资源简介

2024—2025学年第一学期期末质量检测
八年级英语评分标准及参考答案 （2025.01）
一．听力测试（20分，每题1分）
1-5 ACACB 6-10 ACBCB 11-15 AAABC 16-20 ACBCB
二．阅读理解（40分，每题2分）
21-25:CBABD 26-30:CCADD 31-35:BBCCD 36-40：DBACB
三．七选五 (10分，每题2分)
41-45:EGFDB
四．补全对话 （5分，每题1分）
46-50 BCDCB
五．完形填空（15分，每题1分）
51-55:BBCDA 56-60:DBCBD 61-65:AACBC
六．阅读填空 （15分）
66. children 67. well 68. grew 69. me 70.an
71. to make 72.After/When/As 73.earlier 74.successful 75.will become
七．书面表达(共两节，满分45分)
第一节 汉译英 根据汉语意思，写出句子。(20分)
76. Will there be world peace
77. Then, cut up the vegetables.
78. We are going to improve our lives.
79. They are usually like human servants.
80. Let’s order some food from a restaurant.
81. Here is a/one way to make turkey.
82. The worst thing is to do nothing.
83. I look forward to hearing from you all.
84. My parents want me to be a doctor.
85. I have an exam on Monday so I must prepare for it.
B. 作文
评分标准：
第一部分 汉译英（20分）
1.每小题错1-2个单词扣1分，错3个词以上的，包括3个词的，扣2分；
2.句型结构错的扣1分。
第二部分 作文 （25分）
作文评分标准：
1）本题共25分。
2）卷面书写潦草不工整，以至影响交际，可酌情扣1－2分。
3）拼写错误每个扣1分。同样错误不重复计算。
4) 书面表达分为五个等级:
(1)21-25分：短文内容符合所给提示。语句通顺，语言丰富，书写工整，语法错误较少（1－2处），字数符合要求。
(2) 16-20分：短文内容基本符合所给提示。语句通顺，语言较丰富，书写工整，
3－4处语法错误，字数基本符合要求。
(3)11-15分：短文内容基本符合所给提示。语句尚通顺，书写较工整，语法错误较多，字数在80词左右。
(4) 6-10分：短文内容不太符合所给提示。语句不够通顺，语法错误较多，书写一般，字数在60词以下。
(5) 0-5分：明显遗漏要点，写了一些无关的内容。语法结构或词汇方面的错误
较多，词不达意。绝密★启用前
2024—2025 学年度第一学期期末质量检测
八年级英语试题 （2025.01）
本试卷共 10 页，满分 150 分。考试用时 120 分钟。
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用 0.5mm 黑色签字笔
将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
I. 听力(共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分)
A) 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. A. Turn on the blender. B. Drink the milk shake. C. Peel three bananas.
2. A. We can meet friends. B. They will have robots. C. She wants to be a writer.
3. A. Does she like cheese B. Can you play tennis C. Will they have robots
4. A. Sarah isn’t a cook. B. Susan won’t go home. C. Nick can’t go to the party.
5. A. How do you do that B. When is the party C. What do you want to be
B) 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回
答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. What does Annie like most
A. Flowers. B. Chocolates. C. Popcorn.
7. What is Jack’s New Year’s resolution
A. To eat more fruit. B. To take up a hobby. C. To eat less fast food.
8. How was the party last night
A. Boring. B. Great. C. Surprising.
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9. When is Kelly going to London
A. On Monday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Thursday
10. How much butter do they need
A. One spoon. B. Two spoons. C. Three spoons.
C)在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给
问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题
时间。对话听两遍。
11. How many boys are there in Robert’s class
A. 14. B. 26. C. 40.
12. What do 15 students want to be in the future
A. Engineers. B. Teachers. C. Doctors.
13. Who wants to be a doctor
A. Mike. B. Robert. C. Both Mike and Robert.
14. How old is Robert
A. Thirteen. B. Fourteen. C. Fifteen.
15. Where are Robert and his friends going
A. To the library. B. To the classroom. C. To the cinema.
D) 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所
给 问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题
时间。短文听两遍。
16. Who will Tom take a walk with
A. His father. B. His mother. C. His classmates.
17. When will Tom begin to have breakfast on Saturday
A. At 6:30 a.m. B. At 7:00 a.m. C. At 8:00 a.m.
18. Why does Tom go to the library
A. To meet his friends. B. To borrow some books. C. To do his homework.
19. What does Tom plan to do on Sunday afternoon
A. To clean the house. B. To go to the library. C. To visit his grandparents.
20. How long will Tom watch TV on Sunday evening
A. For half an hour. B. For an hour. C. For two hours.
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II. 阅读理解 阅读下列短文，从每题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个能回答所提问题或
完成所给句子的最佳答案。（40 分）
A
Let’s enjoy a movie!
Zootopia
From a large elephant to a small mouse, animals live happily together in Disney’s
Zootopia.
Language: English
Running Time: 1 Hour and 30 Minutes
Price: Weekdays---$50 $25 (children under 6)
Weekends---$60 $30 (children under 6)
I’ve never imagined the movie is so interesting. There are 64 kinds of animals in it. After I
watched the movie, I learned more about animals. I would highly recommend this movie to those
animal lovers.
—— John
I have seen many cartoons of this kind, but this one is surprisingly funny and I love the sweet
voice in it. My brother and I just couldn’t help laughing from the beginning to the end.
—— David
This movie is so well made. I went to see it with my 5-year-old son last Sunday afternoon. I
love the beautiful music while my son loves the rabbit police officer Judy very much. It shows that
small animals like her can also do serious work.
—— Nancy
21．The poster shows that ________ is spoken in the movie.
A．Japanese B．French C．English D．Chinese
22．From the poster, we can know that the movie lasts ________.
A．60 minutes B．90 minutes C．100 minutes D．120 minutes
23．John likes this movie because of ________.
A．the different kinds of animals B．the funny actors
C．the sweet voice D．the beautiful music
24．It cost Nancy and her son ________ to watch the movie.
A．$75 B．$90 C．$100 D．$120
25．According to the poster, the movie most probably tells a ________ story.
A．frightening B．sad C．true D．funny
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B
I’m Jenny. I’m a movie lover and I want my kids to like movies, too. The first time I took my
daughter, May, to the movie theater, she was 6 and the movie was Bambi. I chose it because I
thought a cartoon movie would be good for her.
Everything was going just fine and Bambi was so lovely. However, when man killed Bambi’s
mother, my daughter became very sad and asked to go home. So we left in the middle of the movie.
Later I chose movies more carefully and my daughter watched many great ones. Luckily, she likes
movies as much as I do now.
My worry is: Are cartoons really safe for kids
Once I sat on the sofa to watch a cartoon with my 8-year-old son, Nick. I got dumbfounded
when I saw a cartoon character was bleeding (流血) in front of us. The cartoon was like an action
movie for adults!
The next time you take a kid to the movie theater, be careful. Maybe a cartoon isn’t the best.
You should take the time to watch it first. (It’s a habit with me now.) Or the kid may get messages he
or she isn’t ready to get yet.
26. May first went to the movie theater ________.
A. with her dad B. with her brother C. at the age of 6 D. at the age of 8
27. May wanted to leave in the middle of Bambi because ________.
A. she wanted to eat something B. she thought it was a boring movie
C. the movie made her feel sad D. she found Bambi was not lovely
28. What does the underlined word “dumbfounded” mean
A. Surprised. B. Comfortable. C. Excited. D. Quiet.
29. Now when Jenny takes her kids to the movie theater, she will ________.
A. make sure the movie theater is safe B. tell her kids what to watch
C. ask about her kids’ favorite D. watch the movie first
30. What does Jenny want to tell the readers
A. Most cartoons are not safe for kids.
B. Young kids shouldn’t go to the movie theater.
C. Parents should watch the cartoons with their kids.
D. Parents should choose movies carefully for their kids.
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C
In any environment—forest, mountain, water—you always see the big
animals first: birds, mammals, fish. But under your feet, both on land and in the
water, there are many smaller organisms (微生物 ): insects, tiny plants,
miniature sea creatures. They may seem unimportant, but, in fact, these sea
creatures and ground dwellers are “the heart of life on Earth,” according to
naturalist E. O. Wilson. Without them, our world would be a very different
place.
Most organisms on Earth live on the ground or just below it. Here, they are part of an
important cycle. When plants and animals die, they fall to the ground. Later, tiny insects and other
organisms break down the dead plant and animal material. This process eventually returns nutrients
(养分) to the soil (土壤) and gives living plants energy. These plants can then help to maintain a
healthy environment for humans and other animals.
Despite their importance, scientists know very little about most ground organisms. To learn
more, photographer David Littschwager went to different places around the world, including a forest
and a coral reef. In each place, he put a green 30-centimeter box on the ground or in the water. Then
he and his team counted and took photos of the organisms that lived in or moved through the box.
Often they discovered hundreds of organisms, some only a millimeter in size. “It was like finding
little gems(宝石),” he says.
31. In paragraph 1, what does the underlined word “miniature” mean
A. Very beautiful. B. Very small. C. Very important. D. Very famous.
32. Where do most organisms on Earth live
A. In the sea. B. On land or in the soil.
C. In the air. D. In the plants and animals.
33. What can living plants help to maintain for humans and animals
A. Enough energy. B. Rich nutrients.
C. A healthy environment. D. Many organisms.
34. Littschwager and his team used the box to _______.
A. collect different animals for further study
B. test the quality of the soil and water
C. count and photograph organisms
D. go to different places around the world
35. Why does Littschwager call the organisms “little gems”
A. There are a great number of them.
B. They are very difficult for him to see.
C. He thinks the organisms are small.
D. They are small but quite important.
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D
You may have experienced the feeling.Your mouth feels like it is on fire.
Your eyes start to water. You just ate one of nature’s hottest foods—the chili
pepper (辣椒)!
Chili peppers, also called chilies, are found in dishes around the world.
They are in dishes like Indian curries, Thai tom yum soup, and Mexican
enchiladas. Chilies come from the capsicum plant. They are “hot” because they contain something
called capsaicin.
Capsaicin is very good for your health. It helps you breathe better, and it may even help keep
you fit. Capsaicin makes you feel less hungry. It also makes your body burn more calories.
We can measure the heat (辣度) of chilies in units called Scoville heat units (SHU). The world’s
hottest chili is the Carolina Reaper. It sometimes measures up to 2 million SHU!
Eating a hot chili can be uncomfortable, but some people love to eat them. Anandita Dutta
Tamuly, a woman from Assam, India, became famous for eating chilies. She ate 51 hot peppers in
just two minutes! The peppers were Naga Jolokia(“ghost peppers”). They grow in Assam and are the
third-hottest chilies in the world.
“I found eating chilies was a great way to stay healthy,” says Tamuly. She began eating chilies
when she was a child. She eats chilies when she doesn’t feel well, too. “Every time I have a cold or
flu, I just eat some chilies and I feel better. To be honest, I hardly notice them now.”
36. What does “it” refer to in paragraph 1
A. Chili pepper. B. Feeling. C. Water. D. Mouth.
37. What is the purpose of paragraph 3
A. To advise us not to eat more chilies.
B. To explain how chilies are good for you.
C. To show chillies are the hottest food.
D. To explain why eating chilies is uncomfortable.
38. Which of the following is NOT true about Anandita Dutta Tamuly
A. She is famous for eating Carolina Reaper chilies.
B. She eats chilies when she doesn’t feel comfortable.
C. She started eating chilies when she was a child.
D. She thought eating chilies was good for health.
39. In paragraph 6, the sentence I hardly notice them means _______ .
A. I usually don’t eat hot chilies anymore. B. I feel the heat of the chilies even more.
C. I almost don’t feel the heat of the chilies. D. I want to eat the world’s hottest chili.
40. What is the passage mainly about
A. How to eat very hot chili peppers. B. The facts about hot chili peppers.
C. Ideas for cooking using chili peppers. D. Why people don’t like chili peppers.
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III. 阅读理解七选五 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,选项
中有两项为多余选项。(10 分)
Perhaps you are an average student with average intelligence. You do well enough in school,
but you probably think you will never be a top student. 41 Here’s how to get good grades.
Plan your time carefully. Make a list of your weekly tasks. Then make a plan. Fill in committed
time such as eating, sleeping, meetings, classes, etc. Then decide on good, regular time for studying.
Be sure to spend enough time on your normal reading and work tasks. Of course, studying shouldn’t
occupy(占用) all of the free time on the plan. 42
Make good use of your time in class. Listening to what the teacher says in class means less
work later. Sit where you can see and hear well. 43
Study regularly. 44 Review important points mentioned in class as well as points
you remain confused about. If you review your notes and textbook regularly, the material will
become more meaningful and you will remember it longer.
45 The purpose of a test is to show what you have learned about a subject. The world
won’t end if you don’t pass a test, so don’t worry excessively about a single test. Tests provide
grades, but they also let you know what you need to spend more time studying, and they help make
your knowledge permanent.
A. Find a good place to study.
B. Develop a good attitude towards tests.
C. It is best to make a weekly plan and follow it.
D. Go over your notes as soon as you can after class.
E. However, you can get better grades if you want to.
F. Take notes to help you remember what the teacher says.
G. It’s important to spend time on relaxation, hobbies and so on.
IV. 补全对话 阅读对话，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话(5分)
A: Hi, Laura. You look worried. 46
B: Our English teacher Miss Miller will leave for America. I don’t want to say goodbye to her.
A: I don’t, either. Why not have a surprise party for her
B: 47 It’s a good way to say goodbye.
A: We can also buy a gift for Miss Miller.
B: What do you think we should buy
A: 48 It’s getting cold these days.
B: OK. We can also invite other teachers to the party. 49
A: Mr. Li and Miss Wu. They are Miss Miller’s best friends.
B: I agree. When should we have the party
A: 50 Everyone will be free then.
B: You are right. And now let’s go to the store and buy a scarf for her.
46. A. When did it start B. What happened
C. Who is your teacher D. How is the food
47. A. Catch you on Monday! B. That’s too bad!
C. It sounds great! D. Long time no see!
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48. A. What’s the weather like B. Is there a factory
C. Is she outgoing D. How about a scarf
49. A. How will you go there B. What will you do there
C. Who should we invite D. Why do you like it
50. A. I’d love to. B. Next Saturday.
C. Last month. D. That’s right!
V. 完形填空 阅读短文, 从每题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中, 选出一个能填入文章中相应空白
处的最佳答案。(15 分)
There was a young woman who was very proud of her flower garden (花园). When she was young,
her grandmother told her to love and 51 the flowers in the garden. So she often bought lots of
beautiful flowers 52 the flower lists (清单) and her flower garden was the best.
One day, when she was looking through a flower list, she noticed a picture of a 53 . She
never saw blooms (花) on a flower like that before. “I have to have it,” she said to herself, and she
ordered it 54 .
When it arrived, she already had a 55 to plant it. She planted it at the back of her
garden. It grew well, with beautiful green leaves all over it, 56 there were no blooms. Day
after day she continued to water it, feed it, and she even talked to it. She did everything to make it
bloom. However, it didn’t 57 .
One morning, several weeks later, when standing before the vine (藤), she felt very 58
that her plant did not bloom. She was giving thought to 59 it down and planting something
else in its place.
It was at this point that her neighbor 60 over to her. “Thank you so much! You don’t
know how much I 61 the blooms of that vine you planted.” The young woman walked
62 the gate into her neighbor’s garden, and sure enough, she saw that on the other side of the
wall the vine was 63 of blooms.
They were indeed the most beautiful blooms she 64 saw. The vine grew through the
crevices (缝隙) and it did not flower on 65 side of the wall, but on the other side.
Sometimes one may not see the good result of his effort, but that doesn’t mean it isn’t
meaningful.
51. A. look for B. look after C. look at D. look through
52. A. during B. from C. without D. by
53. A. bird B. hill C. plant D. duck
54. A. clearly B. cheaply C. hardly D. quickly
55. A. place B. bag C. office D. room
56. A. and B. so C. or D. but
57. A. care B. work C. use D. plant
58. A. excited B. relaxed C. sad D. afraid
59. A. putting B. cutting C. turning D. taking
60. A. discussed B. replied C. fell D. called
61. A. enjoy B. dream C. expect D. hate
62. A. through B. across C. past D. along
63. A. careful B. able C. full D. sure
64. A. never B. ever C. sometimes D. usually
65. A. its B. his C. her D. their
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VI. 阅读填空 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。(15 分)
“What are you going to be when you grow up ” That’s a common question for most 66
(child). I remember I first got this question at an early age. One day my cousin asked me that
question. My father knew me very 67 (good) . Before I said something, my father quickly
answered. “Karen is going to be a doctor.”
I didn’t question my father’s words at that time. That’s because I never wanted to do anything
other than saving people’s lives. I really wanted to be a doctor when I 68 (grow) up.
I remember my parents always said to 69 (I), “You can be a lawyer, 70
engineer or a teacher. You can even make the soccer team to play soccer. It’s up to you to decide
what you do. You just need to try your best 71 (make) it.”
72 I started my college, I studied all the time. I remember my dad calling me once a
week, but I always didn’t hear it. After I finished my study in the library, I would call him back. I got
up an hour 73 (early) than others to study every day.
It’s hard to be 74 (succeed). However, after many years’ study, I believe I 75
(become) a doctor in the near future.
VII. 书面表达(共两节，满分 45 分)
第一节 汉译英 根据汉语意思，写出句子。(20 分)
76. 将会有世界和平吗？
_____________________________________________________________________
77. 然后，把蔬菜切碎。
_____________________________________________________________________
78. 我们打算改善我们的生活。
_____________________________________________________________________
79. 他们通常像人类的仆人。
_____________________________________________________________________
80. 让我们从餐馆点些食物吧！
_____________________________________________________________________
81. 这有一种用来制作火鸡的方式。
_____________________________________________________________________
82. 最糟糕的事情就是什么也不做。
_____________________________________________________________________
83. 我期待收到你们所有人的来信。
_____________________________________________________________________
84. 我的父母想让我成为一名医生。
_____________________________________________________________________
85. 周一我有一场考试，所以我必须要为此做准备。
_____________________________________________________________________.
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第二节 写作 （25 分）
寒假马上就到了，学校要给同学们安排假期技能实践活动，英语社团对此开展了调查。
请你根据下表调查结果和要求写一篇短文向英语社团报投稿。
内容包括：1. 描述并评价调查结果；
2. 陈述你打算学习的实践活动并说明理由。
注意：1.词数 100 左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3.不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
Our school did a survey among 500 students about their plans for learning practical skills in the
coming winter holiday.
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八年级英语试题第 10 页（共 10 页）
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