资源简介

会宁县第四中学2023-2024学年高一下学期4月月考
英语试卷
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the woman ask the man to do
A. Have some coffee. B. Meet her friends. C. Go to the office.
2. What does the woman think of the play
A. Terrible. B. Amazing. C. Boring.
3. Where is Tom probably according to the woman
A. In his office. B. In the gym. C. At home.
4. What is the woman doing
A. Learning to drive. B. Listening to music. C. Getting her car repaired.
5. Why is the woman unwilling to dance
A. Her feet hurt. B. She is bad at dancing. C. She dislikes dancing in public.
第二节（共15 小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话， 回答以下小题。
6. How long does the woman want to spend in Nevada
A. One week. B. Two weeks. C. Three weeks.
7. What does the woman want to do in Nevada
A. Go fishing. B. Go camping C. Rest at the beach.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
8. What is the man going to buy for his mother
A. Some notebooks. B. Some pencils. C. A comb.
9. What does the man look like
A. He is fat. B. He has no hair. C. He is taller than his father.
10. What is the woman
A. A teacher. B. A doctor. C. A hairdresser.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
11. What was wrong with the woman
A. She injured her leg. B. She hurt her back. C. She had shoulder pain.
12. What will the man probably do next
A. Talk to his golf teacher. B. See a doctor. C. Play golf with the woman.
13. What's the relationship between the speakers
A. Teacher and student. B. Friends. C. Doctor and patient.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
14. Who is a bathroom worker
A. Dana. B. Sam. C. David.
15. What can we say about the man speaker
A. He was rude. B. He was strange. C. He was new in the building.
16. How much will Sam probably tip next time
A. About one dollar. B. About two dollars. C. About ten dollars.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。
17· What is the speaker talking about
A. A village. B. A game. C. A house.
18. How many people live in Hilden
A. About 25. B. Around 200 C. Over 300.
19. What can we know about the restaurant
A. It is the highest building. B. It is newly built. C. It has a long history.
20. What is special about the people in Hilden
A. They are tall. B. They are humorous. C. They are NBA players.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Here are four amazing online photography (摄影) classes to improve your photos.
Mastering Lightroom & Photoshop (By Andrew Kerns)
Every professional photographer uses post-processing (后期处理) skills to make their images stand out. In fact, editing and post-processing your images is a major part of the photography work. Luckily, Andrew Kerns has put together an amazing online class to help you learn the latest professional Adobe Lightroom and Photoshop skills.
Wildlife Photography Workshop (By Charly Savely)
Professional wildlife photographer, Charly Savely, has recently decided to share her secrets with the world through her online Wildlife Photography Workshop recorded in Alaska’s Katmai National Park. Learn how she chooses camera settings using art to influence your style, where to find wildlife and how to photograph animals safely in the wild.
A to Z of Selling Your Photos (By Lola Akinmade)
Lola Akinmade is an excellent travel photographer whose works are regularly published by brands(品牌)like The New York Times and Travel & Leisure. She has also put together an excellent online photography class that goes into detail about how to make your photos be brands including getting close to brands, how to deal with copyrights, working with editors, getting model shows and much more.
Photographing the World (By Elia Locardi)
Elia Locardi is a very successful landscape photographer who’s been travelling the world for years. His course Photographing the World is full of tips and post-processing skills he uses to create his landscape and travel photography. With 15 lessons and more than 12 hours of video content, his photography class takes you from the on-location capture (外景拍摄) all the way through his post-processing skills in the studio.
1. Who should you turn to if you want to learn to photograph wild animals
A. Andrew Kerns. B. Charly Savely. C. Lola Akinmade. D. Elia Locardi.
2. Which course offers tips on making your photography works a brand
A. Mastering Lightroom Photoshop. B. Wildlife Photography Workshop.
C. A to Z of Selling Your Photos. D. Photographing the World.
3. What do Andrew Kerns’s and Elia Locardi’s courses have in common
A. They include post-processing skills.
B. They focus on photographing wild animals.
C. They provide skills of on-location capture.
D. They teach how to work with big brands.
B
Danielle Hatherley Carroll is an artist. She shares her talent with others, taking groups on field trips around various locations in New York City, setting up easels (画架) and drawing the beauty of the city.
When Danielle returned home one night from Battery Park in New York City, she didn’t realize that she had lost her wedding ring somewhere along the day’s painting journey until early next morning. Then, at 6:00 in the morning, her husband and she went out to search for it.
The last place she remembered the ring on her finger was in Battery Park. By the time they got there, all the garbage cans had already been emptied. Desperately, Danielle wrote a note and put it on the windshield (挡风玻璃) of a nearby rubbish truck, hoping that someone might be of help. “Help,” the note read. “I believe my wedding ring might be in this truck.”
Battery Park’s employee Gary Gaddist discovered the note when he started his work in the morning. He turned to the management office with the note. Later he gave Danielle a call and explained the whole story, “I had to go to the management office of Battery Park, and when I got there I showed the guys the note. They told me if I wanted to look for a needle (针) in a haystack (干草堆), go ahead.” However, after that, Gary began to do what he thought was worth doing.
In New York City, tons of garbage is moved every day in various directions. Gary was looking for a clear plastic garbage bag among hundreds of piled-up bags, containing an artist’s a day’s waste. He was sure to complete the task.
At 10:00 that morning, Gary called Danielle again with the good news. When asked why he would take the extra time to help out a stranger, Gary simply said, “I could tell you and your husband love each other. That’s what I desire to gain. I’m glad to help you.”
4. What did Danielle notice early next morning
A. Her husband didn’t return. B. Her wedding ring was missing.
C. Her husband had bought a truck. D. Her home was filled with garbage.
5. What did the management officers mean by what they said to Gary
A. It was hopeless to find the ring. B. The ring was thrown into a haystack.
C. They had found the ring in the haystack. D. Gary should find the needle first.
6. What made Gary offer to help Danielle
A His desire to be famous. B. His plan to get a reward.
C. His interest in finding out the truth. D. His admiration for the couple’s love.
7 Which word can best describe Gary
A. Kind-hearted. B. Curious. C. Creative. D. Courageous.
C
Artificial intelligence (AI) plays an important role in the Asian Games Hangzhou 2022 and Asian Para Games. These terms might sound familiar, but how smart are they when applied to the 56 Asian Games venues (场地)
Their smartness can be found in running the venues with less human labor forces. At the Huanglong Sports Center, a system called Smart Stadium Brain is built. A 25 square meter high definition screen lays in the venue’s information center, which guarantees a friendly environment for the athletes and audiences. A small screen on each seat is designed to be at the audience’s service. By finger touching, the audience can control it conveniently to watch and keep contact with the event. What’s more, supported by the 5G technology.
AI also means further protection on environment. At the Fuyang sports Center, although it has been raining for days, the roof of the venue still remains dry. And the secret lies in its attractive sky garden. The garden, is not only eye-catching but also useful. It allows the greening rate of the entire stadium to reach as high as 45%, being energy-saving. Under the cobblestones (鹅卵石), a recovery system is filtering (过滤) and collecting rainwater for the venue’s water system, and irrigation water.
8. Which of the following can replace the underlined word “guarantee” in Para2
A. Adapt to. B. Take advantage of. C. Get used to. D. Make sure of.
9. What can we learn from Para 2
A. Small screen must be supported by the 5 G technology.
B. The audience can control small screens on their seats easily.
C. The stadium is environmentally friendly and advanced but costly.
D. Their smartness of AI will replace workers
10. How does the roof of the venue keep dry while it’s raining
A. By saving energy. B. By recycling the rainwater.
C. By collecting rainwater system of the sky garden. D. By improving the greening rate.
11. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. More Connections with Smart Devices. B. A Sports Center with Smart Stadium Brain.
C. Asian Games with Artificial Intelligence. D. Smart Asian Games with High-tech Venues.
D
While video games used to be considered harmful to young people, various studies have also proved the positive effects of computer games, especially action video games.
Angela Pasqualotto from the University of Trento and her team have now tested whether such video games can help primary school children learn to read. They’ve developed such a computer game called Skies of Manawak.
“Reading involves many important skills, including knowing how to move our eyes on the page or how to use our working memory to connect words into a meaningful sentence,” explains Pasqualotto. “It’s known that action video games improve these still, such as vision, general attention, working memory and cognitive (认知的) flexibility.”
For their study, the researchers tested 150 school children between the ages of eight and twelve. Half of them played the game Skies of Manawak two hours a week for six weeks. The other half, the control group, received the educational game Scratch, which is intended to teach children the basics of programming. Both games are basically to train the executive (执行的) functions of the brain.
“We started by examining the children’s ability to read words, non-words and paragraphs and their attention control,” explains Pasqualotto. “After six weeks, these skills were tested again.”
“We found a seven-fold improvement in attention control in the children who played our action video game compared to the control group,” said Pasqualotto. The team also saw significant improvements in reading speed and accuracy among Skies of Manawak players—there were no improvements in the kids who played Scratch. It’s also worth mentioning that the children’s reading skills have improved, although the game itself doesn’t contain any reading exercises.
“For the study, we also carried out three further evaluation tests six, twelve and eighteen months after the training. Each time, the trained children performed better than the control group,” adds Pasqualotto.
Of course, while the study suggests some benefit in action video games, it does not mean that one must do nothing else.
12. What did the 150 school children do in the study
A. They received training on programming. B. They finished some reading ability tests.
C. They created video games on their own. D. They played games with reading exercises.
13. What does the further evaluation suggest about Skies of Manawak
A. Its influence on reading skills is not temporary. B. The study results about it seem to be untrustworthy.
C. Reading ability can’t be improved with its assistance. D. Kids need consistent reading training after playing it.
14. What is the author’s opinion on action video games
A. They have nothing to do with reading. B. People shouldn’t get addicted to them.
C. School kids are supposed to avoid them. D. They should be replaced with Scratch.
15. Which of the following can serve as the best title for the text
A. Video Games Prove Harmless to Young People at School
B. Time for Children to Play Video Games Should Be Limited
C. Children Easily Fall in Love With Reading in a Video Game
D. Playing Action Video Games Improves Kids’ Reading Skills
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有项为多余选项。
Ways to Sleep Smarter
Studies show that poor sleep influences people to make good decisions, focus on work and even manage a friendly mood at work. ____16____. Today we’ve got four top favorite sleep tips and facts.
Set a regular bedtime
____17____ Choose a time when you normally feel tired. Try not to break this routine on weekends when you will probably stay up late. If you want to change your bedtime, make the change gradually, such as 15 minutes earlier or later each day.
Eat the right food.
Some foods are more helpful to a better night’s sleep than others. ____18____ Others like bananas, potatoes, and whole-wheat bread are also helpful.
____19____
Exercising provides lots of good health benefits. A good night’s sleep is one of them. But make sure you exercise in the morning or afternoon. The National Sleep Foundation reports that exercise in the morning or afternoon can help deepen sleep and cut the time it takes for you to fall into sleep. However, those who worked out in the evening hours saw little or no improvement in their sleep.
Reduce (减少) screen time before bed
____20____A recent study shows that people who use electronic media just before bedtime report lower-quality sleep even when they get as much sleep as those who don’t.
A. Avoid the alarm clock
B. Exercise to improve sleep
C. Try to solve problems in your sleep
D Go to bed at the same time every night
E. There are lots of ways to better your sleep
F Everybody knows that warm milk helps people sleep better
G. Stop watching TV just before bedtime and you’ll sleep better
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题， 每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
It surprised me — every time I saw Joe, he was smiling. It didn't ____21____ whether he had to stop at a stop light, or if he were the seventh person in ____22____ at the bank, and the service stopped just before he got there. Joe always smiled. It made me wonder why he seemed so ____23____ every day.
Having observed Joe with other people, I ____24____ something else also. Joe asked people how they were doing, and really seemed to listen to their ____25____ . If someone were hurting, he had ____26____ for him and kind words, and offered to ____27____ in any way he could.
It made me think. What if I tried to smile more A(n)____28____ of sorts began when I went to the grocery store. I smiled as I went up and down the aisles, and people I didn't even ____29____ smiled back at me. Some even _____30_____!The little kid in the cart (购物车) who was giving his mother a _____31_____ time saw me smile and _____32_____ talking, and, you guessed it — he made a shy little attempt at a smile.
As I drove home, I was smiling. I_____33_____ what I had just learned, and when someone passed me and gave me a(n)_____34_____ , I smiled at him.
Now I know a smile is a small thing, but what if we were all to try to smile a few more times each day Nothing in my life had changed, but maybe it had. What I had learned was that such a small thing could _____35_____ not only my spirits, but also the spirits of those around me. So smile!
21.
A. work B. matter C. happen D. last
22.
A. line B. debt C. hand D. order
23.
A. naughty B. humorous C. happy D. active
24.
A. considered B. judged C. noticed D. decided
25.
A. answers B. comments C. excuses D. complaints
26.
A. sympathy B. protection C. guidance D. respect
27.
A. perform B. attempt C. help D. bother.
28.
A. life B. experiment C. project D. programme
29.
A. meet B. touch C. know D. contact
30.
A. greeted B. escaped C. approached D. glared
31.
A. spare B. long C. hard D. great
32.
A. stopped B. enjoyed C. kept D. tried
33.
A. worried about B. thought about C. talked over D. looked over
34.
A. address B. gesture C. call D. ticket
35.
A. realize B. lift C. show D. admire
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
When she was just three years old, Alyssa Carson from the USA took an interest ____36____ the planet Mars. From that time on, her lifelong passion for and ____37____ (curious) about space began! Then, Alyssa ____38____ (start) to do all the things related to space!
Alyssa’s goal is to help others understand the potential for human life in outer space. She also wants to be one of the first humans ____39____ (walk) on the planet Mars. She even imagines ____40____ (live) on Mars! And while doing so, Alyssa wants to inspire lots of other kids to learn more about space and science.
She is studying astrobiology (天体生物学) at the Florida Institute of Technology. It is the only program in the USA ____41____ (focus) on the potential for life on other planets. Whether you want to study the effects of space travel on humans, discover past or present life on Mars,____42____ help develop ____43____ (way) to sustain (维持) life on the moon, you will be prepared at the Florida Institute of Technology.
Alyssa is a(n)____44____ (impress) example of a young person _____45_____ focuses on her passion and becomes the best version of herself. Her example also inspires other kids to do the same.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （满分15分）
46. 假定你是李华，擅长体育运动，最近收到朋友 Jane 的来信,她在信中说自己苦恼于身体不够强壮。
1. 鼓励Jane参加跑步俱乐部。
2. 阐明跑步对于健身的积极作用。
3.分享一些科学跑步的建议。
注意：
1. 词数 80 左右，可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
2. 信的开头已为你写好，不计入总词数。
Dear Jane,
I am really sorry to hear that you are worrying about your weak body.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours truly,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The science teacher, Mr. Moose, decided that the school would have a paper airplane contest (比赛). Each student would design a paper airplane. And then they would take turns throwing their airplanes. The student whose airplane flew the farthest would win.
When Mr. Moose announced the paper airplane contest, all the students were very excited. Paul, who was on the wrestling (摔跤) team, said to other students. “I am the strongest. And I will be able to throw my airplane the farthest.”
However, another student, Brian, was thinking how he could win. He did not play any sports and was not very strong. But he loved airplanes and really wanted to win the contest.
Brian knew what he had to do. He went to the store and bought a big pile of paper. When he got home, he took the paper into the backyard. He took a piece of paper and folded (折叠) an airplane. It didn’t go very far, so Brian took another piece and folded another airplane and threw it. This airplane went a little farther. Brian kept folding different kinds of airplanes and throwing them. Some went very far and some did not. Finally, when Brian had used all the paper, he walked up to the airplane that had flown the farthest and picked it up.
注意：1．续写词数应为150左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The contest day arrived in the end and all the students gathered on the playground.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Excitedly, Brian got the prize from Mr. Moose’s hand and all the students clapped their hands for him.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________会宁县第四中学2023-2024学年高一下学期4月月考
英语试卷
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the woman ask the man to do
A. Have some coffee. B. Meet her friends. C. Go to the office.
2. What does the woman think of the play
A. Terrible. B. Amazing. C. Boring.
3. Where is Tom probably according to the woman
A. In his office. B. In the gym. C. At home.
4. What is the woman doing
A. Learning to drive. B. Listening to music. C. Getting her car repaired.
5. Why is the woman unwilling to dance
A. Her feet hurt. B. She is bad at dancing. C. She dislikes dancing in public.
第二节（共15 小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话， 回答以下小题。
6. How long does the woman want to spend in Nevada
A. One week. B. Two weeks. C. Three weeks.
7. What does the woman want to do in Nevada
A. Go fishing. B. Go camping C. Rest at the beach.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
8. What is the man going to buy for his mother
A. Some notebooks. B. Some pencils. C. A comb.
9. What does the man look like
A. He is fat. B. He has no hair. C. He is taller than his father.
10 What is the woman
A. A teacher. B. A doctor. C. A hairdresser.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
11 What was wrong with the woman
A. She injured her leg. B. She hurt her back. C. She had shoulder pain.
12. What will the man probably do next
A. Talk to his golf teacher. B. See a doctor. C. Play golf with the woman.
13. What's the relationship between the speakers
A Teacher and student. B. Friends. C. Doctor and patient.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
14. Who is a bathroom worker
A. Dana. B. Sam. C. David.
15. What can we say about the man speaker
A. He was rude. B. He was strange. C. He was new in the building.
16. How much will Sam probably tip next time
A. About one dollar. B. About two dollars. C. About ten dollars.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。
17· What is the speaker talking about
A. A village. B. A game. C. A house.
18. How many people live in Hilden
A. About 25. B. Around 200 C. Over 300.
19. What can we know about the restaurant
A. It is the highest building. B. It is newly built. C. It has a long history.
20. What is special about the people in Hilden
A. They are tall. B. They are humorous. C. They are NBA players.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Here are four amazing online photography (摄影) classes to improve your photos.
Mastering Lightroom & Photoshop (By Andrew Kerns)
Every professional photographer uses post-processing (后期处理) skills to make their images stand out. In fact, editing and post-processing your images is a major part of the photography work. Luckily, Andrew Kerns has put together an amazing online class to help you learn the latest professional Adobe Lightroom and Photoshop skills.
Wildlife Photography Workshop (By Charly Savely)
Professional wildlife photographer, Charly Savely, has recently decided to share her secrets with the world through her online Wildlife Photography Workshop recorded in Alaska’s Katmai National Park. Learn how she chooses camera settings using art to influence your style, where to find wildlife and how to photograph animals safely in the wild.
A to Z of Selling Your Photos (By Lola Akinmade)
Lola Akinmade is an excellent travel photographer whose works are regularly published by brands(品牌)like The New York Times and Travel & Leisure. She has also put together an excellent online photography class that goes into detail about how to make your photos be brands, including getting close to brands, how to deal with copyrights, working with editors, getting model shows and much more.
Photographing the World (By Elia Locardi)
Elia Locardi is a very successful landscape photographer who’s been travelling the world for years. His course Photographing the World is full of tips and post-processing skills he uses to create his landscape and travel photography. With 15 lessons and more than 12 hours of video content, his photography class takes you from the on-location capture (外景拍摄) all the way through his post-processing skills in the studio.
1. Who should you turn to if you want to learn to photograph wild animals
A. Andrew Kerns. B. Charly Savely. C. Lola Akinmade. D. Elia Locardi.
2. Which course offers tips on making your photography works a brand
A. Mastering Lightroom Photoshop. B. Wildlife Photography Workshop.
C. A to Z of Selling Your Photos. D. Photographing the World.
3. What do Andrew Kerns’s and Elia Locardi’s courses have in common
A. They include post-processing skills.
B. They focus on photographing wild animals.
C. They provide skills of on-location capture.
D. They teach how to work with big brands.
【答案】1. B 2. C 3. A
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇应用文。文章介绍了4个在线摄影课程。
【1题详解】
细节理解题。根据Wildlife Photography Workshop (By Charly Savely)部分“Professional wildlife photographer, Charly Savely, has recently decided to share her secrets with the world through her online Wildlife Photography Workshop recorded in Alaska’s Katmai National Park.(专业野生动物摄影师查理·萨夫利最近决定通过她在阿拉斯加卡特迈国家公园录制的在线野生动物摄影工作室与世界分享她的秘密)”可知，如果想学习拍摄野生动物你应该向Charly Savely学习。故选B项。
【2题详解】
细节理解题。根据A to Z of Selling Your Photos (By Lola Akinmade)部分“She has also put together an excellent online photography class that goes into detail about how to make your photos be brands, ... (她还组织了一个优秀的在线摄影课程，详细介绍了如何让你的照片成为品牌)”可知，A to Z of Selling Your Photos 课程提供了如何将你的摄影作品变成为一个品牌的建议。故选C项。
【3题详解】
细节理解题。根据Mastering Lightroom & Photoshop (By Andrew Kerns)部分“Every professional photographer uses post-processing (后期处理) skills to make their images standout. (每个专业摄影师都会使用后期处理技巧来让他们的照片脱颖而出)”和Photographing the World (By Elia Locardi)部分“...his photography class takes you from the on-location capture (外景拍摄) all the way through his post-processing skills in the studio. (他的摄影课将带您从现场捕捉一直到他在工作室的后期处理技能)”可知，Andrew Kerns和Elia Locardi的课程的共同之处是都包括后期处理技能。故选A项。
B
Danielle Hatherley Carroll is an artist. She shares her talent with others, taking groups on field trips around various locations in New York City, setting up easels (画架) and drawing the beauty of the city.
When Danielle returned home one night from Battery Park in New York City, she didn’t realize that she had lost her wedding ring somewhere along the day’s painting journey until early next morning. Then, at 6:00 in the morning, her husband and she went out to search for it.
The last place she remembered the ring on her finger was in Battery Park. By the time they got there, all the garbage cans had already been emptied. Desperately, Danielle wrote a note and put it on the windshield (挡风玻璃) of a nearby rubbish truck, hoping that someone might be of help. “Help,” the note read. “I believe my wedding ring might be in this truck.”
Battery Park’s employee Gary Gaddist discovered the note when he started his work in the morning. He turned to the management office with the note. Later he gave Danielle a call and explained the whole story, “I had to go to the management office of Battery Park, and when I got there I showed the guys the note. They told me if I wanted to look for a needle (针) in a haystack (干草堆), go ahead.” However, after that, Gary began to do what he thought was worth doing.
In New York City, tons of garbage is moved every day in various directions. Gary was looking for a clear plastic garbage bag among hundreds of piled-up bags, containing an artist’s a day’s waste. He was sure to complete the task.
At 10:00 that morning, Gary called Danielle again with the good news. When asked why he would take the extra time to help out a stranger, Gary simply said, “I could tell you and your husband love each other. That’s what I desire to gain. I’m glad to help you.”
4. What did Danielle notice early next morning
A. Her husband didn’t return. B. Her wedding ring was missing.
C. Her husband had bought a truck. D. Her home was filled with garbage.
5. What did the management officers mean by what they said to Gary
A. It was hopeless to find the ring. B. The ring was thrown into a haystack.
C. They had found the ring in the haystack. D. Gary should find the needle first.
6. What made Gary offer to help Danielle
A. His desire to be famous. B. His plan to get a reward.
C. His interest in finding out the truth. D. His admiration for the couple’s love.
7. Which word can best describe Gary
A. Kind-hearted. B. Curious. C. Creative. D. Courageous.
【答案】4. B 5. A 6. D 7. A
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了画家丹妮尔在一次野外写生中丢失了结婚戒指，炮台公园的员工加里不嫌麻烦，翻遍了数百个垃圾袋，最终帮助丹妮尔寻回戒指。
【4题详解】
细节理解题。根据第二段中“she didn’t realize that she had lost her wedding ring somewhere along the day’s painting journey until early next morning.(直到第二天清晨，她才意识到自己在绘画的路上把结婚戒指丢在了什么地方)”可知，丹妮尔第二天清晨发现她的结婚戒指不见了。故选B项。
【5题详解】
推理判断题。第四段中加里转述公园管理人员的话“They told me if I wanted to look for a needle (针) in a haystack (干草堆), go ahead.(他们告诉我，如果我想大海捞针，那就去找吧)”可推知，公园管理人员的意思是：要找到戒指相当于大海捞针，毫无希望。故选A项。
【6题详解】
推理判断题。根据最后一段中“When asked why he would take the extra time to help out a stranger, Gary simply said, ‘I could tell you and your husband love each other. Tha’s what I desire to gain. I’m glad to help you.’(当被问及为什么他会花额外的时间帮助一个陌生人时，加里只是说：“我可以告诉你，你和你的丈夫彼此相爱。这就是我想要得到的。我很高兴帮助你。”)”可推知，加里羡慕这对夫妇的爱情，所以决定帮助丹妮尔。故选D项。
【7题详解】
推理判断题。通读全文，结合第四段中“However, after that, Gary began to do what he thought was worth doing.(然而，在那之后，加里开始做他认为值得做的事情)”和第五段中“In New York City, tons of garbage is moved every day in various directions. Gary was looking for a clear plastic garbage bag among hundreds of piled-up bags, containing an artist’s a day’s waste.(在纽约市，每天都有成吨的垃圾被运往各个方向。加里在数百个堆积起来的袋子中寻找一个透明的塑料垃圾袋，里面装着艺术家一天的垃圾)”可知，加里不怕麻烦帮助一个陌生画家寻找丢失的结婚戒指。由此推知，他是一个心地善良的人。故选A项。
C
Artificial intelligence (AI) plays an important role in the Asian Games Hangzhou 2022 and Asian Para Games. These terms might sound familiar, but how smart are they when applied to the 56 Asian Games venues (场地)
Their smartness can be found in running the venues with less human labor forces. At the Huanglong Sports Center, a system called Smart Stadium Brain is built. A 25 square meter high definition screen lays in the venue’s information center, which guarantees a friendly environment for the athletes and audiences. A small screen on each seat is designed to be at the audience’s service. By finger touching, the audience can control it conveniently to watch and keep contact with the event. What’s more, supported by the 5G technology.
AI also means further protection on environment. At the Fuyang sports Center, although it has been raining for days, the roof of the venue still remains dry. And the secret lies in its attractive sky garden. The garden, is not only eye-catching but also useful. It allows the greening rate of the entire stadium to reach as high as 45%, being energy-saving. Under the cobblestones (鹅卵石), a recovery system is filtering (过滤) and collecting rainwater for the venue’s water system, and irrigation water.
8. Which of the following can replace the underlined word “guarantee” in Para2
A. Adapt to. B. Take advantage of. C. Get used to. D. Make sure of.
9. What can we learn from Para 2
A. Small screen must be supported by the 5 G technology.
B. The audience can control small screens on their seats easily.
C. The stadium is environmentally friendly and advanced but costly.
D. Their smartness of AI will replace workers
10. How does the roof of the venue keep dry while it’s raining
A. By saving energy. B. By recycling the rainwater.
C. By collecting rainwater system of the sky garden. D. By improving the greening rate.
11. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. More Connections with Smart Devices. B. A Sports Center with Smart Stadium Brain.
C. Asian Games with Artificial Intelligence. D. Smart Asian Games with High-tech Venues.
【答案】8. D 9. B 10. C 11. D
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了人工智能在2022年杭州亚运会和亚洲残运会中发挥着重要作用。
【8题详解】
词句猜测题。根据划线单词上一句“A 25 square meter high definition screen lays in the venue’s information center (场馆信息中心设置了25平方米的高清屏幕)”以及下一句“A small screen on each seat is designed to be at the audience’s service. By finger touching, the audience can control it conveniently to watch and keep contact with the event. What’s more, supported by the 5G technology. (每个座位上都有一个小屏幕，为观众服务。通过手指触摸，观众可以方便地控制它，观看并与事件保持联系。更重要的是，支持5G技术)”可知，高清屏幕，为运动员和观众保证了一个友好的环境。故选D。
【9题详解】
细节理解题。根据第二段“A small screen on each seat is designed to be at the audience’s service. By finger touching, the audience can control it conveniently to watch and keep contact with the event. What’s more, supported by the 5G technology.(每个座位上都有一个小屏幕，为观众服务。通过手指触摸，观众可以方便地控制它，观看并与事件保持联系。更重要的是，支持5G技术)”可知，观众的座位上有个小屏幕，观众可以通过手指触摸方便地控制它。故选B。
【10题详解】
细节理解题。根据最后一段“AI also means further protection on environment. At the Fuyang sports Center, although it has been raining for days, the roof of the venue still remains dry. And the secret lies in its attractive sky garden. The garden, is not only eye-catching but also useful. It allows the greening rate of the entire stadium to reach as high as 45%, being energy-saving. Under the cobblestones(鹅卵石),a recovery system is filtering(过滤) and collecting rainwater for the venue’s water system, and irrigation water.(在阜阳体育中心，虽然已经下了好几天的雨，但场馆的屋顶仍然干燥。秘密就在于它迷人的空中花园。这个花园，不仅醒目而且实用。使整个体育场的绿化率高达45%，节能。在鹅卵石下面，一个回收系统正在过滤和收集雨水，用于场地的供水系统和灌溉用水)”可知，下雨时场馆的屋顶之所以能够保持干燥，是因为屋顶有个空中花园，花园中鹅卵石下面一个回收系统正在过滤和收集雨水。故选C。
【11题详解】
主旨大意题。根据第一段“Artificial intelligence (AI) plays an important role in the Asian Games Hangzhou 2022 and Asian Para Games. These terms might sound familiar, but how smart are they when applied to the 56 Asian Games venues (场地) (人工智能（AI）在2022年杭州亚运会和亚洲残运会中发挥着重要作用。这些术语听起来可能很熟悉，但将它们应用到56个亚运会场馆中又有多智能呢)”以及全文内容可知，文章主要介绍了人工智能在2022年杭州亚运会和亚洲残运会中发挥着重要作用。D选项“高科技场馆的智能亚运会”符合文章标题。故选D。
D
While video games used to be considered harmful to young people, various studies have also proved the positive effects of computer games, especially action video games.
Angela Pasqualotto from the University of Trento and her team have now tested whether such video games can help primary school children learn to read. They’ve developed such a computer game called Skies of Manawak.
“Reading involves many important skills, including knowing how to move our eyes on the page or how to use our working memory to connect words into a meaningful sentence,” explains Pasqualotto. “It’s known that action video games improve these still, such as vision, general attention, working memory and cognitive (认知的) flexibility.”
For their study, the researchers tested 150 school children between the ages of eight and twelve. Half of them played the game Skies of Manawak two hours a week for six weeks. The other half, the control group, received the educational game Scratch, which is intended to teach children the basics of programming. Both games are basically to train the executive (执行的) functions of the brain.
“We started by examining the children’s ability to read words, non-words and paragraphs and their attention control,” explains Pasqualotto. “After six weeks, these skills were tested again.”
“We found a seven-fold improvement in attention control in the children who played our action video game compared to the control group,” said Pasqualotto. The team also saw significant improvements in reading speed and accuracy among Skies of Manawak players—there were no improvements in the kids who played Scratch. It’s also worth mentioning that the children’s reading skills have improved, although the game itself doesn’t contain any reading exercises.
“For the study, we also carried out three further evaluation tests six, twelve and eighteen months after the training. Each time, the trained children performed better than the control group,” adds Pasqualotto.
Of course, while the study suggests some benefit in action video games, it does not mean that one must do nothing else.
12. What did the 150 school children do in the study
A. They received training on programming. B. They finished some reading ability tests.
C. They created video games on their own. D. They played games with reading exercises.
13. What does the further evaluation suggest about Skies of Manawak
A. Its influence on reading skills is not temporary. B. The study results about it seem to be untrustworthy.
C. Reading ability can’t be improved with its assistance. D. Kids need consistent reading training after playing it.
14. What is the author’s opinion on action video games
A. They have nothing to do with reading. B. People shouldn’t get addicted to them.
C. School kids are supposed to avoid them. D. They should be replaced with Scratch.
15. Which of the following can serve as the best title for the text
A. Video Games Prove Harmless to Young People at School
B. Time for Children to Play Video Games Should Be Limited
C. Children Easily Fall in Love With Reading in a Video Game
D. Playing Action Video Games Improves Kids’ Reading Skills
【答案】12. B 13. A 14. B 15. D
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。电子游戏通常被认为是有害的，然而本文的研究表明，动作类电子游戏有助于提高孩子的阅读能力。
【12题详解】
细节理解题。由文章第五段“We started by examining the children’s ability to read words, non-words and paragraphs and their attention control .After six weeks, these skills were tested again.(我们从检查孩子们阅读单词、非单词和段落的能力以及他们的注意力控制开始。六周后，这些技能再次接受测试。)”可知参与研究的学生完成了一些阅读能力测试。故选B项。
【13题详解】
推理判断题。由文章第七段“Each time, the trained children performed better than the control group.( 每一次，训练过的孩子都比对照组表现得更好。)” 后续的评估依然显示玩动作类电子游戏的孩子在阅读方面表现得更好。由此可推断，该款动作类电子游戏对阅读能力的影响是持续的。故选A项。
【14题详解】
推理判断题。根据最后一段“... while the study suggests some benefit in action video games, it does not mean that one must do nothing else. (当然，虽然这项研究表明动作类电子游戏有一些好处，但这并不意味着人们就可以什么都不做。)” 可推断，作者认为玩动作类电子游戏虽然有益处，但是不能沉迷其中。故选B项。
【15题详解】
主旨大意题。根据第一段“While video games used to be considered harmful to young people, various studies have also proved the positive effects of computer games, especially action video games.”（虽然电子游戏曾经被认为对年轻人有害，但各种研究也证明了电子游戏的积极影响，尤其是动作电子游戏。）以及文章前三段及第六、七段可知，本文主要介绍了一个研究发现——动作类电子游戏有助于提高孩子的阅读能力。所以短文的最佳标题为“玩动作游戏可以提高孩子的阅读能力”。故选D项。
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有项为多余选项。
Ways to Sleep Smarter
Studies show that poor sleep influences people to make good decisions, focus on work and even manage a friendly mood at work. ____16____. Today we’ve got four top favorite sleep tips and facts.
Set a regular bedtime
____17____ Choose a time when you normally feel tired. Try not to break this routine on weekends when you will probably stay up late. If you want to change your bedtime, make the change gradually, such as 15 minutes earlier or later each day.
Eat the right food.
Some foods are more helpful to a better night’s sleep than others. ____18____ Others like bananas, potatoes, and whole-wheat bread are also helpful.
____19____
Exercising provides lots of good health benefits. A good night’s sleep is one of them. But make sure you exercise in the morning or afternoon. The National Sleep Foundation reports that exercise in the morning or afternoon can help deepen sleep and cut the time it takes for you to fall into sleep. However, those who worked out in the evening hours saw little or no improvement in their sleep.
Reduce (减少) screen time before bed
____20____A recent study shows that people who use electronic media just before bedtime report lower-quality sleep even when they get as much sleep as those who don’t.
A. Avoid the alarm clock
B. Exercise to improve sleep
C Try to solve problems in your sleep
D. Go to bed at the same time every night
E. There are lots of ways to better your sleep
F. Everybody knows that warm milk helps people sleep better
G. Stop watching TV just before bedtime and you’ll sleep better
【答案】16. E 17. D 18. F 19. B 20. G
【解析】
【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了一些改善睡眠的建议。
【16题详解】
根据上文“Studies show that poor sleep influences people to make good decisions, focus on work and even manage a friendly mood at work.(研究表明，糟糕的睡眠会影响人们做出正确的决定，影响工作专注度，甚至影响在工作中保持友好的情绪)”以及后文“Today we’ve got four top favorite sleep tips and facts.(今天我们有四个最受欢迎的睡眠技巧和事实)”可知，上文说明了睡眠的重要性和影响，后文提到了改善睡眠的技巧，可知睡眠可以通过技巧得到改善。故E选项“改善睡眠的方法有很多”符合语境，故选E。
【17题详解】
根据后文“Choose a time when you normally feel tired. Try not to break this routine on weekends when you will probably stay up late. If you want to change your bedtime, make the change gradually, such as 15 minutes earlier or later each day.(选择一个你通常觉得累的时间。尽量不要在周末打破这个惯例，因为你可能会熬夜。如果你想改变你的就寝时间，要逐渐改变，比如每天早15分钟或晚15分钟)”可知，后文提到了不要打破睡眠的惯例，即建议睡眠时间要同一，在每天晚上的同一时间。故D选项“每天晚上同一时间上床睡觉”符合语境，故选D。
【18题详解】
根据上文“Some foods are more helpful to a better night’s sleep than others.(有些食物比其他食物更有助于获得更好的睡眠)”以及后文“Others like bananas, potatoes, and whole-wheat bread are also helpful.(其他如香蕉、土豆和全麦面包也很有帮助)”可知，本句主要是在将可以助眠的饮食，故F选项“每个人都知道温牛奶有助于人们睡得更好”符合语境，故选F。
【19题详解】
根据本段内容“Exercising provides lots of good health benefits. A good night’s sleep is one of them. But make sure you exercise in the morning or afternoon. The National Sleep Foundation reports that exercise in the morning or afternoon can help deepen sleep and cut the time it takes for you to fall into sleep. However, those who worked out in the evening hours saw little or no improvement in their sleep.(锻炼对健康有很多好处。睡个好觉就是其中之一。但一定要在早上或下午锻炼。美国国家睡眠基金会报告称，早上或下午锻炼有助于加深睡眠，缩短入睡所需的时间。然而，那些在晚上锻炼的人的睡眠几乎没有改善)”可知，本段的主旨是锻炼可以助眠，B选项中Exercise对应后文中Exercising。故B选项“通过锻炼来改善睡眠”符合语境，故选B。
【20题详解】
根据后文“A recent study shows that people who use electronic media just before bedtime report lower-quality sleep even when they get as much sleep as those who don’t.(最近的一项研究表明，在睡前使用电子媒体的人报告睡眠质量较低，即使他们的睡眠时间与不使用电子媒体的人一样长)”可知，后文的研究表明不应该在睡前使用电子媒体，G选项中TV对应后文中electronic media。故G选项“睡前不要看电视，你会睡得更好”符合语境，故选G。
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题， 每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
It surprised me — every time I saw Joe, he was smiling. It didn't ____21____ whether he had to stop at a stop light, or if he were the seventh person in ____22____ at the bank, and the service stopped just before he got there. Joe always smiled. It made me wonder why he seemed so ____23____ every day.
Having observed Joe with other people, I ____24____ something else also. Joe asked people how they were doing, and really seemed to listen to their ____25____ . If someone were hurting, he had ____26____ for him and kind words, and offered to ____27____ in any way he could.
It made me think. What if I tried to smile more A(n)____28____ of sorts began when I went to the grocery store. I smiled as I went up and down the aisles, and people I didn't even ____29____ smiled back at me. Some even _____30_____!The little kid in the cart (购物车) who was giving his mother a _____31_____ time saw me smile and _____32_____ talking, and, you guessed it — he made a shy little attempt at a smile.
As I drove home, I was smiling. I_____33_____ what I had just learned, and when someone passed me and gave me a(n)_____34_____ , I smiled at him.
Now I know a smile is a small thing, but what if we were all to try to smile a few more times each day Nothing in my life had changed, but maybe it had. What I had learned was that such a small thing could _____35_____ not only my spirits, but also the spirits of those around me. So smile!
21.
A. work B. matter C. happen D. last
22.
A. line B. debt C. hand D. order
23.
A. naughty B. humorous C. happy D. active
24.
A. considered B. judged C. noticed D. decided
25.
A. answers B. comments C. excuses D. complaints
26.
A. sympathy B. protection C. guidance D. respect
27.
A. perform B. attempt C. help D. bother.
28.
A. life B. experiment C. project D. programme
29.
A. meet B. touch C. know D. contact
30.
A. greeted B. escaped C. approached D. glared
31.
A. spare B. long C. hard D. great
32.
A. stopped B. enjoyed C. kept D. tried
33.
A. worried about B. thought about C. talked over D. looked over
34.
A. address B. gesture C. call D. ticket
35.
A. realize B. lift C. show D. admire
【答案】21. B 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. A 26. A 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. A 31. C 32. A 33. B 34. B 35. B
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。“我”发现乔无论什么时候都在微笑，看起来很开心，于是“我”也尝试保持微笑，收到了周围人的正向反馈，这让“我”了解到微笑不仅可以让自己也可以让周围的人振作起来。
【21题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意：不管他是否必须在红灯前停车，或者他是在银行排队的第七个人，在他到达之前服务就停止了。A. work工作；B. matter要紧；C. happen发生；D. last持续。根据前文“It surprised me — every time I saw Joe, he was smiling.(令我吃惊的是，每次我看到乔，他都在微笑。)”可知，此处是指不管什么情况他都在微笑。故选择B项。
【22题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意：不管他是否必须在红灯前停车，或者他是在银行排队的第七个人，在他到达之前服务就停止了。A. line排；B. debt 债务；C. hand手；D. order命令。根据“the seventh person(第七个人)”和“at the bank(在银行)”可知，此处是指在银行排队的第七个人。故选择A项。
【23题详解】
考查形容词词义辨析。句意：这使我感到奇怪，为什么他每天看起来都那么快乐。A. naughty淘气的；B. humorous幽默的；C. happy快乐的；D. active积极的。根据前文“Joe always smiled.(乔总是微笑着。)”可知，此处是指他每天看起来都那么快乐。故选择C项。
【24题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意：在观察了乔和其他人在一起之后，我还注意到了别的事情。A. considered考虑；B. judged判断；C. noticed注意到；D. decided决定。根据“Having observed Joe with other people(观察到乔和其他人在一起)”可知，此处是指在观察了乔和其他人在一起之后，注意到了别的事情。故选择C项。
【25题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意：乔问人们过得怎么样，而且似乎真的在倾听他们的回答。A. answers回答；B. comments评论；C. excuses借口；D. complaints抱怨。根据“Joe asked people how they were doing(乔问人们过得怎么样)”可知，此处是指倾听他们的回答。故选择A项。
【26题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意：如果有人受到伤害，他会同情他，说些好话，并尽他所能提供帮助。A. sympathy同情；B. protection保护；C. guidance指导；D. respect尊重。根据“and kind words(好话)”可知，此处是指会同情对方。故选择A项。
【27题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意：如果有人受到伤害，他会同情他，说些好话，并尽他所能提供帮助。A. perform表演；B. attempt 尝试；C. help帮助；D. bother打扰。根据“in any way he could(尽其所能)”可知，此处是指尽他所能提供帮助。故选择C项。
【28题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意：当我去杂货店的时候，我开始了一种实验。A. life生活；B. experiment实验；C. project项目；D. programme程序。根据前文“What if I tried to smile more (如果我试着多笑些呢？)”可知，此处是指开始了一种实验。故选择B项。
【29题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意：我微笑着在过道上走来走去，甚至不认识的人也对我微笑。A. meet遇到；B. touch接触；C. know认识；D. contact联系。根据“The little kid in the cart（购物车） who was giving his mother a ____11____ time saw me smile and ____12____ talking, and, you guessed it —he made a shy little attempt at a smile. (那个在推车里和他妈妈怄气的小孩看见我笑了，就不说话了，你猜对了——他害羞地想笑一下。)”可知，此处是指甚至是不认识的人。故故选择C项。
【30题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意：有些人甚至打招呼！A. greeted打招呼；B. escaped逃避；C. approached接近；D. glared怒目而视。根据前文“smiled back at me”可知，此处是指有些人甚至打招呼。故选择A项。
【31题详解】
考查形容词词义辨析。句意：那个在推车里和他妈妈怄气的小孩看见我笑了，就不说话了，你猜对了——他害羞地想笑一下。A. spare空闲的；B. long长的；C. hard困难的；D. great好的。根据“who was giving his mother(与他的妈妈)”可知，此处是指跟妈妈怄气的小孩。give a hard time意为“为难”。故选择C项。
【32题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意：那个在推车里和他妈妈怄气的小孩看见我笑了，就不说话了，你猜对了——他害羞地想笑一下。A. stopped停止；B. enjoyed享受；C. kept保持；D. tried尝试。根据“he made a shy little attempt at a smile(他害羞地微微一笑)”可知，此处是指小孩不说话了。故选择A项。
【33题详解】
考查动词短语辨析。句意：我想了想我刚刚学到的东西，当有人从我身边经过并向我做了一个手势时，我对他微笑。A. worried about 担忧；B. thought about思考；C. talked over谈论；D. looked over检查。根据“what I had just learned(我刚刚学到的)”可知，此处是指思考着刚刚学到的东西。故选择B项。
【34题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意：我想了想我刚刚学到的东西，当有人从我身边经过并向我做了一个手势时，我对他微笑。A. address地址；B. gesture手势；C. call电话；D. ticket票。根据“I smiled at him(我对他微笑)”可知，此处是指向“我”做了一个手势。故选择B项。
【35题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意：我学到的是，这样一件小事不仅可以让我振作起来，也可以让我周围的人振作起来。A. realize意识到；B. lift提高；C. show 展示；D. admire钦佩。根据“not only my spirits(不仅我的精神)”可知，此处是指让“我”振作起来。故选择B项。
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
When she was just three years old, Alyssa Carson from the USA took an interest ____36____ the planet Mars. From that time on, her lifelong passion for and ____37____ (curious) about space began! Then, Alyssa ____38____ (start) to do all the things related to space!
Alyssa’s goal is to help others understand the potential for human life in outer space. She also wants to be one of the first humans ____39____ (walk) on the planet Mars. She even imagines ____40____ (live) on Mars! And while doing so, Alyssa wants to inspire lots of other kids to learn more about space and science.
She is studying astrobiology (天体生物学) at the Florida Institute of Technology. It is the only program in the USA ____41____ (focus) on the potential for life on other planets. Whether you want to study the effects of space travel on humans, discover past or present life on Mars,____42____ help develop ____43____ (way) to sustain (维持) life on the moon, you will be prepared at the Florida Institute of Technology.
Alyssa is a(n)____44____ (impress) example of a young person _____45_____ focuses on her passion and becomes the best version of herself. Her example also inspires other kids to do the same.
【答案】36. in 37. curiosity
38. started
39. to walk
40. living 41. focused
42. or 43. ways
44. impressive
45. who##that
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇新闻报道。文章讲述了来自美国的Alyssa Carson三岁的时候就对火星产生了兴趣。从那时起，她对太空的热情和好奇开始了，然后，Alyssa开始做所有与太空有关的事情，她的榜样也激励着其他孩子去做同样的事情。
【36题详解】
考查介词。句意：来自美国的Alyssa Carson三岁的时候就对火星产生了兴趣。固定搭配take an interest in“对……感兴趣”。故填in。
【37题详解】
考查名词。句意：从那时起，她对太空的热情和好奇心开始了！此处与passion是并列成分，作主语，应用名词curiosity “好奇心”，不可数名词。故填curiosity。
38题详解】
考查动词时态。句意：然后，Alyssa开始做所有与太空有关的事情！根据Then可知，此处在陈述过去发生的事情，应用一般过去时。故填started。
【39题详解】
考查非谓语动词。句意：她还想成为第一批在火星上行走的人类之一。humans前面有序数词修饰，应用动词不定式，作后置定语。故填to walk。
【40题详解】
考查非谓语动词。句意：她甚至想象住在火星上！固定搭配imagine doing sth.“想象做某事”，动名词作宾语。故填living。
【41题详解】
考查非谓语动词。句意：这是美国唯一一个专注于其他星球上潜在生命的项目。分析句子结构可知focus与逻辑主语program构成被动关系，故用过去分词作定语。故填focused。
【42题详解】
考查固定句型。句意：无论你是想研究太空旅行对人类的影响，发现火星上过去或现在的生命，还是帮助开发维持月球上生命的方法，你都将在佛罗里达理工学院做好准备。此处为句型whether…or…表示“无论是……还是……”。故填or。
【43题详解】
考查名词复数。句意：无论你是想研究太空旅行对人类的影响，发现火星上过去或现在的生命，还是帮助开发维持月球上生命的方法，你都将在佛罗里达理工学院做好准备。way是可数名词，前无限定词，应用名词复数形式，表泛指。故填ways。
【44题详解】
考查形容词。句意：Alyssa是一个令人印象深刻的例子，她专注于自己的激情，成为最好的自己。此处修饰名词example，应用形容词impressive“令人印象深刻的”，作定语。故填impressive。
【45题详解】
考查定语从句。句意：Alyssa是一个令人印象深刻的例子，她专注于自己的激情，成为最好的自己。此处是限定性定语从句，先行词是person，指人，在从句中作主语，应用关系代词who或that引导。故填who或that。
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （满分15分）
46. 假定你是李华，擅长体育运动，最近收到朋友 Jane 的来信,她在信中说自己苦恼于身体不够强壮。
1. 鼓励Jane参加跑步俱乐部。
2. 阐明跑步对于健身的积极作用。
3.分享一些科学跑步的建议。
注意：
1. 词数 80 左右，可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
2. 信的开头已为你写好，不计入总词数。
Dear Jane,
I am really sorry to hear that you are worrying about your weak body.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours truly,
Li Hua
【答案】Dear Jane,
I am really sorry to hear that you are worrying about your weak body. Recently, you have been wondering how to keep healthy. Since I have been trying to keep fit these days, I would like to share my experience with you.
Firstly, it is important for you to join a running club. Besides, it’s suggested that you should run three or four times a week so as to relax and make yourself energetic, and running is also beneficial for your mental health. In addition, running can keep yourself in a good state of mind. Last but not least, running in the morning is better for your health.
Only in this way can you keep healthy. I hope this advice will be helpful to you.
Yours truly,
Li Hua
【解析】
【导语】本篇书面表达属于应用文。 Jane 在信中说自己苦恼于身体不够强壮。要求考生李华鼓励Jane参加跑步俱乐部并分享一些科学跑步的建议。
【详解】1.词汇积累
分享：share → have a share in
此外：what’s more → besides
建议：suggestion →advice
参加：take part in→ join
2.句式拓展
简单句变复合句
原句：In addition, running can keep yourself in a good state of mind.
拓展句：In addition, it is running that can keep yourself in a good state of mind.
【点睛】【高分句型1】Since I have been trying to keep fit these days, I would like to share my experience with you.（运用了since引导的原因状语从句）
【高分句型2】I hope this advice will be helpful to you.（运用了省略that的宾语从句）
第二节（满分25分）
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The science teacher, Mr. Moose, decided that the school would have a paper airplane contest (比赛). Each student would design a paper airplane. And then they would take turns throwing their airplanes. The student whose airplane flew the farthest would win.
When Mr. Moose announced the paper airplane contest, all the students were very excited. Paul, who was on the wrestling (摔跤) team, said to other students. “I am the strongest. And I will be able to throw my airplane the farthest.”
However, another student, Brian, was thinking how he could win. He did not play any sports and was not very strong. But he loved airplanes and really wanted to win the contest.
Brian knew what he had to do. He went to the store and bought a big pile of paper. When he got home, he took the paper into the backyard. He took a piece of paper and folded (折叠) an airplane. It didn’t go very far, so Brian took another piece and folded another airplane and threw it. This airplane went a little farther. Brian kept folding different kinds of airplanes and throwing them. Some went very far and some did not. Finally, when Brian had used all the paper, he walked up to the airplane that had flown the farthest and picked it up.
注意：1．续写词数应为150左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The contest day arrived in the end and all the students gathered on the playground.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Excitedly, Brian got the prize from Mr. Moose’s hand and all the students clapped their hands for him.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
【答案】 The contest day arrived in the end and all the students gathered on the playground. Finally, it was Brian’s turn. He held the plane that he had folded the day before. It began to fly, farther and farther, until it landed 5 feet farther than Paul’s plane. The whole school cheered and were very happy. Brian won the contest. Mr. Moose awarded him a great prize: a toy airplane.
Excitedly, Brian got the prize from Mr. Moose’s hand and all the students clapped their hands for him. Brian won the contest because he had tried his best many times to solve the problem on how to make a plane fly farther. He made it by testing out many different designs and compare the results. When he found the best way to fly the farthest, he knew he succeeded.
【解析】
【导语】本文是人物为线索展开，讲述了Moose老师组织的一次纸飞机比赛。学生Brian非常喜欢飞机，并且经过自己的反复尝试，终于找到了让自己的纸飞机飞得最远的方法，并且赢得了比赛。
【详解】1.段落续写：
①由第一段首句内容“比赛日终于到了，所有的学生都聚集在操场上”可知，第一段可描写比赛当天的情况。
②由第二段首句内容“Brian激动地从Moose先生手中拿到了奖品，所有的学生都为他鼓掌”可知，第二段可描写Brian的获奖是因为他的钻研和付出。
2.续写线索：尽力参赛——获得第一——得到奖品——全校欢呼——得胜感悟
3.词汇激活
行为类
①开始：began/start
②尽全力做某事：try one’s best to do sth./do whatever one can to do sth./spare no effort to do sth.
③解决：solve/deal with/handle
情绪类
①欢呼：cheer/shout excitedly
②高兴的：happy/glad/delighted
【点睛】【高分句型1】He held the plane that he had folded the day before.（由that引导的定语从句）
【高分句型2】Brian won the contest because he had tried his best many times to solve the problem on how to make a plane fly farther.（由because引导的原因状语从句）
【高分句型3】When he found the best way to fly the farthest, he knew he succeeded.（由When引导的时间状语从句和省略连词that引导的宾语从句）

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