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学业质量检测2025（初二下）
英语试题卷
考生须知：
欢迎参加考试!请你认真审题，积极思考，细心答题，发挥最佳水平。答题时请注意以下几点：
1.全卷共8页，76题。全卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2.全卷分为卷Ⅰ（选择题）和卷Ⅱ（非选择题）两部分，答案必须写在答题纸相应的位置上，写在试题卷、草稿纸上均无效。
3.答题前，认真阅读答题纸上的《考生须知》，按规定答题。
祝你成功!
第一部分 听力理解（共三节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试题的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How often does Tom help with chores 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Every day. B. Once a week. C. Twice a week.
2. What was the boy doing when the rainstorm came 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. He was looking for a book. B. He was reading in the library. C. He was looking after his brother.
3. How much will the boy pay for the ticket 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. 5 dollars. B. 10 dollars. C. 15 dollars.
4. What’s the matter with Mike 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. He fell down. B. He had a nosebleed. C. He cut his knee.
5. How is the weather now 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. It’s rainy. B. It’s cloudy. C. It’s sunny.
第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试题的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
6. What housework will Kevin do
A. Fold the clothes. B. Sweep the floor. C. Take out the rubbish.
7. When will Kevin do the chore
A. Before he goes to the concert. B. After he finishes his book. C. When the woman leaves.
听下面一段较长对话，回答小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
8. Where did Lucy work as a volunteer yesterday
A. At a primary school. B. At an old people’s home. C. In an after-school study program.
9. How did Lucy help yesterday
A. By reading newspaper. B. By talking to people. C. By helping to exercise.
10. What time will the speakers meet on Friday
A. At 5:00 p.m. B. At 4:40 p.m. C. At 4:30 p.m.
第三节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试题的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
11. Where did the speaker go last Saturday
A. A party. B. A bus stop. C. A hospital.
12. What happened to the old man
A. He lost his way. B. He missed the bus. C. He hurt his leg.
13. What did the speaker do for the old man
A. He asked Lily for help. B. He helped to call 120. C. He took him home.
14 How did Lilly feel at last
A. Happy. B. Strange. C. Angry.
15. What docs the speaker learn from the experience
A. Being on time is necessary. B. Understanding is meaningful. C. Helping others is important.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中选出最佳选项。
A
Teeth health-10 messages for children to learn & share
1. We get two sets of teeth. The first baby teeth fall out between ages 6 and 12. The second is the last set that we have for life. 2. We have two different kinds of teeth. Front teeth for biting (咬) and back teeth for chewing (咀嚼). 3. When we don’t brush our teeth well, our teeth may have plaque (牙斑). It may cause bad breath and tooth problems.
4. Visiting the dentist can catch problems before they start. 5. Bad teeth can cause pain. Eating and drinking sweet things make your teeth worse faster.
6. Brushing teeth well twice a day with toothpaste (牙膏) can deal with the plaque problem. It can also keep your teeth strong and healthy. 7. Give young children water or milk in a cup. Sugar in drinks like fruit juice and sodas (苏打水) can hurt your teeth.
16. At what ago do people usually fall out their baby teeth
A. Between ages 4 and 10. B. Between ages 5 and 7.
C. Between ages 6 and 12. D. Between ages 4 and 7.
17. Which of the following can help keep your teeth healthy
A. Having water instead of juice. B. Biting with front and back teeth.
C. Eating and drink sweet things. D. Brushing your teeth once a day.
18. Where can you most probably read this poster
A. In a museum. B. At a classroom. C. In a factory. D. At a dentist.
B
Some people can join a group of strangers and feel comfortable. And I’m sure Abbey is not one of them.
“Abbey just moved here from a small town in the mountains,” our teacher said. “I know you’ll all help her feel comfortable!” That day at lunch I saw Abbey sitting there, so I asked my friends. “Don’t you think we should invite the new girl to sit with us ”
“I think she just wants to keep to herself,” said Noah. “I told her a joke and she hardly smiled.” “Nobody smiles at your jokes.” said Miguel. In the end, we didn’t say anything to Abbey.
A few days passed, and Abbey still kept to herself. She always seemed lost in whatever book she was rending during lunchtime.
Then one day, Abbey and I were waiting for the school bus together when it started pouring rain.
“Oh, not” I shouted. Abbey laughed. “I’m all wet!” We raced under a tree for cover, which helped a little bit
“As you can see, San Francisco has some strange weather,” I said. “Are there surprise winter showers like this in your hometown ”
“Yeah,” she answered. “But we were in the mountains, so the showers were usually snow.”
“It’s so cool that you live in the snowy mountains. Uh-oh! Your book gets wet.”
“It’s OK. I just finished the last page,” she said. “These stories are so hard to put down.”
“Is that why you keep to yourself these days ”
“Partly.” She smiled shyly. “And, it’s hard to get used to all the changes in a new place.”
It took a little while for Abbey to feel really comfortable in our school and we are friends now. I guess some people like us just need time and encouragement (鼓励).
19. How did Abbey feel when she first joined the new class
A. Bored. B. Excited. C. Lonely. D. Comfortable.
20. What’s the right order of this story
①Abbey lost herself in books. ②Abbey lived in mountains.
③Abbey got used to this school ④Abbey met a sudden rain.
A. ③①②④ B. ③④①② C. ②④①③ D. ②①④③
21. What does the underlined word showers refer to (指代)
A. Rains. B. Snows. C. Winds. D. Clouds.
22. What’s the main idea of this passage
A. What problems Abbey met at school. B. How Abbey got used to a new place.
C Who helped Abbey make friends. D. Why Abbey kept to herself.
C
As space science develops, man has learned more and more about space. Space is not only amazing but also dangerous. While working in space, spacemen are facing danger as well as success.
Scientists have found out that the radiation (辐射) is the greatest danger to spacemen in space. When spacemen are working in space, they are in danger of the radiation-from the sun and other stars, which is bad for their health. The harm of the radiation won’t be found until their children even grandchildren are born. Some special medicine may work a little, but no really useful medicine has been found so far.
Space rubbish is also thought to be a great danger to spacemen. It’s reported that there were 9,000 man-made things flying in space. About 30% of these are satellites (卫星), 10% are spaceships, and the rest are space rubbish. An explosion (爆炸) in space in 1999 made a cloud of 300, 000 space junk pieces, each at least 4mm in size. A small piece of these even knocked a spaceship window and caused some problems.
Scientists are watching and reporting any possible danger all the time. They are working to deal with space rubbish. Although space is really dangerous, it interests many people on the earth. We may even choose to leave the earth and live in space in a few years. However, to make this possible, we must take steps to improve the space environment and make sure it is safe for people to research and live in.
23. What can you infer (推测) from Paragraph 2
A. The radiation is dangerous to spaceships. B. The radiation are mostly from space rubbish.
C. The danger of the radiation may last for years. D. The medicine for radiation will appear soon.
24. What cause the danger to spacemen
①radiation ②space rubbish ③satellites ④explosion
A. ①② B. ①③ C. ②④ D. ③④
25. According to the report, how many man-made things are space rubbish
A. 900. B. 2700. C. 5400. D. 9000.
26. Why does the writer write this passage
A. To show the scientists’ work on cleaning the space. B. To share the information of the danger in space.
C To introduce the reports from spacemen. D. To describe people’s interest in space.
D
Do you like to have talented partners in your group Most people believe the best way to build a great team is to get a group of the most talented people. Sports team owners spend millions of dollars on top talented players. Is their money well spent
Several recent studies tested the role of talent in the sports world. They focused on football, basketball and baseball. The results are different. For football and basketball, adding talented players to a team is a good way when 70% of the players are top talent. Above that percent, the team’s performance begins to go down. Interestingly, this isn’t the same in baseball. The more stars a team has, the better the performance will be.
What makes it happen The researchers (研究者) did a survey. In baseball, the performance of a player is less dependent on teammates. They find that when the players depend on each other too much, team performance will go down when there is too much talent. If a basketball star is, for example, trying to get a high personal point. He may take a shot (投篮) himself when it would be better to pass the ball to a teammate. Young children learning to play team sports are often told. “There is no 1 in TEAM.” However, stars usually do not follow this rule.
Another situation is that when there is a lot of talent on a team, some players may work less hard. Just as it is a game of tug-of-war (拔河比赛). When one more person joins, everyone else pulls the rope less hard.
Building up a dream team is more difficult than simply having the best talent. An A-team may need balance-not just A players, but also a few B players.
27. How does the writer lead in the topic
A. By telling a story. B. By doing a survey. C. By asking a question. D. By giving an example.
28. What can we learn from the recent studies
A. 70% of the sports teams hire talented players.
B. Talented players don’t follow the rules of the game.
C. Basketball players hardly depend on their teammates.
D. Too many stars are not always good for a football team.
29. What does the writer mean by the underlined sentence in Paragraph 3
A. Every player is independent. B. A team needs to pull together.
C. Talented players play an important role. D. Everyone should listen to the team owner.
30. Which of the following shows the structure of the passage (P=Paragraph)
A. B. C. D.
第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A-E五个选项中选出正确的选项（选项中有一项是多余项）。
During the busy school day, students often look forward to their 15-minute break. It’s a short time, but it can work in how they feel and how well they learn.
________
After sitting in class for a long time, students’ bodies and minds need a break. During the 15-minute break, students can move their legs, take a deep breath, and relax. This short break helps them feel fresh.
________
The 15-minute break is also a great time for students to socialize (社交). It’s a chance to catch up with friends, share stories, and laugh together. Making friends and building relationships is a key part of the school experience, and short breaks give them the chance (机会) to do just that.
________
For some students, the 15-minute break is a time to prepare for the next class. They might read their notes, put their books, or ask a teacher a quick question. This short period can help them get ready for the next lesson.
________
Sometimes, the 15-minute break can make students more creative. Students might come up with new ideas for a school project or write a short poem. It’s amazing how a little bit of free time can unlock their imagination.
In the end, the 15-minute break is more than just a break in the school day. It’s a time to relax, make friends, get ready and refresh. So, the next time you have a break, make the most of it!
A. A Time to Relax B. A Window for Life C. A Moment to Prepare D. A Space for Creativity E. A Chance to Socialize
31. ________
32. ________
33. ________
34. ________
35. Do you think the 15-minute break is important Why (不超过20词)
________________________________
第三部分 语言运用
第一节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面的短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
At the age of thirteen, I volunteered at a local hospital in my city. I worked about twenty to thirty ____36____ a week during the winter. Most of the time I spent there was with Mr. Green. He never had any visitors. ____37____ seemed to care about his health.
I spent many days there holding his hand and ____38____ to him. He became my close friend, though he only squeezed (捏) my ____39____ from time to time. Mr. Green was in a coma (昏迷).
I left for a week to vacation with my parents, and when I ____40____, Mr. Green was gone. I didn’t have the ____41____ to ask the nurses where he was. I was afraid that they might tell me he had ____42____.
Several years later, I was at the bus station when I ____43____ a familiar (熟悉的) face. I asked him if he was Mr. Green, and if he had been in a coma five years ago. With an ____44____ look on his face, he replied yes wonderingly. I ____45____ how I knew him and that I had spent many hours talking with him in the hospital. His eyes became wet and he gave me the ____46____ hug I had ever received.
He began to tell me how he could hear me talking to him and could ____47____ me holding his hand the whole time. He thought it was an angel who was there with him. He ____48____ believed that it was my voice and touch that had kept him alive.
____49____ I haven’t seen him ever since he fills my heart with happiness every day. I know that I made a ____50____ between his life and his death. I will never forget him and what he did for me: he made me an angel.
36. A. seconds B. minutes C. hours D. days
37. A. Anybody B. Nobody C. Everybody D. Somebody
38. A. listening B. reporting C. writing D. talking
39. A. nose B. hand C. arm D. face
40. A. came back B. went out C. looked up D. ran away
41. A. interest B. way C. courage D. energy
42. A. died B. returned C. forgotten D. disappeared
43. A. remembered B. hit C. made D. noticed
44. A. uncertain B. unusual C. uncomfortable D. unhealthy
45. A. asked B. said C. decided D. understood
46. A. quickest B. saddest C. warmest D. luckiest
47. A. feel B. see C. find D. leave
48. A. easily B. strongly C. suddenly D. hardly
49. A. Because B. If C. And D. Although
50. A. mistake B. wish C. decision D. difference
第二节 词汇运用（共15小题，每一题1分，共计15分）
用方框中所给单词的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。
worry depend on daily communicate condition
These days, many people feel stressed and worried. This ____51____ affects (影响) not only our health but also our lives. To lower stress, it’s important to understand that different ways work for different people. It all ____52____ what fits you best.
One useful way to lower stress is ____53____ with someone you trust. Talking to a friend or family member can help you share your problems and get help. Sometimes, just showing your ____54____ can make you feel better.
Another useful way is to keep the ____55____ activities you enjoy. It can be reading a book, going for a walk, or practicing a hobby. These activities can help you relax.
阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。
Nezha, a traditional character in Chinese fairy stories, is a symbol of courage and self-belief. His story teaches us that even when we face challenges (挑战), we can win by believing in ____56____ (我们自己).
Once upon a time, Nezha was born with great powers (力量), but he faced many difficulties. When he was young, he often felt ____57____ (紧张) about using his powers because he didn’t want to hurt anyone. He would ____58____ (想象) the worst possible situation, which made him even more worried. However. Nezha decided to face his fears and learn to control his abilities.
One day, Nezha was ____59____ (独自) by the sea. He was practicing his powers when he accidentally ____60____ (造成) a large wave (海浪). The wave brought him Ao Bing, the third son of the Dragon King. Nezha fought with Ao Bing and won.
After the battle, Nezha felt that it was a really big ____61____ (头疼) to control his power, but he didn’t give up.
Ho knew he had to become stronger. He made a ____62____ (决定) to train harder and learn to control his powers better. Nezha believed in his ____63____ (自己的) abilities and knew that he could save the world.
____64____ (第二), Nezha’s story tells of the importance of self-belief. Nezha sent a ____65____ (信息) to everyone: no matter how scared we feel, we can always find the way to deal with the problems. Just like Nezha says, no matter how dangerous the road is. I will face it.
第三节：语法填空（共10题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Are you worried about past mistakes Did you let your friends down Sometimes, we think about these things too much. It makes ____66____ (we) feel worried and tired. Cooking can be ____67____ great help for mental health (心理健康). It makes people feel in control and happy again.
Julie Ohana, a social worker, ____68____ (mix) her love for cooking with talk therapy (谈话疗法). She believes that the kitchen can start a change in people’s lives. “The kitchen provides a chance ____69____ people to find a moment for change,” said Ohana.
Talk therapy is like talking to a special friend. This friend is good at listening. You can share your ____70____ (feel), thoughts and problems with this friend. Then, he or she can give you advice to help you feel ____71____ (happy) and more confident. It is a safe and helpful way ____72____ (solve) problems that are troubling you. Ohana found that doing sessions (治疗) in the kitchen can make things move faster. “Cooking offers satisfaction as you make ____73____ (dish),” Ohana added. She uses cooking to help people relax.
She starts by learning about ____74____ food people like to eat and how they like to cook it. Then, they prepare dishes together.
Ohana thinks it’s important that _____75_____ a person is cooking, they pay close attention (注意力) to the process.
Like art or music therapy, cooking is about the process, not just the result. She thinks that making meals, while being highly focused, is a very special and important experience.
第四部分：书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
76. 作为青少年，我们常因某些生活琐事而心情低落，比如一场考试、一次生病、一次吵架等等。如果我们能用积极的心态和方式去处理，所有的事情都会迎刃而解。假设你校将开展以“Don’t Worry. Be Happy”为主题的英文演讲活动。请你结合自身具体经历写一篇演讲稿，词数要求80词左右。
内容包括：
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学业质量检测2025（初二下）
英语试题卷
考生须知：
欢迎参加考试!请你认真审题，积极思考，细心答题，发挥最佳水平。答题时请注意以下几点：
1.全卷共8页，76题。全卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2.全卷分为卷Ⅰ（选择题）和卷Ⅱ（非选择题）两部分，答案必须写在答题纸相应的位置上，写在试题卷、草稿纸上均无效。
3.答题前，认真阅读答题纸上的《考生须知》，按规定答题。
祝你成功!
第一部分 听力理解（共三节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试题的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
【1题答案】
【答案】C
【2题答案】
【答案】A
【3题答案】
【答案】A
【4题答案】
【答案】C
【5题答案】
【答案】B
第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试题的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
【6~7题答案】
【答案】6. A 7. B
【8~10题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. C 10. C
第三节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
【11~15题答案】
【答案】11. A 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. C
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中选出最佳选项。
A
【16~18题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. A 18. D
B
【19~22题答案】
【答案】19. C 20. D 21. A 22. B
C
【23~26题答案】
【答案】23. C 24. A 25. C 26. B
D
【27~30题答案】
【答案】27. C 28. D 29. B 30. A
第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
【31~35题答案】
【答案】31. A 32. E
33. C 34. D
35. Yes. Because I will listen to the teacher more carefully in the next class.
第三部分 语言运用
第一节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
【36~50题答案】
【答案】36. C 37. B 38. D 39. B 40. A 41. C 42. A 43. D 44. A 45. B 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. D 50. D
第二节 词汇运用（共15小题，每一题1分，共计15分）
【51~55题答案】
【答案】51. condition
52. depends on
53. to communicate##communicating
54. worries##worry
55. daily
【56~65题答案】
【答案】56. ourselves
57. nervous
58. imagine
59. alone 60. caused
61. headache
62. decision
63. own 64. Second##Secondly
65. message
第三节：语法填空（共10题，每小题1分，满分10分）
【66~75题答案】
【答案】66. us 67. a##of
68. mixes 69. for
70. feelings
71. happier
72. to solve
73. dishes 74. what##the
75. when##while
第四部分：书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
【76题答案】
【答案】例文：
Good morning, everyone! Today, I want to talk about “Don’t Worry. Be Happy.” Last month, I failed a math test. I was so worried that I even lost interest in studying. However, I decided to face it bravely. I asked my teacher for help and made a new study plan. Day by day, I improved my grades.
Life is full of trouble. But worrying doesn’t solve problems. As the saying goes, “Every cloud has a silver lining!” Let’s be happy and work hard. We’ll surely deal with all the problems well.

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