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2024年春季期中教学质量监测
七 年 级 英 语 试 卷
亲爱的同学，在你答题前，请认真阅读下面的注意事项：
1.本试卷分试题卷（共8页）和答题卷；全卷共70个小题；满分120分。
2.考生答题前，请将自己所在学校、姓名、准考证号填写在试题卷和答题卷指定的位置，并认真阅读答题卷上的注意事项。
3.考生答题时，请按照题号顺序在答题卷上各题的答题区域内作答，写在试题卷上无效。考试结束时，只交答题卷。
祝你取得优异成绩！Good luck！
听力部分（30分）
一、听力测试（共三节；计30分）
第一节 听句子，选图片 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听句子。从下面所给的A、B、C、D、E、F六个选项中，选出与所听句子内容相符的图片。听完每个句子后，你将有5秒钟的作答时间。注意每个句子仅读一遍。
(
A.
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D. E. F.
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1._______ 2._______ 3._______ 4._______ 5._______ (
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第二节 听短对话，选择答案 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
下面你将听到5段短对话，根据你所听到的对话内容，从所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的作答时间和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
6. How does Tom usually come to school
A. By subway. B. On foot. C. By bike.
7. How does Lucy like math
A. It’s difficult. B. It’s boring. C. It’s interesting.
8. What color is the pen
A. White. B. Black. C. Red.
9. What is Bob doing
A. Doing his homework.
B. Listening to music.
C. Doing some reading.
10. Which bus does the girl need to take
A. Bus 11. B. Bus 12. C. Bus 20.
第三节 听长对话，选择答案（共7小题；每小题1.5分，满分10.5分）
下面你将听到3段长对话，根据你所听到的对话内容，从所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟。听完每段对话后，每小题你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听第一段长对话，回答第11-12小题。
11. When does Helen have an art class
A. On Tuesday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Thursday.
12. What does Jeff think of the art lesson
A. Boring and difficult. B. Easy and interesting. C. Easy but boring.
听第二段长对话，回答第13-14小题。
13.What are Tony and Sally talking about
A. How to cook. B. A football game. C. A basketball game.
14.Where is Sally
A. At home. B. In the gym. C. On the playground.
听第三段长对话，回答第15-17小题。
15. Who wants to go to the supermarket
A. John. B. Mary. C. Judy.
16. Where is the supermarket
A. Behind the tall building. B. At the street corner. C. Across from the bank.
17. How can John get to the People’s Park
A. Ride a bike. B. Take the subway. C. Take the bus.
第四节 听短文，填写表格。（共3小题；每小题1.5分，满分4.5分）
下面你将听到一段短文，根据你所听到的内容，填写表格中所缺单词，每空仅填一词。听短文前，你将有15秒钟的时间浏览表格。听完后，你将有30秒钟的时间作答。短文听两遍。
New House It’s a townhouse with two floors.
A big 　18　 is in front of the house.
Some girls are 　19　 there.
Some trees are 　20　 the house.
The bedroom is on the second floor.
笔试部分（90分）
二、完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面的短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可填入空白处的最佳选项，使短文意思完整。
Today is Saturday. Sam has 21 to do. He is bored (无聊的).
“I bought 22 apples,” his mother says. “Can you 23 some to Mrs. Black ”
Mrs. Black is their next-door neighbor. Sam doesn’t like to 24 her. This is because she doesn’t seem to(似乎) 25 children. Sometimes Sam has friends to come over after school. She scolds (责骂) them for being too 26 .
Sam goes next door 27 the apples. He tells Mrs. Black why he comes. Mrs. Black lets him in. Sam puts the apples on the table. He sees a 28 of a boy on the table.
“ 29 is he ” Sam asks. “He’s my grandson (孙子),” Mrs. Black says. “I can’t see him often because he lives with his parents in Japan.”
Sam can see that Mrs. Black 30 her grandson. She is not happy that she can’t see the boy often. “Is this why she isn’t very 31 sometimes ” Sam thinks.
Sam wants 32 Mrs. Black happy, so he 33 with her. He tells her stories(故事) in school and 34 her grandson’s stories. This Saturday is not 35 at all!
A.everything B. nothing C. something D. anything
A.a lot B. a little C. much D. many
A.buy B. get C. take D. put
A.help B. thank C. give D. visit
A. have B. see C. like D. hear
A. noisy B. clever C. young D. happy
A. and B. with C. for D. of
A. book B. photo C. name D.bag
A. Where B. Whose C. What D. Who
A. keeps B. misses C. knows D. wants
31. A. kind B. strong C. cute D. good
32. A. make B. making C. to make D. makes
33. A. plays B. says C. talks D. tells
34. A. thinks of B. looks at C. learns about D. listens to
35. A. free B. boring C. long D. difficult
三、阅读理解（共 20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节 （共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面三篇短文，根据短文内容，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Homes come in different kinds around the world. Flats(公寓) are usually part of a building, with many families living there. People in a flat building share(共用) the stairs and lifts (电梯) to go up and down.
A townhouse has two floors. On the first floor, there is usually a kitchen, a living room and a dining room. The bedrooms are usually on the second floor.
A farmhouse is a house with a large yard on a farm. Many farmers are living there. The field (田地) is usually near the farmhouse, so farmers can easily get to the field on foot.
A dormitory (宿舍) is a large students’ bedroom. Four to eight students live in the same dormitory. Each student has their own bed, and they also share a washroom. Students can learn to get along well with (与……相处融洽) each other by living in a dormitory.
36. Many families live in the same ________.
A. townhouse B. flat building C. farmhouse D. dormitory
37. ________ isn’t on the first floor in a townhouse.
A. The kitchen B. The living room
C. The dining room D. The bedroom
38. The farmhouse is ________ the field.
A. close to B. in front of C. behind D. far from
39. If you are a student in a dormitory, you can ________.
sleep with other students in the same bed B. have your own washroom
C. learn how to get along well with other students D. live in one room by yourself
40. Which of the following is NOT true？
A. People in a flat building share the stairs and lifts.
B. There are two floors in a townhouse.
C. Farmers always go to the field by car.
D. A dormitory is a large bedroom in a school.
B
Good afternoon. My name is Susanna. I come from America. I am a junior high school student. I will talk to you about the lives of American students in school.
In America, students usually get up at 6:30. After getting up, they often run for half an hour in the morning. When the class starts at 8 a.m., students need to learn some subjects. They learn English, Chinese, math, science, biology, music and art.
The students eat lunch at school at 12 o’clock. They have many kinds of food to eat, such as meat, vegetables, fruit, bread and so on, but hot dogs and hamburgers are their favorites.
Students have a short rest after lunch. The first class in the afternoon starts at 1:30 and school is over at 3:00.
After school, they always self-study and do their homework until 6:00 in the afternoon.
From 6 to 8 o’clock, they play games, exercise, read, write, draw and do other activities. They go to bed at nine in the evening. They sleep about nine hours a day. The students all think that their school life is very interesting.
That’s all. Thank you.
41. Susanna is a ________.
A. teacher B. student C. worker D. nurse
42. How long do students run in the morning
A. 15 minutes. B. 20 minutes. C. 30 minutes. D. 40 minutes.
43. What do the students do from 3 p.m. to 6 p.m.
A. Self-study and do their homework. B. Play basketball or football.
C. Eat dinner and take a walk. D. Sing and dance.
44. Susanna talks about at least(至少) ________ kinds of after-school activities.
A. four B. five C. three D. two
45. Which one is true
A. Students always have breakfast at school.
B. Students like to have bread and milk best.
C. Students sleep about eight hours a day.
D. Susanna talks about school life in America in the afternoon.
C
Hello, I’m Lucy. How do you usually go to school, by bus or on foot I usually ride to school with my friends. If the weather (天气) is not good, I will take a taxi (出租车).
This morning, I take a special taxi. It’s a self-driving (自动驾驶) taxi. There is no driver in the car. It runs itself.
I like the taxi. Do you know why First, it’s easy to get such a taxi. I just call a car on my phone, and soon it comes to me. Second, it’s cheap (便宜的) to take such a taxi. A self-driving car is difficult to make. But it only costs me a little money to take the taxi. Third, it’s safe to take such a taxi. Many car accidents happen (发生) because of the driver. Sometimes the driver drinks before driving. Sometimes the driver drives too fast. Self-driving cars don’t have these problems.
Few cities have such taxis now. I hope you can enjoy them soon.
46. How does Lucy usually go to school
A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By taxi. D. By bike.
47. The underlined word “special” means “________” in Chinese.
A. 特别的 B. 老旧的 C.干净的 D.方便的
48. Lucy thinks self-driving taxis are ________.
① safe ② cheap ③ beautiful ④ easy to get
A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ①③④ D. ②③④
49. We can see ________ driving problems in the reading.
A. two B. three C. four D. five
50. Which of the following is TRUE
A. It’s a very nice day today. B. There are self-driving taxis in many places.
C. Lucy uses her phone to get the taxi. D. A driver sits in the taxi to make sure it’s safe.
第二节 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面的短文，根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入文中空白处的最佳选项。(提示：每个选项只能用一次 ! 选项中有一项为多余选项! )
There is an apple tree and it loves a little boy named Henry. Henry also likes to come and play around it. One day, little Henry needs a toy to play with, but he has no money, so the tree asks him to sell（卖）all the apples on the tree. 51
Then the boy grows up (长大) day by day. He becomes a man. 52 The tree is very sad (难过).
53 “Come and play with me!” the tree says. “No, I have to work because I must buy a big house. 54 ” the man asks. “Sorry, I have no house, but you can cut down (砍下 )all my branches (树枝) and the trunk (树干) . You can build(修建)the house with them” the tree answers. 55
After many years, the man becomes older, and he comes back again. “I only have the stump(树桩), but you can have a rest, ” the tree says.
Remember(记住)to love the people who love you at any time!
(
A．Can you help me
B．At last, the boy gets the toy happily.
C．So the man gets the house.
D．One summer day, the man returns and the tree is very happy.
E．And he doesn’t go to see the tree for a long time.
F. What can I do for you
)
四、短文填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读短文，从方框中选择正确的单词并用其适当的形式填空，使短文通顺，意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
(
si
t
much
this
easy
remember
it
not
picture
on
tell
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Every home should have 56 family rules. There is a book about family rules called Rules of Love. It says family rules help to make home a better place. In our family, we tape(粘贴) our rules 57 the wall of the living room. I got them from a friend six years ago, and 58 rules help us a lot over the years. We 59 our children to obey them wherever(无论何处) they go. These are not just rules for them at our house.
Rules come in different words. But good rules are all 60 to understand(理解). And it is important for the children to 61 and obey the rules. So don’t have too 62 rules for your children. For young children, parents can use 63 to tell them about the rules.
Here are some examples(例子):
* 64 down to eat.
*No fighting. No name-calling(骂人).
* 65 ask for things in the supermarket.
读写结合 （共两节，满分25分）
第一节 任务型阅读 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读短文，用英语填空或回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。
David lives in a small city. It’s a Sunday morning. His father Mr. Brown says to him, “David, I want you to go to London to see my friend. Here is the address（地址）.”
David goes to London by train. He goes out of the station and thinks, “The hospital is near the station. I can find it easily.” But after an hour, David is still looking for the hospital. He stops and asks an old woman. The woman says, “Go down Green Street, turn left at the end, and you will find it on your right.” David thanks her and soon he finds the hospital. It’s old but beautiful.
A week later, David goes to London again, but again he can’t find that hospital. So he asks someone the way. He asks an old woman too. It is the same woman! She is very surprised（惊讶的） and asks, “Are you still looking for that place ”
66. What does David go to London for（为什么目的）
He goes___________________________.（5个词以内）
67. What does David think of the hospital
It is ________. (3个词以内)
68. David goes to London _______.(5个词以内/方式和次数)
69. The underlined words “that place” refer to（指的是） “________”. （不超过2个词）
70. Which of the following is the right place of the hospital
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A
.
B
.
C
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)
第二节 书面表达 (共1题，满分15分)
假设你是李华，你的美国笔友Betty给你发了一封邮件，向你介绍了她生活的社区，她想知道你生活的社区是什么样子的。请你根据下列图示提示内容，给她回一封邮件。
要求：1. 必须包含提示内容，可适当发挥，70词左右（开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数）；
2. 意思清楚，表达通顺，行文连贯，书写规范；
3. 请勿在文中使用真实的姓名和校名。
参考词汇：convenient 方便的 subway station 地铁站 购物do some shopping
Dear Betty,
I’m very glad to get your email. Now let me tell you about my community.
Yours
Li Hua2024年春期中七年级英语参考答案及评分说明
听力部分（30分）
听句子，选图片 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
D B E A C
听短对话，选择答案 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
C A C B B
听长对话，选择答案（共7小题；每小题1.5分，满分10.5分）
CBBAA BC
第四节 听短文，填写表格。（共3小题；每小题1.5分，满分4.5分）
garden dancing behind
笔试部分（90分）
二、完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
BDCDC ABBDB ACCDB
三、阅读理解（共 20小题；满分40分）
第一节 （共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
BDACC BCABD DABAC
第二节 阅读还原 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
BEDAC
四、短文填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
56.its 57. on 58.these 59.tell 60.easy
61.remember 62. many 63.pictures 64.Sit 65.Don’t
五、读写结合 （共两节，满分25分）
第一节 任务型阅读 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
66. to see his father’s (Mr. Brown’s) friend
67. old but beautiful
68. by train twice
69. the hospital
70. C
第二节 书面表达 (共1题，满分15分)
Dear Betty,
I’m very glad to get your email. Now let me tell you about my community.
It is in the center of the city. There are lots of trees and flowers here. In the community, there are two supermarkets, so it’s convenient for us to do some shopping. There is a community service center. We can call it for help. There is also a park. Many people like to do sports there. The subway station is not far from the community, so it’s easy for people to go somewhere. My neighbors are very kind. We often help each other.
Life in this community is wonderful. I like living here.
Yours,
Li Hua
评分标准：
第一档: (13-15分):很好地完成了规定的写作任务。文章主题突出，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少(同一单词的拼写错误不重复计分)，格式正确，书写规范，卷面整洁。
第二档: (10-12分):较好地完成了规定的写作任务。文章有主题，结构较为完整，语句通顺，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少，格式基本正确，书写较为规范。
第三档: (6-9分):基本上完成了规定的写作任务。基本按写作要求完成，结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，格式基本正确，书写基本规范。
第四档: (0-5分):未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别相关内容，结构不完整，多数语句不完整或意思不明，语法结构和词汇错误很多，所写内容难以理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。
鼓励分：多写、多发挥。文章立意好，主题突出，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，格式正确，书写规范，卷面整洁的前提下，有“极少语法、拼写之类的错误”的情况下可酌情给满分。(
18.
19.
20.
) (
56.
57.
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61.
62.
63.
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) (
四、短文填空
（每小题1分，共10分）
) (
三、阅读理解
（
每小题2分，
共40分）
) (
二、完形填空
（
每小题1分，
共15分）
) (
B
B
C
C
A
A
16.
17.
) (
B
B
B
B
B
C
C
C
C
C
A
A
A
A
A
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
) (
B
B
B
B
B
C
C
C
C
C
A
A
A
A
A
06.
07.
08.
09.
10.
) (
01.
02.
03.
04.
05.
A
A
A
A
A
F
F
F
F
F
B
B
B
B
B
E
E
E
E
E
D
D
D
D
D
C
C
C
C
C
) (
一、 听力部分
（
每小题1.5分，
共30分）
) (
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
) (
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
) (
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
) (
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
) (
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
) (
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
B
C
A
D
) (
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
A
A
A
A
A
F
F
F
F
F
B
B
B
B
B
E
E
E
E
E
D
D
D
D
D
C
C
C
C
C
) (
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
) (
1.答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚，并认真
核准条形码上的姓名、准考证号；在规定的位置贴好条形码。
2.选择题部分必须使用2B铅笔填涂，非选择题部分必须使用
0.5毫米黑色字迹笔作答，字体工整、笔迹清楚。
3.请按照题号顺序在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效；在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。
4.保持卡面清洁，不要折叠，不要破损。
) (
正确填涂
) (
填涂
示例
) (
姓 名
准考证号
) (
注意事项
) (
条形码粘贴区
) (
2024年春期中七年级教学质量监测
英语答题卡
)
(
五、读写结合
（共25分）
第一节 任务型阅读
（满分10分）
66.
（
5
个词以内）
67.
(3个词以内)
68.
(5个词以内/方式和次数)
69.
（不超过2个词）
70.
Dear Betty,
I’m very glad to get your email. Now let me tell you about my community.
)

(
第二节 书面表达
（满分15分）
)
Yours
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
) Li Hua

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