class, Sophie felt sleepy because she had spent hours fixing her report the night before. Her partner Joe looked at her and said, “You’re really good at this, but you’ll burn out if you keep pushing yourself so hard.” His words surprised her. She asked herself, “Do I really have to be perfect to show my value ”
After that, Sophie decided to make small changes. When she wrote a short poem for the English class, she set a timer (计时器) for 30 minutes. When the time was up, she stopped editing (编辑). Surprisingly, her teacher wrote back, “Your ideas are creative!” Sophie felt touched. Her work was liked even though it wasn’t perfect. Before an English speech, Sophie practiced a few times. Then she went out for ice cream with her friends. While laughing with them, she realized that spending time with people who cared about her was more important than giving a perfect speech. The speech turned out to be a success, and no one even noticed her shaky (颤抖的) voice.
Now, Sophie still works hard, but she no longer gives up sleep, friends, or her health for perfection.
26. Why did Sophie often stay up late
A. Because she had too much homework to do.
B. Because she wanted to make her work perfect.
C. Because she wanted to learn what she missed in class.
27. What does the underlined part “burn out” mean in Paragraph 2
A.精疲力竭 B.心急如焚 C.半途而废
28. What did Sophie do differently when she wrote a short poem for English class
A. She set a timer for 30 minutes.
B. She asked her teacher for help.
C. She edited the poem again and again.
29. How does the writer develop the passage
A. By comparing different facts.
B. By following the order of time.
C. By giving reasons for an opinion.
30. What lesson can we learn from the passage
A. Success comes from hard work.
B. Everyone should try their best to be perfect.
C. It’s more important to do your best than to be perfect.
C
①What do young people like to do in their free time If you think they are all playing video games or watching short videos on their phones, you might be wrong. In 2026, many young people are turning to something quite different — “grandma hobbies.”
②”Grandma hobbies” is a fun name for traditional activities like needlepoint (刺绣) and gardening. These are things that people’s grandmothers used to enjoy. But now, Gen Z (people born after 1997) are falling in love with them.
③Emma MacTaggart, 26, from the US, is a good example. She used to work long hours in banking. After work, she would just look through her phone for hours — a habit called “getting lost in her phone.” To change this, she and her roommates decided to try needlepoint. Soon, they became completely attracted. Emma said it was so relaxing that they spent almost all their free time making needlepoint works instead of looking at a screen.
④These old hobbies help young people reduce stress and feel relaxed. When they finish a gift or a dish, they feel proud and successful. Social media helps them become more popular. Young people share their works online and make friends. Some even turn their hobbies into businesses. Take Anna We are as an example, a 31-year-old blacksmith (铁匠) — people now wait a year for her handmade products.
⑤So next time you see a young person blacksmithing, don’t be surprised. It’s the newest cool thing to do!
31. What is the structure of the passage (①=Paragraph 1)
A. B. C.
32. What are “grandma hobbies” according to the passage
A. Modern mobile phone apps.
B. Old-fashioned video games.
C. Traditional enjoyable activities.
33. Why did Emma MacTaggart start needlepoint
A. To make more money. B. To change her lifestyle. C. To pass the time with friends.
34. What does the example of Anna Wear e show
A. Blacksmithing is a traditional activity.
B. Young people can turn hobbies into businesses.
C. Social media helps young people make friends.
35. What does the writer mainly want to tell us
A. “Grandma hobbies” help young people relax and find pleasure.
B. All young people turn their hobbies into successful businesses.
C. Video games are the most popular free-time activity for Gen Z.
第二节 阅读还原(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Different countries have different manners about social situations. In Mexico, people shake hands when they meet for the first time. In Brazil, people sometimes kiss. In Japan, people usually bow. Do you know Chinese fist and palm salute (拱手礼) It is one of the classic greeting manners in China. 36
The occasions for making fist and palm salute.
For centuries, China has been known as a nation of rites and etiquette (礼仪之邦). Nowadays, Chinese usually shake hands when meeting others, but sometimes they also make fist and palm salute.
37
People make fist and palm salute when they visit someone during the Spring Festival or attend someone’s wedding ceremony, birthday party and so on.
The history of fist and palm salute.
38 It started in the West Zhou Dynasty. If people met strangers, they would prepare for a fight if necessary, and their hands were always ready for holding weapons (武器). Holding hands together pointed to themselves was an act of expressing kindness. Later, it became one of traditional Chinese manners when meeting each other.
39
How do you make a fist and palm salute properly First, stand at attention. Then if you are a man, right-hand half-fist, and then left-hand holds the right-hand in front of your chest. For a woman, left-hand half-fist, then right-hand puts the left-hand on the top. Next, watch each other, raise both hands to brow (额头) and bend down 40 Also, you could say some lucky greeting words to each other for three times.
A. Now let’s learn more about it. B. When and where to use it. C. The way to make a fist and palm salute. D. It is often widely used in Western countries. E. Finally, shake your clasped hands toward each other three times. F. Fist and palm salute has a history of more than 3,000 years.
三、语言知识运用(共两节,满分20分)
第一节 完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Yesterday, my 15-year-old brother Tommy had a 41 with my 12-year-old brother Kevin. I didn’t notice. Later, as I was walking upstairs (楼上), I heard Kevin crying in his room. I knocked on the door and asked, “Kevin, do you want to talk ” No one answered. I took out some paper and wrote, “ 42 you don’t want to talk, we can write notes.”
An hour later, I was still sitting on the floor outside his door with two pieces of paper in my hands. One was new and 43 was from Kevin. As I read one of Kevin’s notes, 44 came to my eyes. It said, “Nobody in this family 45 about me. Dad and Tommy are both mean to me. You’re never around to even notice me.”
He was right about me. I 46 back, “Kevin, I do love you and you know that. I’m here for you and you’re loved in this family.”
He didn’t 47 for a while, but then I heard him cry a little bit. Kevin ran out of paper and wrote “Thanks” on a paper cup. I wrote back “For 48 ” It was returned with “Loving me” on it.
Since then, I have tried my best to pay more attention to my family members. Kevin and I have a 49 relationship now and when one of us notices that the other is 50 , we’ll smile and say. “Write it on a paper cup”.
41. A. talk B. discussion C. fight
42. A. though B. if C. so
43. A. the other B. others C. another
44. A. tears B. sweat C. sound
45. A. writes B. cares C. reads
46. A. knocked B. shouted C. wrote
47. A. laugh B. call C. reply
48. A. who B. what C. why
49. A. closer B. farther C. worse
50. A. happy B. unhappy C. unhealthy
第二节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读短文,在文中空白处填入1个适当的单词或用括号内所给单词的正确形式填空。
Liam Carter is a 15-year-old boy. He is different 51 other teenagers of his age. While most of them like playing games. Liam enjoys 52 (watch) medical programs by himself. His classmates used to think he was strange and that his interest was boring.
One day, on the way home from school, Liam heard his neighbor Mrs Thompson 53 (cry) for help. He ran over and 54 (find) Mr Thompson on the ground. Mrs Thompson was standing next to him in a panic. She told Liam, “My husband has a history of heart disease. He just said his heart hurt and suddenly fainted (昏倒). I just called 911, 55 I don’t know how to help him now. “
Liam checked Mr Thompson’s breath and decided to perform CPR. He placed his hands on the man’s chest (胸) and then pressed it hard and 56 (quick).
After a while, the man took a breath and opened his eyes. Just then, the ambulance (救护车) arrived and took Mr Thompson to the hospital. Luckily, two days later, Mr Thompson got 57 (good) and left the hospital. He went to Liam’s home 58 (thank) him. Liam felt happy that his interest could 59 (help) save a life.
The news travelled fast through the neighborhood. Liam’s classmates realized their 60 (mistake) and treated Liam with respect from then on.
四、书面表达(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 阅读表达(61题每小题1分,共4分;其余每小题2分,共6分。满分10分)
根据短文内容,完成故事情节梳理及要点信息问答。
I’m Hunk Finn.
You don’t know about me if you haven’t read The Adventures of Tom Sawyer. Mark Twain wrote it, and most of the story is true. Tom Sawyer and I found gold money that robbers (强盗) hid in the woods. We got six thousand dollars each and became rich.
In those days I never had a home or went to school like Tom and all the other boys in St Petersburg. Pop was always drunk, and he moved around a lot, so he wasn’t a very good father. But it didn’t matter to me. I slept in the streets or in the woods, and I could do what I wanted, when I wanted. It was a fine life.
When we got all that money, Tom and I were famous for a while. Judge Thatcher, who was an important man in our town, kept my money in the bank for me. And the Widow Douglas took me to live in her house and said I could be her son. She was very nice and kind, but it was a hard life because I had to wear new clothes and be good all the time.
In the end, I put on my old clothes and ran away. Tom asked me to return and join his robber gang, so I went back. I still disliked the widow’s home. Her sister Miss Watson always told me what I could not do, which made me upset.
That night, I heard Tom’s catcall outside. I left the house through the window and met him in the trees. We walked to a hill near the house. Then we went down the hill and met several other boys. Tom took us by boat to his secret cave (洞穴) in the hill, and told us his plan.
61. Put the following events in the right order according to the passage.
A. Huck ran away from the widow’s home.
B. Huck and Tom found gold money and became rich.
C. Huck met Tom outside and went to the secret cave.
D. The Widow Douglas took Huck to live with her.
E. Huck lived a free life in streets or woods.
62. Who is the writer of The Adventures of Tom Sawyer
63. Why didn’t Huck like living with the Widow Douglas
64. What will Huck and Tom do next
第二节 写作(满分20分)
阅读故事开头,以”Kindness in the Rain”为题续写短文,保证故事完整、连贯。
写作要求:
1.内容完整,紧扣前文情节,不少于80词;
2.时态运用合理,表达基本规范,卷面整洁;
3.文中不得出现人名、校名等真实信息。
Kindness in the Rain
Yesterday afternoon, on my way home after school, the wind blew strongly and it began to rain soon. I stood under a tree and worried about how to get back home. Just then, a warm voice came from behind me.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
八年级英语参考答案
2026.07
一、听力部分(共20小题,每小题1.5分,满分30分)
1—5. ABBCA 6—10. BACCB 11—15. BCBAA
16. teacher 17. ways 18. better/ correctly/ well 19. interests 20. reports
二、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分,满分40分)
第一节 21-25 CBABC 26-30 BAABC 31-35 ACBBA
第二节 36-40 ABFCE
三、语言运用(共20小题,每小题1分,满分20分)
第一节 完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
41-45 CBAAB 46-50 CCBAB
第二节 语法填空
51. from 52. watching 53. crying 54. found 55. but
56. quickly 57. better 58. to thank 59. help 60. mistakes
四、书面表达(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 阅读表达(61题每小题1分,共4分;其余每小题2分,共6分。满分10分)
61. (1) B (2) D (3) A (4) C
62. Mark Twain.
63. Because there were too many rules in the family. / Because he had to wear new clothes and be good all the time. / Because he was not free. / ...
64. They will take another adventure. / They will help people in need with their money. / ...
第二节 写作(满分20分)

听力原文
做题时,可先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,必须将答案填涂到答题卡上。
第一节 听下面5个句子。听完每个句子后,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳应答语。听完每个句子后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子读两遍。
1. How was your weekend, Helen
2. Would you like some snacks, Nancy
3. What were you doing when the typhoon hit
4. How do you greet others in the UK
5. Have you ever been to our animal shelter, Robert
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有一个或几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第1段材料,回答以下小题。
【6】W: The book is quite interesting. And the ending is surprising. Do you think so
M: I’ve read too many books like that. I think it is just so-so.
听第2段材料,回答以下小题。
【7】M: Mr. Wang asked me if our father was at home yesterday.
W: No, he wasn’t. He travelled to Mount Tai.
听第3段材料,回答以下小题。
【8-9】M: Sue. You have got a nice watch.
W: Thank you! My aunt Alice gave it to me.
M: Is this your birthday gift
W: No. My old watch didn’t work and I don’t want to be late for school.
M: You are lucky. You have a nice aunt.
W: Yeah. Look at my school bag. This is the gift she gave me on my birthday. And I decided to send her a CD for her coming birthday next week.
听第4段材料,回答以下小题。
【10-11】M: Hello, Laura. Where will you go on vacation
W: I’m going to Brazil, but I’m a little nervous, Bob.
M: Why
W: Because I don’t know what I am supposed to do and not to do.
M: Take it easy. I’ll tell you what I know. First, don’t arrive early. You’d better be fifteen minutes or half an hour late. They have different ideas about time.
W: Okay. What else do you know about Brazil
M: I don’t know too much either. You can surf the Internet.
W: You’re right. Thank you.
M: You’re welcome.
听第5段材料,回答以下小题。
【12-15】My name is Emily. Today, I’ll share my experience in the school natural science club. I’ve always been interested in natural science, so I joined to learn more. We record weather changes, watch plants, and do simple tests. My favorite activity is watching plants. Their small changes always excite me. However, being in the club isn’t always easy. At first, I found it hard to manage my time wisely and often felt tired. But now, I’ve learned to balance my studies with club activities. That makes me really happy and proud. The club has helped me learn more about nature and about myself, too.
第三节 听下面1段独白。独白后有5个填空题,根据所听内容在空格内填入适当的单词。听独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,你将有1分钟的作答时间。该段独白读两遍。
【16-20】Good morning, everyone! Today, let’s talk about an AI tool-Doubao. Doubao is an AI learning helper. Many students in our school are using it. How does Doubao help with learning
First, Doubao is like your own private teacher. It follows how you solve problems and its main job is to find your mistakes in learning and suggest ways to help you improve.
Second, Doubao gives quick feedback. When you practice speaking English, it can tell you at once if your pronunciation is correct and help you do it in a better way. This makes learning less difficult. Many students feel happier when using Doubao.
Third, Doubao recommends reading materials based on your interests. If you love stories about animals, it will recommend passages about animals. This makes learning fun.
Doubao also helps teachers. Teachers can see each student’s level from the reports. They can then help students who need more support.

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