资源简介 眉山一中2029届新生入学考试（英语）考试时间120分钟，满分150分注意事项：1.答题前，考生务必在答题卡上将自己的姓名、座位号和准考证号用0.5毫米黑色签字笔填写清楚，考生考试条形码由监考老师粘贴在答题卡上的“贴条形码区”。2.选择题使用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡上对应题目标号的位置上，如需改动，用橡皮擦擦干净后再填涂其它答案；非选择题用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡的对应区域内作答，超出答题区域答题的答案无效；在草稿纸上、试卷上答题无效。3.考试结束后由监考老师将答题卡收回。第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。1. How much does the man pay for the gum A. 20 cents. B. 25 cents. C. 45 cents.2. What will the weather be like tomorrow A. Hot. B. Warm. C. Cold.3. Why was the woman late A. She forgot the time change. B. She didn’t know the time change.C. Her roommate told her the wrong time.4. What is TRUE about the new girl A. She is kind. B. She has blue eyes. C. She is shorter than the man.5. What does the man mean A. He thinks the woman should do less work. B. He thinks the woman won’t get better.C. He wants the woman to practice.第二节 (共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。6. What is the woman complaining about A. She visited fewer spots. B. The tour time was shortened. C. The bus was too crowded.7. What will the man do A. Make up for the woman’s loss. B. Apologize to the woman. C. Look into the matter.听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。8. Where will the man spend his weekend A. In another city. B. In the center of the city. C. In the countryside.9. Why does the man want to drive there A. It’s crowded on a bus. B. It’s too far away. C. It’s cheaper.10. How much will the man pay for renting a car for two days A. 20 dollars. B. 40 dollars. C. 60 dollars.听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。11. Where does the conversation most probably take place A. At a health club. B. At an art club. C. At a music club.12. How many times does the man probably go to the club every week A. Once. B. Three times. C. Five times.13. What should the woman do according to the man A. Do exercise before supper. B. Drink enough water after exercising.C. Relax the muscles after exercising.听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。14. What does Laura look like A. She has dark black hair. B. She is tall and slim. C. She has green eyes.15. What is Laura going to do next September A. Take part in a competition. B. Travel to New Zealand. C. Attend university.16. What does the woman invite the man to do A. Travel around Africa. B. Go to a movie tomorrow. C. Study Creative Writing with her.听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。17. How long does the holiday last A. Two days. B. A week. C. About a month.18. What did the speaker do on the first two days of his vacation A. He did his homework. B. He visited his friends. C. He went shopping.19. What did the speaker receive during the holiday A. Some presents. B. Fireworks. C. Some lucky money.20. When will the speaker go back to school A. Tomorrow. B. In three days. C. Next week.第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。AAs parents, the well-being of your children is very important. It is important to keep them happy and healthy. It is also important to make sure they are active. It is especially important for children under the age of five. As parents, it can be hard to find time for all this. At the Shining Light Day Center, we understand this. We have created a lot of activities to help your children.Our activities cover many different areas. We want to help children learn to work with others. We want to help children learn to read and speak. We also want to help children to be healthy. Our activities include classes and games. These keep the children interested. At the same time, they are learning and growing.Our programs are for children between the ages of 3 and 5. Children will learn basic math and English skills. Our program helps children start grade school.Our classes are held at two different times. On weekdays, classes are held from noon to 3 p.m. On weekends, classes are held from 9 to 11 a.m. This gives you a lot of choice as a parent.All parents should consider the Shining Light Day Center; it will give your children a good beginning in life. Visit our website today to learn more.Learning Activity Details (详情)Storytelling Children listen to stories being told. Then they help write the ending of the story.Learning Activity Details (详情)Storytelling Children listen to stories being told. Then they help write the ending of the story.Telling Time Children learn counting skills by using clocks. They count hours and minutes.Hide and Seek Children must find toys hidden in our outdoor play areas.Puppet (木偶) Show Children use hand puppets to act out stories. They work in pairs.21. When does the Shining Light Day Center have classes A. 9 to 11 a.m. on Saturdays. B. 9 to 11 a.m. on Mondays.C. 3 to 5 p.m. on Sundays. D. 3 to 5 p.m. on Fridays.22. Which activity from the table would be most likely to help develop math skills A. Storytelling. B. Telling time. C. Puppet Show. D. Hide and Seek.23. The text is most likely .A. a news article B. a teaching plan C. a business report D. an advertisementBAs a teenager, I fell in love with foreign languages — first French, then Italian, then Hindi, and Chinese. The learning has often left me highly frustrated, but has also given me great joy at the fact of having understood some of the beauty of those wonderful, magical tongues.Why did I learn all those languages Out of love for different sound systems, different writing systems, different grammars, different idioms, different ways of seeing the world. I also loved repeatedly listening to songs from other lands and feeling the culture and history silently lying in the words and tunes.My earliest-learnt language was French, and then Italian. My French is very good. Although my Italian is not as good, it gives me a huge burst of pride whenever I’m taken for a native speaker.Chinese is another kettle of fish. I’ve struggled with it for many years, yet I’m almost always lost in a group of native speakers. It’s discouraging, but I still want to try to climb the Everest (珠穆朗玛峰) of the Chinese language on my own. I don’t want a helicopter (直升机) ride to the summit. Learning another language is one of the deepest and most human things one can possibly do. Language is at the core of who we are. Language makes us who we are.Today, AI can impressively help anyone to write and read in almost any language. But this is a surface-level exchange of ideas, which comes at a steep price: the loss of honest engagement (参与) with the magic organ that makes us human. The challenges of learning a new language are exactly why it is still so important to do so in the AI era.Chinese is difficult for me, but I will never allow AI to borrow my voice to express my thoughts aloud in a perfect Chinese accent.24. What do we know about the author’s learning of foreign languages A. It is always a pleasant experience. B. It is easiest for her to learn Hindi.C. She started learning them at the age of 8. D. She really loves them and their cultures.25. Why does the author compare Chinese to “Everest” A. To show it is full of natural beauty.B. To suggest it is extremely challenging.C. To show it is the most important language.D. To prove it is popular among language learners.26. Why is learning a new language still important in the AI era A. Because AI cannot translate languages clearly enough.B. Because it allows us to avoid the challenges of modern life.C. Because the process itself keeps us truly engaged as humans.D. Because it helps us get better grades in school examinations.27. What is the main purpose of the passage A. To recommend AI tools for language study.B. To share personal views on learning languages.C. To compare the difficulties of French, Italian and Chinese.D. To prove that Chinese is the hardest language in the world.CAmerican workers have cut the number of hours they spend in their jobs since 2019, but no group has cut down its time on the clock more than young, high-earning men whose jobs typically demand long hours.The top-earning 10% of men in the U.S. labor market worked 77 fewer work hours in 2022, on average, than those in the same earnings group in 2019, according to a new study of federal data by the economics department at Washington University in St. Louis. Over the same three-year period, the top-earning 10% of women cut back time at work by 29 hours.High-earning men in the 25-to-39 range who could be described as “workaholics” were pulling back, often by choice, says Yongseok Shin, a professor who co-wrote the paper.“These are the people who have that bargaining power (议价能力),” Dr. Shin says. Many workers have had the power over their employers in a tight job market. “They have the advantage to decide how many hours they want to work without worrying too much about their life.”Before the pandemic (疫情), Eli Albrecht, a lawyer in the Washington, D.C., area, says he worked 80 to 90 hours a week. Now, he says he puts in 60 to 70 hours each week, sharing Zoom school (上网课) duties for two of his young children with his wife. He says he enjoys family time.As high-earning workers in the U.S. cut back, low-wage workers increased their hours, according to Dr. Shin’s research. The bottom-earning 10% of working men worked 41 hours more in 2022, on average, than in 2019. Women in the lowest-earning group lifted their hours worked 52 hours more last year compared with 2019.28. What do we know about the top-earning 10% of men A. They worked 77 hours each week in 2022. B. They increased their working hours in 2019.C. They enjoy being workaholics at present. D. They have cut down more working hours.29. Why can high-earning people reduce their working time according to Shin A. They worry about their life. B. They have to attend school.C. They like bargaining with people. D. They have the ability to bargain.30. What do we know about Eli Albrecht A. He is crazy about work. B. He lives in New York.C. He cares about his family. D. He works longer than before.31. Which group of people have to increase their working hours A. The lowest-earning group. B. The top-earning women.C. All the lawyers and doctors. D. All men with young children.DAround 40 million tons of electronic waste, known as e-waste, is produced every year. This includes electrical or electronic equipment that has been discarded. But where does it all go In the US alone, 100 million mobile phones, 41 million computers and over 20 million televisions are thrown into landfills (垃圾填埋场) in a year. Even for standard waste this is a big headache, because any materials that are buried in the ground can’t be easily recovered and recycled. Recycling electronics can save energy and means that less of Earth’s natural resources need to be mined.Failing to recycle e-waste is extremely damaging the environment due to the nature of the materials used in modern devices. While heavy metals and chemicals improve a device’s safety and user experience, they become poisonous if they’re not dealt with properly. Your old phones, Gameboys, kettles, microwaves and more can end up in landfills, leaking their harmful contents into the soil, water and air. Not only does this kill wildlife and destroy ecosystems, but the accumulation (累积) of poison can impact human health too. As heavy metals and chemicals flow into lakes and rivers, drinking water becomes polluted. These poisons spread through the soil, impacting the health of crops and animals that people also rely on.In some western countries, e-waste isn’t hidden out of sight in landfills but is burnt in giant, open junkyards. They even ship waste electronics to other countries to deal with, and this often ends up in dumps across Africa and Asia. Workers in these places are exposed to polluted lands and chemical gas.It is urgent that we should reduce the damaging and unsustainable side of e-waste production. Rare earth metals, some plastics and chemicals can be fed into the next generation of electronics. The steps to proper recycling of e-waste are extensive and need large investment, but more and more countries around the world are turning to e-waste recycling.32. What does the underlined word “discarded” in Paragraph 1 mean A. Repaired. B. Protected. C. Used. D. Abandoned.33. What can be learned from Paragraph 2 A. E-waste has a permanent effect on the environment.B. E-waste may do harm to both ecosystems and humans.C. Heavy metals and chemicals are poisonous to the users.D. Burying e-waste into landfills is an effective way to recycle.34. How does the author describe the handling of e-waste in Western countries A. By providing data. B. By asking questions.C. By listing examples. D. By offering a definition.35. What might the author continue to talk about A. Solutions to destroying e-waste. B. Ways to recycle e-waste properly.C. Applications of recycled materials. D. Investments in restoring ecosystems.第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。Every summer holiday, there are always many drowning accidents. Especially, swimming in the wild is extremely dangerous. 36 Surprisingly, in many drowning accidents, a large proportion (比例) of drowning deaths are able to swim.The main reason is that people who can’t swim have a fear of water. 37 But the person that can swim is otherwise. 38 And he likes to enter water, appearing occasionally so nervous in unusual conditions that if nobody rescues him, an accident may happen. 39 Don’t make the mistake of thinking that drowning deaths are mostly swimmers. The truth is that the vast majority of accidental drownings are those who cannot swim. An extra skill will give you an extra chance to save yourself in the event of an accident.The improvement of swimming skills lies in practice. The only proper place for practice is a swimming pool with coaches and ambulance people present.Here is a piece of good advice to prevent drowning. 40 A. He is not afraid of water.B. Swimming is good for your health.C. Most accidents happen right there.D. And they don’t want to go near dangerous waters.E. Master swimming skills and never swim in the wild.F. However, we cannot think learning to swim is useless for this reason.G. Common swimming strokes (泳姿) are breaststroke, freestyle, and backstroke.第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）第一节 完形填空（共两篇，各10小题；每小题1分，满分20分）AFrom the moment my husband brought home a box of six chicks at the start of the pandemic, our nine-year-old, Sophie, hasn’t let them out of her sight. She 41 them Trixie, Captain Flint and so on and was very 42 when we wouldn’t let them sleep in her bed.Sophie takes at least one chicken everywhere we let her and has done incredible (难以置信的) things with her 43 . One hot day, she wanted to take Captain Flint to the 44 . I wasn’t so sure about it: Could chickens 45 Sophie balanced a stick on her river tube (游泳圈) for Captain Flint to rest on, and the two 46 slowly down the river. Naturally, Sophie herself 47 a chicken for Halloween and convinced (说服) us Trixie had to come.Sadly, Captain Flint faced an unfortunate 48 after a hawk attack. We had a chicken funeral (葬礼), said a few words about what a 49 chicken she was, and thanked her for the joy she brought to our lives.The chickens brought a small sign of joy back to our lives. In a few short months, they have taught us to 50 situations we can’t change and find joy where we can. I am so grateful.41. A. named B. Pictured C. Learned D. taught42. A. happy B. upset C. beautiful D. honest43. A. dogs B. classmates C. chickens D. family44. A. school B. playground C. station D. river45. A. sing B. swim C. fly D. sleep46. A. moved B. jumped C. struggled D. danced47. A. dressed as B. listened to C. laughed at D. believed in48. A. work B. luck C. birth D. death49. A. bad B. small C. good D. weak50. A. accept B. change C. waste D. waitBWant a comforting letter from a warm dad The Dad Letter Project 51 just that.In July 2025, Rosie Paulik posted a TikTok about her 52 Buz Ecker, a retired professor who writes her a 53 handwritten letter with a fountain pen. She asked if anyone needed a dad’s kind words, and hundreds 54 . Then she 55 the Dad Letter Project, whose slogan is “Mail That’ll Make You Smile (or Cry, in a Good Way).” Her father was the first volunteer.Buz 56 with letters from his own mom and kept writing to Rosie every day through her camps, college and adulthood, even when they lived nearby. Now he and 30 other dads send over 4,500 letters to strangers 57 with grief, broken relationships or stress.Amy Woods from England lost her dad four years before seeing the TikTok. She got a letter from dad volunteer Darren Timmeney, which 58 her to tears. “As a dad, I am proud of you,” the note 59 . She will keep this 60 letter forever.51. A. needs B. risks C. offers D. treasures52. A. mom B. dad C. grandpa D. grandma53. A. funny B. touching C. daily D. weekly54. A. replied B. refused C. proved D. presented55. A. visited B. encouraged C. mended D. founded56. A. grew up B. went around C. came up D. got along57. A. sparing B. struggling C. satisfied D. interested58. A. relaxed B. pushed C. frightened D. moved59. A. spelt B. read C. sang D. rang60. A. valuable B. tiring C. pretty D. skillful第二节 （共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）根据句意及中文提示，用课本必修一中的对应单词的正确形式填空。61. The new campus left a deep (印象) on every freshman.62. Different cultures have (独特的) features and local customs.63. We should take a (积极的) attitude towards difficulties in life.64. Many people feel (焦虑的) when facing big challenges.65. Regular exercise is of great (益处) to our physical health.66. We should protect nature and live in (和谐) with it.67. Her excellent (表现) in the competition won high praise.68. Reading can greatly improve children’s (创造性).69. You should (专注) your attention on your study instead of playing games.70. People are trying their best to (恢复) from the disaster.第三节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)阅读下面的句子阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。In March 2026, at a cultural exchange event in Xi’an, a foreign girl 71 (dress) in traditional Chinese martial arts clothing took the stage to perform Tai Chi. Her movements were so smooth and orderly that she 72 (receive) thunderous applause (雷鸣的掌声).This girl, Qinglan (Mariia Zavialova), is from Moscow, and is now 73 international student at Xi’an International Studies University. In her WeChat Moments, every post, such as Tai Chi, calligraphy, tea, Sichuan cuisine, Terracotta Army (兵马俑), and so on, shows her deep love 74 Chinese culture.Her 75 (connect) to China begins with Tai Chi. “I fell in love with China because of Tai Chi and Qigong,” Qinglan recalled. Back in college in Russia, as she first heard about Chinese Qigong in a philosophy (哲学) class, she got greatly interested. Three years ago, she started learning Shaolin Kung Fu from a Chinese master in Moscow. With her interest in Chinese culture 76 (grow), Qinglan went to Shaolin Temple on Mount Song in Henan Province for 77 (far) training. Eventually, she decided 78 (study) Chinese.During a “Silk Road” cultural exchange event (活动), Qinglan shared the 79 (culture) of different countries with her classmates. “It was a grand event 80 showed me how many common features there are among different people, and it made me feel grateful to be in China,” she said happily.第四部分 写作（满分25分）81. 亲爱的同学们，刚刚过去的暑假里，你一定有过帮父母做家务的经历。请你根据以下要点写一篇短文，简要叙述一下让你印象深刻的一次做家务经历。要点：1. 家务过程；2. 体会或收获。注意：1. 词数100左右，必须分段；2. 写明事件发生的时间、地点、人物；3. 开头已经写好，不计入总词数。I can still remember one day I decided to help my parents _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________眉山一中2029届新生入学考试（英语）答案一、听力（满分30分；每小题1.5分）1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C6. A 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. B11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. C16. B 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. B二、阅读（满分37.5分；每小题2.5分）21. A 22. B 23. D 24. D 25.B26. C 27. B 28. D 29. D 30. C31. A 32. D 33. B 34. C 35. B三、七选五（满分12.5分；每小题2.5分）36. C 37. D 38. A 39. F 40. E四、完型（满分20分；每小题1分）A篇41. A 42. B 43. C 44. D 45. B46. A 47. A 48. D 49. C 50. AB篇51. C 52. B 53. C 54. A 55. D56. A 57. B 58. D 59. B 60. A五、单句填空（满分10分；每小题1分）61. impression 62.unique 63.positive 64.anxious 65.benefit66. harmony 67.performance 68.creativity 69.focus 70. recover六、语法填空（满分15分；每小题1.5分）71. dressed 72. received 73. an 74. for/of 75. connection76. growing 77. further 78. to study 79. cultures 80. that/which六、写作（满分25分）参考范文：I can still remember one day I decided to help my parents wash dishes after dinner. At first, I got the dirty dishes to the kitchen. Then I began to wash them. I turned on the tap and water covered all the dishes in the sink. Then I added some detergent to the water. Maybe I put too much, so it was full of bubbles in the sink. It was just like a bubble bath for dishes and bowls. I caught a bowl to wash. It was slippery. “Pang!” The bowl slipped from my fingers. It dropped into the sink and broke another bowl and a dish. It was terrible! There was only one dish left.At that moment, my mother suddenly appeared by my side with her mouth wide open. I thought she was going to punish me, but she just burst into laughter and encouraged me to do a better job next time.听力原文第一节1.M: How much for a piece of gum W: Twenty-five cents.M: I only have twenty cents.W: That's OK. Here you are.2.W: Have you heard the weather report M: Yes, they said it would be cold tomorrow.3.M: Why did you come so late I've left a message with your roommate about the time change.W: Oh, you should have told me directly for she has a very short memory.4.M: Have you seen the new girl in school She's really pretty. She has lovely light brown eyes.W: Well, how tall is she M: She's about five feet, even taller than me. She is very nice to everyone.5.M: If you don't practice, you won't get any better.W: But it's very hard work!M: Don't you want to be the best 第二节听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。M: Is there anything I can do for you W: Yes, I joined in your bus tour this morning. You promised the journey will last 3 hours and we will visit 15 sightseeing spots.M: Yes, ma'am. We promised that.W: But we just have seen 11 sightseeing spots.M: Really We will look into this matter. Would you please wait a moment here W: Yes. I will wait to see what the explanation is.听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。W: Are you going shopping with your friends this weekend M: No, I don't want to stay in the center of the city on weekends. I'd like to go to the countryside for two days to relax myself.W: That's a great idea. Will you go there by bus M: No. It is usually much more crowded on a bus on weekends. I'd like to drive there.W: But you don't have a car.M: I want to rent a car from a renting company.W: How much will you have to pay for that each day M: 20 dollars.W: Oh, that's not too expensive.M: Yes. But I have to pay for the petrol myself. Anyway, it's more convenient.听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。M: Hi, I guess it's the first time that you've been to this club.W: Yes. I am new here. What about you M: I have been a member here for more than 6 months. I come here and do exercise regularly. I want to stay in shape.W: What kind of sport do you often do M: On Mondays and Wednesdays, I run several miles on a running machine. On Fridays, I take judo lessons.W: So can you tell me something that I should pay attention to M: Of course. Don't exercise when you are too hungry or too full. Do warm-ups before you exercise.W: Yes. Anything else M: Remember to relax your muscles after exercising.W: OK. Thank you very much.M: You are welcome.听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。M: Susan, can you give me a description about Laura, the new singer W: She's short and slim, with dark black hair and blue eyes.M: And what is her character like W: She's outgoing, athletic and independent. Her kindness impressed me greatly. She has ever traveled to New Zealand and Africa.M: Really That's really impressive.W: And that's not all. In January she won the National Writing Competition and next September she is going to Columbia University to study Creative Writing!M: I'd love to meet her.W: Well, we're thinking of going to the cinema tomorrow. Why not join us M: Sure, that'll be great!听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。My winter holiday is coming to an end. It almost lasts a month, but I feel that I just have a week off. How time flies. I had a wonderful vacation. Or exactly, I had a wonderful Spring Festival. On the first two days of my vacation, I started doing my homework, because I know if I didn't work on my study now, I couldn't have a great Spring Festival later on. So I made up my mind to finish my homework before the Spring Festival really comes. How wonderful the expected festival was! My house was full of laughter and happiness. My families and relatives gave me some lucky money and wished me to make progress on my study. I also hung out with friends in the street. When the atmosphere of Spring Festival was just fading away, the Lantern Festival was coming. After that, I don't have too much holiday time left. Three days later, I will go back to school for my new term. I am so happy that I feel I just had a one-week holiday. 展开更多...... 收起↑ 资源列表 听力.mp3 四川省眉山第一中学 2026-2027 学年高一上学期新生入学考试英语试题.docx
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