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乐山市高中2023级第二次调查研究考试
英 语
(本试卷满分150分，考试用时120分钟)
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名，准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2. 作答时，务必将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷及草稿纸上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上
第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后面有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
例:How much is the shirt
A. 19.15.
答案是B。
1. Why is the man selling his car
A. He prepares to buy a cheaper car. B. He can’t drive his car to New York.
C. He wants to avoid high parking fees.
2. Who is the man probably talking to
A. His wife. B. His co-worker. C. A shop assistant.
3. What is the weather like now
A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Cloudy.
4. What will the man do next
A. Attend a meeting. B. Check his teeth. C. Fix the air conditioner.
5. How much will the woman pay
A. 35 yuan. B. 40 yuan. C. 60 yuan.
第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. How does the AI shopping assistant work
A. Find proper clothes. B. Sell jackets online. C. Take photos for clients.
7. What worry does the man raise
A. Data privacy. B. Product quality. C. Payment security.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. Why does the man mention his boss
A. To suggest inviting his boss to join. B. To show why he has been busy lately.
C. To explain the need to change the day.
9. Where will they probably have lunch
A. At home. B. On the beach. C. At a restaurant.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. What was the arrival place of the man’s longest flight
A. Istanbul. B. Bangkok. C. Delhi.
11. What flight tip did the man give
A. Sit near the window. B. Prepare warm clothes. C. Select a reliable airline.
12. Why does the man prefer two short flights to one long flight
A. They are less tiring. B. They cost less in total. C. They offer more travel places.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. Which sport did the man start doing recently
A. Yoga. B. Hiking. C. Swimming.
14. What benefit does the woman get from yoga
A. She has lost weight. B. She has become more patient.
C. She has improved sleep quality.
15. What does the man say about trying yoga
A. He finds it difficult. B. He might try it later. C. He will start next week.
16. What will the speakers probably do together
A. Practise yoga. B. Go hiking. C. Go swimming.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. Where can visitors experience on the first floor
A. Weightlessness. B. Robot controlling. C. Latest smartphone models.
18. What can visitors do in the Robot Hall
A. Talk with a robot. B. Let a robot control your arm. C. Ask a robot to clean your face.
19. What is this month’s special show about
A. Future trends. B. Invention history. C. Space exploration.
20. What is the rule for photography
A. No photo allowed. B. No flash permitted. C. Only in special shows.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
You may have had tasted many delicious foods, but there are so many more global cuisines to explore.
Germany
Nowadays, vegetarian and vegan choices can be found on menus across the country. People who love local food will like Germany’s focus on local ingredients(食材). In asparagus (芦笋) season, many restaurants offer special menus for this popular green and white vegetable.
Jamaica
Although famous for jerk chicken and rum, Jamaica’s food has much more to explore with special local ingredients. For breakfast, try ackee — Jamaica’s national fruit — fried with codfish. You can also taste stewed goat or oxtail with callaloo, a local green vegetable. And wash it all down with a ginger beer or a glass of sorrel.
Croatia
Croatia has a complex history and a diverse culinary scene. Inland areas are mainly influenced by central European food, featuring meats, cheeses and noodles. Istria, a bilingual region bordering Italy and Slovenia, is famous for its local food like seafood, olive oil, truffles and prosciutto, which go well with the wine (including some strong spirits) that Istria produces as well.
Peru
When many children in a country list chef as their dream job, it shows the country truly values food. Peru’s cuisine begins with the quality of its ingredients: abundant seafood, meats and produce are found here, including many so-called superfoods that the world has only recently taken notice of, such as quinoa, and maca. Its multicultural population makes its local food scene thrive with regional variations.
21. What is special on menus in Germany
A. Abundant seafood dishes. B. Meat-based food.
C. Wide vegetable choices. D. Nutritious fruits.
22. What does Istria’s local food match well with
A. Cheeses and noodles. B. Local wine and spirits.
C. Central European meat. D. Fruits fried with codfish.
23. Where can visitors try the recently recognized maca
A. Germany. B. Jamaica. C. Croatia. D. Peru.
B
Japanese architect Kiyoaki Takeda reimagines urban living: human habitation and nature co-exist. From green rooftops to wilding existing structures, his designs cultivate biodiversity, reconnect communities to local ecosystems, and transform concrete landscapes into lively living environments. The unique vision for city life is rooted in a memory. “The place where I was born and raised was surrounded by forest and was home to a diverse range of living creatures,” Takeda recalls. “But now... the forest has disappeared.”
In the Tsuruoka House in Tokyo, the concrete structure appears like ancient ruins, being overgrown with plants. At the roof is a planter deep enough to grow trees alongside groundcover plants. The building’s special structure allows rainwater to flow naturally downward, watering the plants throughout the building. He envisioned a small “forest” growing over the house, where the plants, birds, and insects will replace the mass of the construction.
Another example is the Soil Nihonbashi hotel, completed in 2025. The 14-room hotel has potted plants decorating the public spaces, inside the guestrooms and in balconies. Here, greenery is a device that not only helps colour the greyness of an urban environment, but also a tool for emotional connection. Takeda asked local residents to donate potted plants and help design the hotel’s exterior (外观), aiming to create a sense of building the hotel together.
These gestures are simple yet meaningful. As Takeda puts it, “Architecture needs to be designed from the perspective of resources. We need to know which forest the building materials come from and what kinds of creatures live in that forest. We need to design a rich environment for both the creatures and city people.”
24. What inspired Takeda to develop his design style
A. His gardening passion. B. His love for modern city life.
C. His childhood forest memory. D. His study of local communities.
25. What is a key feature of the Tsuruoka House
A. It was built in ancient ruins. B. It provides habitats for nature.
C. It is covered with precious plants. D. It collects rainwater for daily use.
26. Why did Takeda ask locals to donate plants
A. To build community bonds. B. To decorate the guest rooms.
C. To diversify the public spaces. D. To cut down construction costs.
27. What is the core of Takeda’s design
A. Balancing humans and nature.
B. Focusing on emotional connection.
C. Using natural materials to build architecture.
D. Raising awareness of environmental pollution.
C
A long-term research, known as the ACTIVE study beginning in the 1990s with 2,802 older adults concluded that a little brain training today may help stave off dementia (痴呆) for at least 20 years. After following the adults for two decades, researchers found that those completing about ten sessions of a brain exercise — called cognitive speed training, were 25% less likely to develop dementia.
The speed-training exercise has users watch a computer screen. At some point, a car or a truck flashes in the center and a road sign shows up on the edge. The challenge is to pick out the correct vehicle sign, and remember where the road sign has appeared. The game “Double Decision” asks users to focus on one of two center targets as well as one on the edge. As the game progresses, the vehicles become harder to tell apart, and signs on the edge increase too.
It shows that the people who did this speed training that also boosts memory and reasoning were less likely to be diagnosed (诊断) with dementia. Researchers believe this is because it inspires something called implicit learning, which involves acquiring unconscious or automatic skills. That also indicates a modest amount of training has a measurable impact decades later. As Neuroscientist Henry Mahncke compares it to learning to ride a bike, “You can learn to ride a bike in about 10 hours of training,” he says. “Even without practice for 20 years, you still have ‘a bike-riding brain’.”
28. What does the underlined phrase “stave off” in paragraph 1 mean
A. Predict. B. Cure. C. Identify. D. Delay.
29. What were participants required to do in the “Double Decision” game
A. Identify objects quickly.
B. Find mistakes on the signs.
C. Judge whether the vehicle breaks traffic rules.
D. Count how many signs showing in the progress.
30. Why does Mahncke mention learning to ride a bike
A. To demonstrate bike-riding’s memory benefits.
B. To illustrate speed training’s long-term effects.
C. To explain the possible risks of implicit learning.
D. To compare mental learning to physical training.
31. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. Brain Health: The Role of Daily Exercises.
B. ACTIVE Study: Uncovering Dementia Risks.
C. Implicit Learning: Training Brain in Games.
D. Speed Training: A Defense against Dementia.
D
There is no question that Generative AI will automate a large number of jobs, removing people from the workplace. But it will almost certainly take away human warmth from social life. Over the past 15 years, face-to-face socialization has already declined dramatically. Over time, many people may develop deep relationships with chatbots (聊天机器人). This seems likely to change our society at least as much as the social-media era has,and may start a new digital age that is even more anti-social.
Chatbots claim to know everything, yet they are also humble, treating the user as supreme. Anyone who has spent much time with chatbots will recognize that they tend to be pleasing. They seldom disagree or criticize. Chatbots built for commercial purposes are not typically intended to challenge your thoughts; they are intended to receive them, offer agreeable responses, and keep you coming back.
But in human relationship, conflict is unavoidable. It can be uncomfortable. Yet conflict can be meaningful — as a check on selfish behavior or over self-regard; as a chance to look more closely at other people; as a way to better understand the weaknesses and fears we all share. But chatbots will never tell you it’s bored or tell you to stop being so stupid and self-righteous. They never feel bored, complain or ask for help. They offer false friendship while helping people avoid real communication.
Therefore, the more time children spend with chatbots, the fewer opportunities they’ll have to develop alongside other people — and, as opposed to all the digital distractions (数字干扰设备) that have existed for decades, they may be fooled by the technology into thinking that they are, in fact, having a social experience. When kids project onto a bot and “talk” with it, they are fed information and affirmed (认可) by chatbots, thus missing out on something crucial in the process. They may never learn how to fail, or how to be creative. The whole learning process goes out of the window.
32. Why does the author say the new digital age is anti-social
A. Because chatbots refuse to communicate.
B. Because people lack normal interpersonal interactions.
C. Because chatbots reject showing human warmth.
D. Because people will hate making friends on social media.
33. What do we know about commercial chatbots
A. They prioritize satisfying users. B. They push independent thinking.
C. They value users’ true feelings. D. They encourage original ideas.
34. What is the main harm for children using chatbots according to the author
A. They are hardly satisfied. B. They are deeply addicted.
C. They are overly informed. D. They are socially misled.
35. Which of the following may the author agree with
A. We should embrace chatbots. B. Say no to digital distractions.
C. A real-world friend matters. D. Don’t ask a chatbot to help.
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有两项为多余选项。
Sports Help Build a Healthier and Longer Life
Building new skills and challenging your brain are generally good for healthy aging. 36 When you decide to get moving, keep these tips for a long life in mind.
Make it social. For decades, social interaction has been tied to better health and a longer life. Find ways to be active with other people, like joining a run club, signing up for a group fitness class or trying a new sport through your local recreation center or park’s department. 37
Keep challenging yourself. Sports are mentally challenging too because they’re dynamic and goal-driven. But you can bring that mindset to any form of exercise. First, add some senses of freshness: a new route, a different gym routine or an unusual playing environment. Second, set clear, short-term goals that push you forward. 38
39 Common exercises like running and cycling are great ways to stay active, said Steven Moore, a metabolic epidemiologist at the National Cancer Institute. But pair them with upper-body work, including resistance training, so that you’re getting a full-body workout and building muscle.
Aim for consistency. The benefits of exercise only stick if you keep doing it as you get older, said Dr. I-Min Lee, an epidemiologist at the Harvard T. H. Chan School of Public Health. While tennis is sometimes called a “lifetime sport,” you don’t need to stick with one activity forever. 40 Ultimately, any and all physical activity improves long life. “Find something that works for you,” Dr. Lee said. “The bottom line is to move more.”
A. Exercise your whole body.
B. Try some stronger exercise.
C. So it’s worth finding a sport you enjoy.
D. This social element also helps with motivation and sense of responsibility.
E. It’s proved that brain training like reading or chess slows down aging effectively.
F. For example, you may gradually increase your walking time or add up the weight you lift.
G. Mixing things up keeps exercise fresh and easier to sustain, especially as your body changes.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
For 15 years, Dino’s Wood Burning Pizza has been a heart of Etobicoke, serving tradition and kindness. The owner Dino Ari brings more than food — he brings a spirit of 41 too.
Even before the COVID-19 pandemic (新冠流行病), Ari and his staff made pizzas weekly for homeless shelters. He also noticed international students feeling 42 far from home. So he often 43 them to his shop for free food. During COVID-19, he kept preparing pies for 44 workers — the doctors and nurses at hospitals. So Ari was 45 as a “Hero of Etobicoke” by the local government for his contributions to the community.
Ari does not give back for awards or prizes; he does it because he 46 . “It makes me happy to help,” he says. “What my parents taught me is always in my heart: to give help, and you’re not 47 to get back anything in return. Your 48 can put a smile on people’s faces, the people who are really 49 .” He has had this 50 since he immigrated (移民) from Turkey in 2000 and first opened Dino’s Wood Burning Pizza in 2007.
That same heart goes into his 51 . Each early morning, he fires up his handmade oven (烤炉) with wood to bake famous thin-crust pizzas, with sauces made 52 daily.
While there has always been comfort in delicious food, it is the 53 of those who create that food — giving to others, providing care and 54 concern — that can make a business feel truly special. Dino Ari embodies all these and is making a 55 in every way he can.
41. A. adventure B. leadership C. enterprise D. community
42. A. stressed B. free C. curious D. annoyed
43. A. allowed B. invited C. matched D. followed
44. A. low-spirit B. part-time C. short-term D. front-line
45. A. thought B. employed C. honored D. mistaken
46. A. cares B. tries C. depends D. fails
47. A. missing B. doubting C. expecting D. forbidding
48. A. challenge B. responsibility C. humor D. kindness
49. A. at risk B. out of control C. in need D. up to date
50. A. philosophy B. permission C. suggestion D. schedule
51. A. studies B. family C. friends D. work
52. A. valuable B. fresh C. empty D. weak
53. A. decorations B. costumes C. qualities D. interests
54. A. showing B. requiring C. introducing D. exposing
55. A. choice B. difference C. mistake D. living
第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
A “Becoming Chinese” trend on social media reveals China’s growing cultural attraction. “Tomorrow, you are turning Chinese.” Recently, 56 creator says in a TikTok video, listing a series of distinct Chinese lifestyle habits. Like him, international users have increasingly posted their “Chinese-style” lives.
These videos, 57 (display) daily Chinese lifestyle practices ranging from practicing Baduanjin to exploring traditional “healthy habits”, are popular on social media platforms, 58 cross-cultural contents often spread most rapidly. The “Becoming Chinese” phenomenon has proven that China has gone beyond the conventional labels in a 59 (foreigner) eyes.
China’s rising global influence provides a solid foundation for this cultural attraction. 60 reported, China has risen to second place in the Global Soft Power Index. Supportive 61 (policy) have led to a notable increase in international visits, enabling more travelers 62 (experience) China firsthand. Furthermore, products like Chinese appliances, the smart electric cars and even the popular game Black Myth : Wukong 63 (be) not only commercial successes, but also serve as carriers of Chinese creativity, design thinking, and technological innovation. Through daily use, they integrate elements of Chinese culture into lifestyles worldwide. 64 (drive) by shared understanding and the common experiences of daily life, the “Becoming Chinese” trend 65 (ultimate) illustrates how soft power can flourish (繁荣).
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 (满分15分)
假定你是李华,你校近期举行了一次“好书分享会”。请你给英国笔友Noah写一封邮件,介绍这次活动。内容包括:
1. 简述活动内容;
2. 分享你的感受。
注意:
1. 写作词数应为80个左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Noah,
How are you I’m excited to tell you about a wonderful event held at our school recently.
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
Best wishes,
Li Hua
第二节 (满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Molly’s life was changed forever on a March morning in 2018. A phone call brought the heartbreaking news: her husband, Marlin, had died in a skiing accident. In the difficult days that followed, her close friend Carla stayed with her every day, helping with daily tasks and arranging meals brought by friends and neighbors.
But Carla knew from her own experience that the first wave of support often becomes less after a few weeks, as people return to their own lives. She wanted to create something that would last longer for Molly during the hard year ahead. Looking at the list of friends who wanted to help, she had an idea.
“What if I find more people,” Carla thought, “and make a daily care calendar (日历) Each day of the month, one person would promise to check on Molly in a small way.” This way, support would be steady, but no one would feel too much pressure.
Carla carefully suggested the idea to Molly. She explained that it would be kind and simple support — a text, a card, or an offer to walk her dog. Deeply touched by her friend’s care, Molly agreed. So Carla began to make a list of thirty-one women from their neighborhood. She planned to give each one a specific date of the month. On that same date each month for a whole year, that “calendar girl” would do a small and kind thing for Molly. And she knew the first steps—contacting everyone, explaining the plan clearly, and organizing the schedule—were key to turning this warm idea into a real comfort for her heartbroken friend.
注意:
1. 续写词数为150左右;
2. 请按如下格式作答。
Carla sent out a heartfelt email to the thirty – one women she had in mind.
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
As the first month began, Molly started receiving these small gestures of kindness.
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
乐山市高中2023级第二次调查研究考试 英语参考答案
第一部分 听力
1-5 CBABA 6-10 AACCB 11-15 CACCB 16-20 BAABB
第二部分 阅读
第一节
21-23 CBD 24-27 CBAA 28-31 DABD 32-35 BADC
第二节
36-40 CDFAG
第三部分 语言运用
第一节
41-45 DABDC 46-50 ACDCA 51-55 DBCAB
第二节
56. a 57. displaying 58. where 59. foreigner's 60. As
57. policies 62. to experience 63. are 64. Driven 65. ultimately
第四部分 写作
第一节 范文
Dear Noah, How are you I'm excited to tell you about a wonderful event held at our school recently. Its name was Books for Sharing: we brought our favorite books to present and discuss. We eagerly recommended books and exchanged reading experiences. I shared my thoughts on a history book, and obviously sci-fi novels, nature exploration, art-related books were all "bestsellers". This event was really rewarding. With our shared efforts, It broadened our horizons, fired our passion for reading and most importantly, spread the joy of reading! Do you have any fantastic books to share Looking forward to hearing from you. Yours, Li Hua
第二节 读后续写范文
Carla sent out a heartfelt email to the thirty-one women she had in mind. In it she created a clear calendar, assigning each friend a specific date of the month. She gently suggested that even the smallest act of kindness would make a difference, and the chain of companionship would truly help Molly through the long days ahead. Almost immediately, kind replies flowed into her inbox. Each woman readily agreed, offering to send a thoughtful text or share a simple homemade dish.
As the first month of the calendar began, Molly started receiving these small gestures of kindness. A friendly text message arrived one morning. A few days later, she found a homemade pie at her door with a warm note. These consistent acts, day after day, slowly wrapped her in warmth. She began to smile more, feeling the weight of her loneliness lessen. Molly gradually understood that true healing came not from grand gestures, but from the quiet, persistent comfort of knowing she was accompanied through her grief.
附：听力原文
Text 1
W: I can’t believe you’re selling your car, Brian. It’s only two years old!
M: I know. But I’m moving to New York. It is very expensive to park a vehicle there, so I plan to take the subway to work.
Text 2
M: What a fantastic necklace! It’s shinning around your neck. I want to buy one for my wife.
W: Thanks. I think it can hold its value well. I bought it…
M: Shush! Mr. Smith is coming towards us with the meeting papers.
Text 3
W: Did you bring an umbrella
M: I didn’t think I’d need one. The sun was out when I left.
W: Well, look at you now….
Text 4
W: Oh, no! The air conditioner breaks down again.
M: OK. I have to get it fixed as soon as possible.
W: Don’t you want to get it fixed now
M: I wish I could, but I have an appointment with my dentist in twenty minutes.
Text 5
W: Hello, I need to send this to Shanghai.
M: By air, 40 yuan. By ground, 20 — takes five days.
W: OK, I’ll take ground. And I have two mails. Same price for the second
M: 20 for the first, 15 for the second.
W: OK, I’ll send both.
Text 6
M: Nice jacket! Is it new
W: Thanks. I got it online last week.
M: How did you find it
W: I used this AI shopping assistant. You just tell it your body size and upload a photo of yourself, and it finds clothes that matches you well.
M: That’s smart! Does it cost anything
W: No, it’s free. It even compares prices for you.
M: Cool. However, I just hope they don’t keep my pictures forever.
W: You can delete them anytime.
Text 7
W: Honey, are we still going to the beach this weekend
M: Err…My boss called an urgent meeting. How about Sunday instead
W: Sunday works! Should we invite the Johnsons Their kids would love it.
M: Sure. I’ll text Tom. We can leave around 8.
W: That’s fine. Did you pack the sunscreen
M: Oh, right. I’ll do it tonight.
W: Thanks. And can we book that seafood place near the beach
M: Yeah, that restaurant offers great soup. I’ll call it tomorrow.
W: Perfect! I’m really looking forward to it.
Text 8
W: Bob, as an experienced traveller, what’s the longest flight you’ve been on
M: Let me see… That should be from Istanbul to Bangkok, though I had a stopover in Delhi during the middle of the journey. It took me about 16 hours in total. It was challenging to sit for so long, but I made it a little enjoyable with movies, snacks, and some sleeps.
W: Sounds exhausting! Do you have any tips for long flights
M: Definitely! First, choose your airline carefully. For flights over 4 hours, make sure they offer comfortable seats, good meals and in-flight entertainment, like a TV screen. Also, ask for a blanket right after boarding to stay comfortable.
W: Good advice! Anything else
M: I think that taking two short flights, like two 5-hour ones, is better than one 10-hour flight. Breaking up the journey makes it easier to stretch and relax in between.
W: Thanks. I’ll keep them in mind for my next trip.
Text 9
W: You look really fit these days, David. Have you been exercising more than usual
M: Yeah, I started swimming twice a week at the community pool.
W: That’s great. I’ve been doing yoga for about three months now, and I really enjoy it.
M: How do you like it I’ve never tried yoga before.
W: It’s not easy at first, but it helps me relax and sleep much better at night.
M: Sounds nice. I’m a little worried I won’t be able to keep up.
W: You start with simple poses. The teacher’s very patient.
M: Sounds wonderful, maybe I can pick it up some time later.
W: By the way, do you do any other sports
M: Sometimes I go hiking on weekends if the weather’s nice.
W: Oh, me too! There’s a silent path near the lake.
M: We should go together. I can take you there.
W: I’d love that! I’m usually available on Saturdays.
Text 10
W: Good morning, everyone! I’m Sarah, your guide for today’s tour of the Future Life Exhibition.
We have three levels for you to explore. Starting on the first floor, you’ll enter the Space Hall. Young visitors’ favorite there is the space walking game — you’ll feel like a real astronaut floating in zero gravity.
One floor up, the Robot Hall awaits. You can meet robots that clean, take photos, even hold a conversation with you. There’s also a hands-on area where you can control a robot arm to pick up small objects. It’s harder than it looks!
The top level offers something different. This month’s special show looks backward instead of forward, tracing how human creativity has evolved from the first light bulb to today’s smartphones.
We’ll spend about an hour here. Feel free to take photos, but please — no flash. It helps protect the exhibits.
If you have any questions, just ask. Now, let’s begin on the first floor!

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