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东湖高新区2024-2025 学年度下学期期中质量检测
八年级 英语试卷
2025 年 4 月 17 日
第Ⅰ卷 (选择题共85分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面 5 个问题，每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5 秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. At home. B. I have a fever. C. It’s OK.
2. A. No problem. B. 5 years ago. C. In March
3. A. An actor. B. All right. C. Watching TV.
4. A. I don’t like it B. Playing soccer. C. My parents.
5. A. An animal helper. B. Bread. C. Excited.
第二节 (共7小题，每小题1分，满分7分)
听下面 7 段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
6. What happens to the woman
A. She has a cold. B. She has a sore back. C. She breaks her leg.
7. How was the weather yesterday
A. Sunny. B. Cloudy C. Rainy.
8. What are they talking about
A. Chores. B. Volunteer work C. Schoolwork.
9. What does the girl’s father mean
A. She can’t go out for dinner. B. She has to visit her cousin Kate
C. She should finish her homework first.
10. Where are the two speakers
A. At home B. In a library. C. On the street.
11. Who might drive Lucy to the museum
A. Her father. B. Her mother. C. She herself.
12. What will Peter do this weekend
A. B. C.
第三节 (共13小题，每小题1分，满分13分)
听下面 4 段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话和独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答 13 至 15 三个小题。
13. What’s wrong with Jim
A. He has a headache. B. He has a stomachache. C. He has a toothache
14. When did Jim get ill
A. A day ago. B. Two days ago. C. Three days ago.
15. What does the doctor mean
A. Jim can go to school. B. Jim should stay in hospital. C. Jim needs to eat light food.
听下面一段对话，回答 16 至 18 三个小题。
16. Why is Laura at the bicycle shop
A. She’s waiting for her father. B. Her bicycle is broken down. C. She works there
17. Why does John want to buy a bicycle
A. To join a bicycle club. B. To ride to work. C. To train for a race
18. What does Laura advise John to buy
A. A used bike. B. A touring bike C. A racing bike.
听下面一段对话，回答 19 至 21 三个小题。
19. What’s the relationship between the speakers
A. Friends. B. Strangers. C. Brother and sister
20. Where are they going first next Sunday afternoon
A. To the theater. B. To the museum. C. To the park
21. Which is true about Jerry
A. He took classes last weekend. B. He had a wonderful weekend.
C. He has never been to the museum.
听下面一段独白，回答 22 至 25 四个小题。
22. What happened to the three boys on a cold day
A. They spent the night outdoors. B. They found some horses. C. They lost their way
23. What did the boys ask the farmer to do
A. Let them sleep in his house. B. Help them out of the forest. C. Give them some water.
24. Why did Tom knock (敲) at the door
A. He couldn’t stand the smell. B. He fought with the horses. C. He missed his friends.
25. Why were all the horses outside the door
A. The horses liked staying in the cold.
B. Jack needed to clean up the house.
C. Jack drove the horses out.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
从题中所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。将代表该答案的字母在答题卡上相应的位置涂黑。
26. —Did you hear that Mike fell and hurt his knee
— ____________. He should go to see the doctor at once.
A. I’m afraid not B. Sounds bad C. Be careful next time D. It’s not a big deal
27. —Could you return these books for me
— ____________. I’m going to the library anyway.
A. With pleasure B. I’m not sure C. That’s too bad D. Don’t worry
28. —Shall we go hiking or visit the new museum this weekend
— ____________. Either is OK
A. Let’s go hiking B. I prefer staying at home
C. It depends on you D. Let’s check the weather first
29. —Our country has put more money into building schools.
—It’s ____________ to have every child get education.
A. fair B. easy C. clear D. special
30. —The volunteers ____________ the runners some free water and food.
—I was so touched by the warmth of this city.
A. returned B. offered C. threw D. bought
31. —We should put on thick coats ____________ the temperature drops, or we might catch a cold.
—Good advice! Being prepared is always better than getting sick.
A. since B. though C. unless D. until
32. —I want to join the school science club, but I’m worried about my study
—You needn’t ____________ fun activities. Just plan your time well
A. put off B. take up C. look for D. cut out
33. —My sister won’t go to the movies and ____________ will I.
—You should go, or you’ll miss a great story.
A. so B. either C. neither D. never
34. —I feel so nervous about the coming piano competition.
—Don’t get troubled by the ____________. You can think of it as a self-improvement.
A. result B. pressure C. danger D. decision
35. The saying “No sooner said than done” tells us ____________.
A. how soon should we take action B. what should we say and do
C. why we should take action at once D. that we should act quickly
三、完形填空 (共 15 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
“Found Oreo! Near the garden! COME NOW! “
“On my way!” I replied, heading for the garden the minute I saw the 36
“How’s everything going now ” When I arrived, Lyra seemed to get everything ready
“Good! It only took me a few minutes to find him. I hope this will be a good 37 for us.” Lyra said in a low voice in order not to scare Oreo away.
I first 38 Ore o two weeks ago during my daily dog walking. My dog Mochi was always shy. She had a great dislike for other animals and never 39 them to get close. So, when we saw a cat lying behind a tree, we tried to pass by in 40 .
But the cat noticed us. He 41 himself on his front legs. Then he just sat there, with his head swinging from side to side. When we walked farther, he began to follow us. We walked on the sidewalk while the cat was making his way 42 the grassland.
In the next few days, the cat continued to join us. Since he was a 43 black and white cat, I decided to name him Oreo.
As time went by, we 44 a special friendship. Whenever I walked Mochi, Oreo showed up halfway and followed 45 we got home. The cat enjoyed jumping out 46 onto the road. This made Mochi afraid at first. But as she got used to it, Oreo couldn’t 47 her any more. Perhaps these two animals 48 their own way of communication and got on well with each other.
Finally I decided to adopt (领养) him and today was the big day. Lyra was helping me 49 the cat. She placed a cage with some food in it. Much to our surprise, Oreo walked into the cage peacefully. He looked at us with his big bright eyes, as if asking “Now what ”
We got home together. Seeing the cat lying lazily on my sofa, I began to 50 who was really adopting whom
36. A. story B. message C. reason D. answer
37. A. information B. notice C. report D. sign
38. A. met B. walked C. chose D. helped
39. A. told B. prepared C. advised D. allowed
40. A. silence B. joy C. surprise D. interest
41. A. trained B. raised C. caught D. pushed
42. A. onto B. over C. through D. under
43. A. strong B. clear C. typical D. crazy
44. A. ended B. kept C. built D. changed
45. A. until B. before C. though D. after
46. A. slowly B. suddenly C. heavily D. quietly
47. A. interest B. find C. mind D. shock
48. A. waited for B. worked out C. gave up D. looked for
49. A. feed B. clean C. drive D. catch
50. A. wonder B. imagine C. explain D. realize
四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Split Fiction: Enjoy Art While Playing The new video game Split Fiction has received many likes since it came out on March 7, 2025. Players can experience creative magic and amazing science fiction (科幻) in this game. “Anyone who has played it agrees it’s a feast (盛宴) of art, “ a player says, “Every scene (场景) feels like a living picture. I’m completely lost in it.” _________________________________ Traditional Chinese lacquer (漆器) art, once used for fans, is now part of daily life! Young people are making lacquer phone covers and bags by painting them with shiny, colorful lacquer. This cool fashion turns lacquer art into something people can use and share with friends in daily life. It mixes old art and new lifestyle together, making traditional art fun and fresh. AI Art: Helper or Trouble There are many AI art competitions online these days. With the help of AI, common people create pictures by just using words. It allows anyone to make art without years of training. But can we really call AI pictures art since they are only copies of others’ work Will AI help art develop better or kill human’s creativity
51. In which section of the newspaper can we read the news
A. ART. B. SCIENCE C. MUSIC. D. PEOPLE.
52. In Split Fiction, players can ____________.
A. receive many likes B. enjoy beautiful scenes
C. draw pictures themselves D. learn how to use magic
53. What would be the best headline for the second news
A. Fresh Look of Lacquer Art B. Cool Phone Covers
C. Old Art and New Lifestyle D. Colorful Lacquer Fans
54. Which is true about AI art in the third news
A. AI helps artists to get better and better B. AI can create pictures by human’s words
C. People need much training to make AI art. D. People believe in the creativity of AI art
55. What does the news above show
A. Popular art works online. B. The use of AI in daily life.
C. New kinds of art in modern life D. Interesting art performances.
B
“If you need to send messages or e-mails or do something on your phone, do it now.” the tour guide suggested through the loudspeaker. ★ Minutes later, the train reached the snowy mountain area, and our phones lost signal (信号) .
The next morning, as the sun rose over the land, I woke up in the train and went into the sightseeing area. A new guide who got on the train last night was drinking his morning coffee and calling out over the loudspeaker, “There’s a huge bird! And see those horses! “
Soon the train passed by a large lake and went deep through the mountains. The mountain walls were so close. How I wished I could open the window and reach out to feel those snowy stones! More than once, I stood up to get a closer look.
By evening, when we reached the plains (平原), the guide asked cheerfully, “If anyone has a guitar, bring it to the sightseeing area and let’s have a party!” A passenger took a harmonica (口琴) out of her pocket and began to play, and someone else brought a guitar to join her. The joyful music mixed with people’s talks. “You know, it’s times like this that make me love this world again,” said the man sitting next to me. It turned out you didn’t need a mobile signal to make a connection (联系)
56. Which of the following can be put in ★
A. This was the first time I took a train. B. Some passengers got off the train
C. We started talking with each other happily. D. Everyone laughed and took out the phones.
57. Which picture matches paragraph 3 best
A. B. C. D.
58. What is the correct order of the following events
①saw some animals ②had a party
③passed by a lake ④ reached the mountains area
A. ③②①④ B. ③①④② C. 4③12 D. ④①③②
59. What can be learned from the last paragraph
A. Passengers sang and danced on the train. B. The guide could play the guitar well.
C. People could still had fun even without signal. D. The man sitting next to me lost his phone
60. What could be the best title for the passage
A. An Unbelievable Sightseeing B. A Nice Trip with Friends
C. An Unforgettable Train Journey D. A Special Party with Music
C
Do you like doing homework while listening to music Or will you fold clothes when watching a show Everyone may experience these situations in daily life and this doing-it-all-at-once thing is known as multitasking.
Multitasking means doing more than one activity at a time. In daily life, many of us multitask without even realizing it. But does multitasking really do good to our lives
You may think multitasking saves your time, but the truth is that only 2. 5% of people can multitask well. Studies have found that most people who multitask will spend more time and make more mistakes. That’s because when we multitask, we are overusing (过度使用) the part of our brain that controls thinking and planning. It is hard on our brains. Our brains will get tired, and since we’ re not successfully finishing any one task, we can feel upset and stressed. Instead, if we only deal with one task at a time, we will do a better and more correct job.
However, others may disagree. They think people multitask not only because they want to save time but also because they enjoy it. Some scientists find that multitasking makes people feel more active and have a better sense of participation (参与感) . These good feelings will improve their performance and offer a feeling of satisfaction. Also, multitasking is a modern way of life and an important skill you should learn as you grow up. After all, who doesn’t want to complete more in less time Instead of stopping multitasking, it’s better to learn how to deal with so many tasks well
It seems that multitasking is playing an important role in our lives. But it may not be as useful as you expect. What do you think Should we keep it or drop it
61. Which of the following is multitasking
A. Lily focuses on her homework. B. Tom eats lunch while checking emails.
C. Emma is lost in reading books. D. Peter does nothing but sleep the whole day
62. What does the underlined word “it’ in paragraph 3 refer to
A. Overusing our brains. B. Thinking and planning
C. Finishing a task successfully. D. Feeling upset and stressed.
63. What’s paragraph 4 mainly about
A. The people who prefer multitasking. B. The time when people multitask.
C. The reasons why people multitask D. The results that multitasking brings.
64. What does the writer think of multitasking
A. He thinks it’s useful. B. He’s unsure about it.
C. He thinks it’s unimportant. D. He’s hopeful about it.
65. What is the structure of the passage
A. B. C. D.
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题共40分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
仔细阅读下面短文，用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使短文在结构、句义和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有二个单词或短语是多余的。)
Beavers are known as great builders. They use their strong front teeth to ____________ (66) branches (树枝) and build dams (水坝) . But why do beavers do that
With fat body and short legs, beavers walk ____________ (67) so many animals on land would be happy to have them as a meal. But as great swimmers, beavers can stay under the water for 10 to 15 minutes without ____________ (68). A dam will collect water together and create a deep pond, and this pond will be beavers’ safe ____________ (69). It also ____________ (70) food and living spaces for plants and other small animals.
六、综合填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Astronauts Barry Wilmore and Sunita Williams finally came home from the International Space Station (ISS) after staying there nine months ____________ (71) (long) than planned.
The two astronauts first arrived at the ISS in June 2023 to test Boeing’s new spaceship Starliner NASA wanted them to stay ____________ (72) just one week, but engine problems made the spaceship unsafe for their return. Boeing said the spaceship could still work, but NASA thought the problem was dangerous. They wouldn’t take a ____________ (73) (risky).
The empty Starliner ____________ (74) (fly) back to Earth alone in early September, with Barry and Sunita left behind. Two new astronauts arrived at ISS later and this team of four began ____________ (75) (work) together. They did science experiments (实验), ____________ (76) (fix) things on the station, exercised daily, and even did a spacewalk in their spacesuits! During their stay, Sunita even broke the record for women’s longest time of spacewalk.
Both astronauts stayed calm during ____________ (77) long wait. “This might be my last trip to the ISS,” Sunita said during a ____________ (78) (recently) interview, “That’s a little sad.”
Luckily, they finally returned to Earth on March 18th. However, when everybody cheered for their return, we shouldn’t forget that the nine months’ space life has caused great ____________ (79) (problem) for both their bodies and mind. There will still be a long way ____________ (80) they get a full recovery (恢复) and get back to usual life.
七、书面表达 (共1大题，满分20分)
假如你是李华，你的同学Tom最近觉得学业压力增大，课外活动减少，他非常苦恼。你打算以你的经历和经验，给他写一封邮件，告诉他平衡学习和生活的重要性。
内容提示：
What problems did you face in study and life
How did you deal with the problems
Why is it important to balance (平衡) your study and life
Something more about your advice
注意：文中不得透露个人真实信息；词数 100 词左右；开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Tom,
I’m very happy to hear from you.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Hope everything goes well with you.
Yours
Li Hua
东湖高新区2024-2025 学年度下学期期中质量检测
八年级 英语试卷 参考答案
2025 年 4 月 17 日
一、听力测试 (共25分，每小题1分)
1-5 BACCA 6-10 ACBCA 11-15 BAABA 16-20 CBAAC 21-25 BCAAC
二、选择填空 (共10分，每小题1分)
26-30 BACAB 31-35 ADCBD
三、完形填空 (共15分，每小题1分)
36-40 BDADA 41-45 BCCCA 46-50 BDBDA
四、阅读理解 (共30分，每小题2分)
51-55 ABABC 56-60 DBDCC 61-65 BACBA
五、词与短语填空 (共10分，每小题2分)
66. cut off 67. slowly 68. breathing 69. area 70. provides
六、综合填空 (共10分，每小题1分)
71. longer 72. for 73. risk 74. flew 75. to work / working
76. fixed 77. the 78. recent 79. problems 80. before
七、书面表达 (共 20 分)
One possible version:
Dear Tom,
I’m very happy to hear from you. I learned that you are troubled by heavy study pressure. I had similar experiences last year. I spent my free time studying and I often felt stressed out and lost interest in learning. I tried to come up with some ways to solve the problem. For example, I finished my homework in two hours and then spent an hour playing basketball, which helped me relax and focus better. I also talked with my teachers about my worries. And I advise you to do something you like and take short breaks instead of pushing yourself too hard. Then you’ll become better.
Hope everything goes well with you.
Yours,
Li Hua

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