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七年级英语（外研版）上册阶段测试（一）
（Starter Welcome to junior high!、Unit 1 A new start、Unit 2 More than fun）
（满分120分，考试时间90分钟）
第一部分　听力（共三节，满分20分）
第一节：听小对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确的选项，回答问题。每段对话读一遍。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
What’s the girl’s name
A. Amy　　 B. Lucy　　 C. Lily
How old is Tom
A. Ten　　 B. Eleven　 C. Twelve
What’s Lingling’s favourite place
A. The library B. The playground C. The dining hall
How does the boy feel on the first day at school
A. Happy　　 B. Nervous　　 C. Tired
How many books are there on the desk
A. Two　　 B. Three　　 C. Four
第二节：听较长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确的选项，回答问题。每段对话读两遍。（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面一段较长对话，回答第6、7两个小题。
What does Mike think of his new school
A. Big　　 B. Beautiful　　 C. Small
How many buildings are there in the school
A. Two　　 B. Three　　 C. Four
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
What club is Sarah in
A. The art club B. The music club　 C. The sports club
What sport does Sarah play
A. Basketball　 B. Football　　 C. Tennis
Can Sarah play the piano
A. Yes, she can　 B. No, she can’t　　 C. We don’t know
第三节：听下面一段独白，从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确的选项，回答问题。独白读两遍。（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
What class is Wang Dong in
A. Class Five　 B. Class Six　 C. Class Seven
How many buildings are there in the school
A. Three B. Four　　 C. Five
What’s Wang Dong’s favourite subject
A. English B. Chinese　 C. Maths
What does Wang Dong like doing after school
A. Playing basketball
B. Playing football
C. Singing
What club does Wang Dong want to join
A. The art club
B. The music club
C. The sports club
第二部分　阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节：阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Chen Yuxi is a 17-year-old girl from China. On September 25, 2026, she runs the women’s 100m at the Asian Games（亚运会）in Nagoya. She runs 11.06 seconds and wins.
Chen loves running. She gets up early and trains（训练）every day. She is not afraid of difficulties. Her coach（教练）says, “She runs with her legs and her heart.”
Chen will be 18 in December. “The gold medal is a good gift for me,” she says. “I want to run faster on the world stage（世界舞台）.”
（新华网2026年9月26日《亚运综合｜陈妤颉加冕“女飞人”》）
When did Chen Yuxi win the women’s 100m
A. On September 21, 2026. B. On September 25, 2026.
C. On September 26, 2026. D. On December 25, 2026.
How old is Chen Yuxi
A. 16. B. 17. C. 18. D. 19.
What does the underlined word “gift” mean
A. 礼物 B. 成绩 C. 奖牌 D. 机会
Which of the following is TRUE
A. Chen runs 11.60 seconds.　　
B. Chen will be 19 in December.
C. Chen is 17 years old.　　
D. Chen is afraid of difficulties.
B
I’m a new student at No.2 Middle School. When I first came here, I was very shy. I didn’t know anyone. At break（课间）, my classmates played soccer on the playground. I just sat there and watched.
One day, a boy came to me and asked, “Do you want to play with us ” I was a little afraid, but I said yes. He taught me how to kick the ball. Soon I made many friends.
Soccer is very popular at my school. Now I play soccer with my classmates after class every day. I am not shy any more. I love my new school!
What was the writer like when he first came to school
A. Shy. B. Happy. C. Angry. D. Tired.
What does the underlined word “popular” mean
A. 受欢迎的 B. 无聊的 C. 昂贵的　 D. 危险的
What does the underlined word “He” in “He taught me how to kick the ball” refer to
A. The writer. B. The boy. C. The teacher. D. The player.
What can we infer（推断）from the passage
A. Soccer is not popular at school.　　
B. Sports can help us make friends.
C. The writer still feels shy now.　
D. The boy doesn’t like soccer.
C
On September 20, our school looked like a busy little market（市场）. Small stalls（摊位）were everywhere. Students sold books, toys and snacks（零食）on them.
Our class made a big poster（海报）: “Come and buy! Your small help can be a big love!” Many students came to our stall. We sold all the things and got 1,200 yuan.
What did we do with the money We bought books and pencils for children in poor（贫困的）areas. The headmaster said, “Small acts can show big hearts. Helping others makes us happy.”
When did the school look like a busy little market
A. On September 20. B. On October 1.
C. On September 12. D. On October 20.
What did the students sell
A. Books, toys and snacks. B. Flowers and cakes.
C. Clothes and shoes.　　 D. Cards and pens.
What does the underlined word “poster” mean
A. 海报 B. 名单 C. 横幅 D. 菜单
What does the passage mainly tell us
A. Markets are fun. B. Small acts can show big hearts.
C. Selling things is easy. D. Snacks are popular.
D
Students from Taiyuan Zhida Middle School in Shanxi learn about science in a fun way. The school has science master classes（大师课）.
In a class, teachers show how electricity（电）works. Students do small experiments（实验）with their hands. They ask questions and try to find answers.
A girl says, “I used to think science was difficult. Now I find it interesting. I want to be a scientist（科学家）in the future.” The school says the classes open a door to the science world. “When science comes alive, children love it,” a teacher says.
Where do the students learn about science in a fun way
A. In Taiyuan.　 B. In Beijing.　C. In Shanghai.　D. In Shenyang.
What do the students do in the class
A. They do experiments. B. They sing songs.
C. They draw pictures. D. They read books only.
What can we infer（推断）from the passage
A. Science is always difficult.　　
B. Learning can be fun and interesting.
C. Only scientists ask questions.　　
D. Children don’t like science.
第二节：任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从方框中的七个选项中选出五个填入空白处，使短文通顺、连贯（其中有两项多余）。
Do you know when the new school year starts in other countries 31.______
In India, the new school year starts in May or June. 32.______ Children go to school with their new schoolbags（书包）.
In the US, students go back to school in August or September. 33.______
In China, most schools open on September 1. 34.______ Some schools give new students cards with warm words.
The first day of school is always special. 35.______
第三部分　英语知识运用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节：完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Hello! I’m Li Ming, a new student at Sunshine Middle School. The new term starts, and everything is 36.______ to me.
On the first day, I was a little 37.______. I didn’t know anyone. My teacher said, “Don’t 38.______. You will make many friends here.”
Getting used to middle school is like learning to 39.______ a bike. You get better slowly. At first, I made some 40.______ in my homework. My teacher didn’t get angry. She helped me 41.______ them.
After class, I joined the 42.______ club. I like reading there. Soon I 43.______ many new friends. We play basketball 44.______ after school. Now I feel 45.______ at school.
My teacher often says, “Don’t be afraid to 46.______ questions. We are here to help you.”I think middle school is 47.______ and fun. I will study hard and 48.______ my best. I believe my new school life will be 49.______. 50.______, I’m ready to grow!
A. new B. old　　 C. easy　　 D. boring
A. happy　　 B. nervous　 C. excited　 D. busy
A. worry　　 B. laugh　　 C. cry　　 D. run
A. ride　　 B. drive　　 C. fly　　 D. throw
A. plans　　 B. mistakes　 C. friends　　 D. cards
A. make　　 B. correct　 C. forget　　 D. hide
A. music　　 B. art　　 C. reading　　 D. sports
A. lost　　 B. made　　 C. taught　　 D. helped
A. together　　 B. alone　　 C. early　　 D. late
A. tired　　 B. glad　　 C. sad　　 D. shy
A. answer　　 B. ask　　 C. find　　 D. choose
A. difficult　　 B. interesting　 C. terrible　　 D. dangerous
A. try　　 B. stop　　 C. wait　　 D. want
A. short　　 B. great　　 C. small　　 D. bad
A. Anyway　　 B. However　 C. Luckily　　 D. Finally
第二节：词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
A. 从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空。每词限用一次。
The new student feels ______ nervous on the first day of school.
My sister likes ______ the piano in the music room.
We are good friends, so we often help each ______.
I want ______ with my new classmates after class.
Wang Yu is from ______, and he is good at Chinese.
B. 根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。
I’d like to ______（介绍）my friend to you.
Don’t be ______（紧张的）. You can do it well.
My hobby is singing. I want to join the music ______（社团）.
The teaching building has five ______（楼层）.
We work ______（一起）to clean our classroom.
Are you ______（准备好的）for the new term
We have ______（历史）on Monday and Thursday.
Don’t ______（忘记）to take your schoolbag.
I have many ______（爱好）, like drawing and swimming.
My brother likes ______（唱歌）, and he sings very well.
第三节：语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Autumn is a season of harvest（收获）. Qiufen（秋分）marks the middle of autumn.
In China, the Farmers’ Harvest Festival（农民丰收节）comes around this time. 66.______ (farm) are very happy. They celebrate（庆祝）the harvest 67.______ their families.
Around the festival, people do many things. 68.______ (they) pick fruits, cut rice and share（分享）the joy. Children help 69.______ the fields. They learn to work 70.______ (hard) than before.
“A harvest means joy,” a farmer says. “The festival 71.______ (thank) the land and the farmers.”
Now more and 72.______ people join the celebration. The festival is 73.______ good time to enjoy（享受）the fruits of our work. It also 74.______ (tell) us: hard work brings a happy life. Let’s 75.______ (remember) the joy of harvest!
第四部分　书面表达（共一节，满分20分）
假设你是七年级学生Zhang Yang，刚进入一所新初中。请根据表格内容，给你的新朋友写一封邮件，介绍你的新学校和新生活。
学校的基本情况：Big and beautiful, a library, a playground, many trees
班级和老师：Class 3, Grade 7, kind teachers
爱好与社团：Drawing, the art club
对新学校生活的感受：Happy, excited
要求：1. 词数50左右；2. 条理清晰，语句通顺；3. 邮件开头已给出，不计入总词数。
参考答案
第一部分 听力
第一节：1. A　　2. C　　3. B　　4. B　　5. B
第二节：6. B　　7. A　　8. A　　9. C　　10. B
第三节：11. A　　12. B　　13. A　　14. A　　15. C
第二部分 阅读理解
第一节：16. B　　17. B　　18. A　　19. C　　20. A　　21. A　　22. B　　23. B　　24. A　　25. A　　26. A　　27. B　　28. A　　29. A　　30. B
第二节（任务型阅读）：31. A　　32. D　　33. B　　34. E　　35. C
第三部分 英语知识运用
第一节 完形填空：36. A　　37. B　　38. A　　39. A　　40. B　　41. B　　42. C　　43. B　　44. A　　45. B　　46. B　　47. B　　48. A　　49. B　　50. D
第二节 词汇运用：
A. 51. a bit　　52. playing　　53. other　　54. to make friends　　55. China
B. 56. introduce　　57. nervous　　58. club　　59. floors　　60. together　　61. ready　　62. history　　63. forget　　64. hobbies　　65. singing
第三节 语法填空：66. Farmers　　67. with　　68. They　　69. in　　70. harder　　71. thanks　　72. more　　73. a　　74. tells　　75. remember
说明：语法填空第67、69、72、73空为盲填，只要形式正确即给分。
第四部分 书面表达（满分20分）
范文
Dear friend,
I am writing to tell you about my new school life. My new school is big and beautiful. There is a library, a playground and many trees. I am in Class Three, Grade Seven. My teachers are kind and my classmates are friendly. My hobby is drawing, so I join the art club. After class, I draw pictures with my friends. I feel very happy and excited here.
Yours,
Zhang Yang
附1：听力文本（录音稿）
第一节（每段对话读一遍）：
1. M: Hello! What’s your name 　　W: My name is Amy.
2. W: How old are you, Tom 　　M: I’m twelve years old.
3. M: Where do you often go after class, Lingling 　W: I like the playground. I play basketball there.
4. W: How do you feel on your first day at school 　　M: A little nervous. It’s a big day for me.
5. M: How many books are there on the desk 　　W: There are three.
第二节（每段对话读两遍）：
Dialogue 1:
W: Hi, Mike. Welcome to our school!
M: Thank you. It’s very beautiful. There are many trees and flowers.
W: Yes. How many buildings are there
M: Two. A teaching building and a library.
W: Where do you have lunch
M: In the dining hall. The food is good.
Dialogue 2:
M: Hi, Sarah. What do you do after school
W: I like drawing pictures. I’m in the art club.
M: Do you like sports
W: Yes. I play tennis with my friends.
M: Can you play the piano
W: No, I can’t. But I can sing.
第三节（独白读两遍）：
Hello, everyone! My name is Wang Dong. I’m in Class Five, Grade Seven. This is my first day at No.1 Junior High School. Our school is big and clean. There are four buildings and a big playground. My favourite subject is English because it is interesting. After school, I like playing basketball with my friends. I want to join the sports club. I’m very happy to be a student here.
附2：双向细目表
大题 题型 题量 分值 考查内容（能力层级）
第一部分 第一节 短对话 5 5 获取具体信息：姓名、年龄、地点、感受、数量（理解）
第一部分 第二节 长对话 5 7.5 获取具体信息：对学校的看法、建筑物数量、社团、运动、能力（理解）
第一部分 第三节 独白 5 7.5 获取与转述具体信息：班级、建筑物、学科、爱好、社团（理解）
第二部分 第一节 阅读理解A 陈妤颉亚运报道 4 8 细节理解、词义猜测、推理判断（理解／应用）
第二部分 第一节 阅读理解B 足球打开心门 4 8 细节理解、词义猜测、代词指代、推理判断（理解／应用）
第二部分 第一节 阅读理解C 校园义卖献爱心 4 8 细节理解、词义猜测、主旨概括（理解／应用）
第二部分 第一节 阅读理解D 科学课进校园 3 6 细节理解、推理判断（理解／应用）
第二部分 第二节 任务型阅读（七选五） 5 10 篇章结构与逻辑衔接（应用）
第三部分 第一节 完形填空 15 15 语篇理解、词汇与短语辨析、上下文逻辑推断（理解／应用）
第三部分 第二节 词汇运用 15 15 重点词汇识记与运用（识记、运用）
第三部分 第三节 语法填空 10 10 语篇中的语法运用：名词、代词、介词、比较级、动词时态、冠词（理解／应用）
第四部分 书面表达 1 20 新学校生活介绍：内容完整、语言准确、行文连贯（综合）
合计 — 76 120 难度配比：基础约60%，中档约30%，拔高约10%

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