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济南市 2025 年九年级学业水平考试英语试题
本试卷共 10 页，满分 150 分。考试用时 120 分钟。
注意事项
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用 0.5mm 黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A. Let’s go swimming. B. Don’t worry about the exam. C. Look at the beautiful cup.
2.A. Jenny has short hair. B. Jack wears a black coat. C. Eric wants to be a doctor.
3.A. Did you buy the pen B. Can you close the door C. Is she your new classmate
4.A. I didn’t see the match. B. He doesn’t like milk. C. We shouldn’t be late for school.
5.A. When will they leave B. How did you go to school C. Who did he go with
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. When will the sports meeting take place
A. This Tuesday. B. This Thursday. C. This Friday.
7. What is the weather like today
A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Cloudy.
8. How did Joe go to Jinan
A. By car. B. By airplane. C. By train.
9. What does Jim think of the movie
A. Interesting. B. Special. C. Moving.
10. Where are the two speakers
A. In the library. B. In the museum. C. In the market.
第三节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. What does Susan invite Tim to do tomorrow
A. Go boating. B. Take a soccer class. C. Play basketball.
12. How long has Tim been learning to play soccer
A. For 7 weeks. B. For 7 months. C. For 7 years.
13. What does Tim’s father do
A. He is a tennis coach. B. He is a basketball coach. C. He is a soccer player.
14. What do we know about Tim
A. He is hard - working. B. He is talented. C. He is honest.
15. What is Susan’s dream
A. To be a music teacher. B. To perform at a concert. C. To go to a music school.
第四节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. Why did the speaker want to grow sunflowers and tomatoes in the garden
A. Because they tasted good. B. Because they were cheap to buy.
C. Because they were easy to grow.
17. What did the speaker and Dad do first when they got home
A. They prepared the soil. B. They dug small holes. C. They watered the plants.
18. Who stepped on the speaker’s planting area by accident
A. Her friend. B. Her dog. C. Her father.
19. How did the speaker feel after her hard work paid off
A. Crazy. B. Surprised. C. Excited.
20. What did the speaker learn from the experience
A. She learned the importance of family.
B. She learned the importance of patience.
C. She learned that planting the garden was painful.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节 阅读理解（共 20 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Starting from December 17, 2024, China allows eligible (符合条件的) visitors from 54 countries to enjoy the new China’s visa - free transit policy (过境免签政策). Those visitors are allowed a stay of 240 hours in 24 provinces in China. Since the policy was introduced, many of my foreign friends have told me that they want to travel to China during their holidays. So I’ve prepared a China travel guide for them! China Travel Guide About languages In China, most people speak Chinese. It will be helpful to learn a few simple Chinese phrases like “ni hao” (hello), “zai na” (where is it), and “xie xie ni” (thank you). Use a translation app if you need help. About the hotel Book your hotel room before you arrive. Check the hotel’s website for instructions or call the hotel to make sure it can receive international visitors. About transportation Use map apps to get around. For long trips, buy tickets from the 12306 CHINA RAILWAY or the app. For short trips, take the subway, bus or taxi, or ride a shared bike. About tipping (给小费) In China, you do not need to give the waiters tips separately. Tipping is not common. Some places may add a service charge (费用) to your bill.
21.When did China put the new visa - free transit policy into effect
A. On December 7th, 2024. B. On December 17th, 2024.
C. On January 17th, 2025. D. On January 24th, 2025.
22.How many provinces can eligible visitors visit according to the new policy
A. 12. B. 24. C. 26. D. 34.
23.Why does a foreigner need to call the hotel before arriving
A. To make sure of its acceptance. B. To get the way to the hotel.
C. To learn about some hotel rules. D. To ask about the hotel’s history.
24.What does the text suggest for short trips in China
A. Using a shared car. B. Buying tickets online.
C. Taking public transportation. D. Booking the hotel on a map app.
25.Who is the text written for
A. People who like making friends. B. People who want to learn Chinese.
C. People who focus on hotel management. D. People who are planning a trip to China.
B
Last weekend, my dad and I rode to a town which was 45 kilometers away. And we had a meaningful day.
When we arrived there, we were so hungry and planned to have lunch first. At a local restaurant, a mother and her daughter sat at the table next to ours. Later, we saw them again in the town square, where we rested on a bench (长椅). While talking with my dad about the day’s ride, I saw them leave. However, I was surprised to find the girl’s bag was still on the bench. Because we were worried they might not realize that it was missing, we decided to wait for them here.
One hour later, the phone in the bag rang. When Dad took it out and saw “Mom” on the screen, he quickly answered the call. The mother, who had returned home, felt relaxed after knowing the safety of the bag. However, she found herself in another bind (窘境). She was worried about the bag again. That was because her daughter needed something in it for school the next day. What’s worse, there was no afternoon bus to the town.
After knowing the situation, Dad found that we would pass by their village on our way home.
“How about delivering (递送) the bag to her ” Dad suggested. I nodded and we set off. After about two hours, we reached their village. The mother and her daughter were waiting on the road to the village. “Thank you so much,” they said to us. I smiled and said, “It is no trouble at all. We’re very glad to help you.”
Finally, we said goodbye and continued our ride home. As the sun set, my heart was filled with pride. This cycling trip was not only a great way to relax but also a chance to make a positive difference in someone’s life.
26.What did the writer and his father do after that mother and her daughter left
A. They discussed when to ride home. B. They gave the mother a call at once.
C. They waited for the owner of the bag. D. They prepared to buy some history books.
27.When did the mother feel relaxed
A. Before she lost her bag. B. When she arrived at the restaurant.
C. After she saw the bag in the square. D. After she knew the safety of the bag.
28.Why was the mother worried about the bag
A. Because it was expensive. B. Because it was necessary for school.
C. Because it was useful for a trip. D. Because it was a valuable present.
29.What did the writer and his father do with the bag
A. They took it to their own home.
B. They paid no attention to it at all.
C. They handed it over to the policeman.
D. They brought it to the owner in person.
30.How did the writer feel at the end of the trip
A. Proud. B. Confident. C. Angry. D. Bored.
C
Many think that language is what makes humans different from other animals. British researcher Bertrand Russell said that no intelligent thinking can take place without language. However, a recent Nature study shows that the result is different. It found that language and thought are two things, working in separate parts of the brain. They are far more independent than we imagined.
Scientists used several methods to explore the language - thought relationship. First, they studied people with global aphasia (失语症) — they have lost much of their ability to understand or speak because of damage to the left side of their brains. However, they can still complete complex tasks. They can solve math problems or answer hard questions successfully, as long as the instructions are non - verbal (非语言的).
The researchers also used brain - imaging (脑成像) tools to study the brains of healthy volunteers performing non - verbal tasks, like solving problems and planning something. They found that the parts of the brain responsible for language were mostly inactive during such activities. In other words, we generally need language to express our thoughts, but we can still think without words.
So, if language isn’t necessary for thinking, then why did humans develop it Scientists say language mainly serves as a tool for communication. Most of the things that you have learned about the world are acquired through language but not through direct experience with the world. By being able to share complex information through language, humans get a big advantage in surviving in the world.
Although language does not give rise to thoughts, past research shows that how we speak can heavily influence how we think. For example, the English sentence “he fired the gun” is usually said as “the gun went off” in Japanese. As a result, English speakers are more likely to focus on the person responsible for an accident than Japanese speakers, according to Psychology Today.
31.What does the Nature study show about language and thought
A. They are influenced by talking.
B. They prevent each other from working.
C. They work in separate brain parts.
D. They are important in communication.
32.What does the underlined word “complex” mean in Paragraph 2
A. Difficult. B. Useful. C. Simple. D. Interesting.
33.What does the study on healthy volunteers suggest
A. The brain is active when solving problems.
B. Brain damage improves non - verbal thinking.
C. Healthy volunteers cannot think without words.
D. We can think when performing non - verbal tasks.
34.What can we learn from past research
A. Language shapes how people think.
B. Language and thought are separate.
C. Direct experience is better than language learning.
D. The main role of language is to express responsibility.
35.What is the text mainly about
A. The relationship between language and thought.
B. The role of language in cultural differences.
C. The relationship between language and culture.
D. The evolutionary advantage of human communication.
D
In the morning, when you wake up, you turn on the lights. You can hear your mom preparing a shake in the blender. And in the room next door, your dad turns on the washing machine. Every time someone turns on an electrical appliance (电器), he or she leaves a mark. This is called an electricity carbon footprint.
In the modern world, we cannot live without electricity. We use the electricity carbon footprint to show the influence on the environment. The size of our electricity carbon footprint is closely related to the amount of greenhouse gas emissions (排放).
But what is the relationship between greenhouse gases and electrical appliances Well, about 65% of the world’s electricity is made from fossil fuels (like coal, oil and natural gas). Burning fossil fuels produces plenty of greenhouse gases. This causes the Earth to warm up rapidly, leading to climate change. As a result, many natural disasters appear.
Actually, we can help protect the environment by reducing our electricity carbon footprint. Firstly, use electrical appliances that save electrical energy. For example, ask our family if we can use LED lights instead. Secondly, we can use the energy that comes from nature, such as wind power. Thirdly, never forget to unplug (拔掉…… 的电源插头) the electronic devices that are not being used. Besides, turn off the lights when we leave a room. What’s more, avoid using air conditioners. We can use portable (便携式的) fans. Last but not least, it’s necessary to spread the importance of saving electricity. Speak to people around us directly or post something on social media. Call on more people to take action in their daily lives.
36Why does the writer give examples in Paragraph 1
A. To show doubts. B. To give opinions. C. To lead into the topic. D. To express disagreement.
37.What is an electricity carbon footprint according to the text
A. A kind of energy from fossil fuels. B. The electrical power in a home.
C. A mark left by using electrical appliances. D. The total cost of using electrical tools.
38.What is Paragraph 3 mainly about
A. The explanation for climate change.
B. The process of producing electricity from fossil fuels.
C. The introduction to different kinds of natural disasters.
D. The connection between greenhouse gases and electrical appliances.
39.What can we do to make less electricity carbon footprints
①Use wind power. ②Don’t use LED lights. ③Close the tap in time. ④Use fans instead of air conditioners.
A. ①② B. ②③ C. ③④ D. ①④
40.What is the purpose of the text
A. To remind us to save electricity.
B. To tell us how the world uses electricity.
C. To record the history of electrical appliances.
D. To explain how electrical appliances influence us.
第二节 阅读七选五（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
A sense of self - agency (自我能动性) is the freedom to make choices about your life and work. It’s thought that from as early as six weeks old, babies start to show a sense of self - agency. They may begin to make noises on purpose and show some control over their physical movements.
However, that doesn’t always happen. Early experiences or current (当前的) environments may make you feel your opinions or control over life don’t matter. But whatever the reason, a weak sense of self - agency can be a difficult thing to live with. 41 The following may be of some help to you.
Understanding your values can be helpful in getting your achievements. Find out what really matters, both personally and professionally. 42 From there, a greater sense of control over direction is achieved.
Focus on what is in your control. You cannot control everything, and there will be challenges in work or personal life. 43 You can control your attitude, your efforts and your decisions. For example, if you dislike a key part of your job, you might notice that it helps to develop a necessary skill that will help your job. 44 Whatever your starting point, the journey is worth it.
Look for support. If you find it hard to build your sense of self - agency, consider asking for support from a coach or other services. Taking control in this way can also help you to feel you are taking positive action to improve your life experience.
45 With a sense of self - agency, you feel able to make decisions that shape results directly. For example, you can decide to change your plan to one that you believe will lead to personal growth. Self - agency is at the center of the human experience, and you deserve (值得) all of it.
A. Focus on achievements instead of actions. B. So how can you build a sense of self - agency better C. By thinking in this way, you can decide what your next step is. D. Influencing others plays a role in building your self - agency. E. Therefore, it’s important to enjoy the aspects where you can have influence. F. Self - agency is very important to your happiness and sense of self. G. The greatest achievements come when actions and values are connected.
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分 35 分）
第一节 补全对话（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
阅读下面对话，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
A: Good morning, Li Lei. Are you free now
B: Yes, Tom. What’s up
A: I have no idea what to talk about in the speech competition. 46
B: Of course. How about this topic: Animal Protection
A: 47 Do you have any suggestions for protecting wild animals
B: Yes. Firstly, don’t destroy (破坏) forests or rivers. Secondly, throw plastic into bins, not on the ground. Thirdly, never hunt or buy products which are made from wild animals and so on.
A: Wow! You really know a lot. How did you know about this
B: 48 And it helped a lot.
A: What club is it Can anyone join
B: It’s the Wildlife Protection Club. The club welcomes everyone who wants to join.
A: 49
B: You should search for more information about how to protect animals so as to pass the test. After passing the test, you still need to go through a period of practical activities before becoming a member of the club.
A: I see. 50
46.A. Could you give me some advice B. Could you tell me the time of it
C. Could you do some reading for it D. Could you take part in it with me
47.A. That’s right. B. Thank you. C. That sounds good. D. Have a good day.
48.A. I joined a club about that. B. I want to know more about the speech.
C. I feel proud after finishing the exam. D. I did a survey for the competition.
49.A. Why do you want to join this club
B. How long do the activities of the club usually last
C. When did you join the club
D. How can I join this club
50.A. I like what you do. B. You are really helpful.
C. It doesn’t matter. D. I hope you don’t mind.
第二节 完形填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Adam is in the sixth grade. He used not to be interested in science and always 51 science tests. One day, Ms. Li, his science teacher, called him to the 52 and asked, “Why can’t you get good scores in science ” Adam replied, “Because I don’t think it is very 53 in our daily life.” But the teacher didn’t agree with him. “Science is 54 us. You just need to look for it in your daily life.”
On the weekend, Adam visited his grandparents. He saw his grandpa 55 some dry flowers. He asked why these flowers were dry. His grandpa explained, “ 56 these flowers haven’t been watered for a long time, they have dried up and died.” At that time, Ms. Li’s 57 came to Adam’s mind. He started to think maybe science could make a difference.
Adam 58 to turn to Ms. Li for help. Ms. Li advised him to start by knowing how much water 59 plants require. Following Ms. Li’s advice, Adam began to 60 some books about science. He slowly became interested in science. However, Adam faced many difficulties. 61 , he didn’t know the moisture content (水分含量) in the soil. But Adam didn’t 62 . He spent hours searching for information online and did experiments again and again.
After months of hard work, Adam 63 invented a machine that can automatically (自动地) water flowers. This 64 ensured the flowers were watered in time. As a result, his friends and classmates all thought he was a little 65 .
Adam completely changed his mind. Science is important and every small invention can make our lives easier and more convenient.
51. A. attended B. failed C. missed D. prevented
52. A. office B. bank C. garden D. market
53. A. famous B. common C. simple D. helpful
54. A. behind B. around C. during D. over
55. A. hiding B. selling C. throwing D. washing
56. A. Since B. Until C. Although D. Before
57. A. lessons B. words C. ideas D. abilities
58. A. decided B. learned C. promised D. hoped
59. A. strong B. beautiful C. different D. short
60. A. share B. lend C. write D. read
61. A. In fact B. At least C. For example D. At first
62. A. wake up B. cheer up C. grow up D. give up
63. A. successfully B. secretly C. quietly D. directly
64. A. robot B. model C. machine D. tool
65. A. farmer B. scientist C. doctor D. singer
第三节 阅读填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Yesterday, it was Mom’s birthday. I made a (66) (wonder) plan a month ago. I planned to make some delicious pumpkin pies for Mom, as pumpkin pie was her favorite food.
After school, I went to the vegetable - picking garden to pick fresh pumpkins. However, when I (67) (reach) the garden, I noticed a sign at the gate that said “Vegetable - Picking Garden Closed”. At that time, I felt (68) (happy). Suddenly, I remembered the vegetable shop in (69) (we) community might have the pumpkins I needed.
Unluckily, when I got back, the pumpkins in the vegetable shop had been sold out. As my mom would soon be back from work, it was impossible (70) (buy) pumpkins elsewhere within such a short time. At that moment, my mind raced, trying to think of other (71) (way) to celebrate Mom’s birthday. I came up with Plan B. I could cook a bowl of longevity noodles (长寿面) for my mom. Although I hadn’t succeeded (72) cooking noodles before, I decided to challenge myself.
When Mom came back, I handed her (73) bowl of longevity noodles, which made me feel proud. After telling her about my original (起初的) plan, Mom (74) (move) by my thoughts and gave me a big hug.
This experience teaches me when Plan A (75) (go) wrong, I need to get creative and come up with Plan B.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 35 分）
第一节 情境运用（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.A: What do you want to play
B: .
77.A: What were you doing at five yesterday afternoon
B: .
78.A:
B: We’re going to the beach in the summer holiday.
79.A:
B: Of course, Gina. Here you are.
80.A:
B: I like playing the erhu best.
第二节 作文（满分 25 分）
假定你是李华，你校作为优秀示范学校要去乡村学校开展 “手拉手帮扶 (Hand - in - Hand Support)” 活动，你是此次活动的负责人。请你为校英语报写一则通知，介绍此次活动的具体安排。
内容包括：1.时间、地点、参与人员；
2.活动内容；
3.发起号召。
注意：1. 词数 100 左右，标题和开头已给出，不计入总词数；
可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
Notice
Dear students,
答案
第一部分 听力（略，需根据录音原文确定）
1—5BCBCA 6—10AABBC 11—15BCACB 16—20BBCAA
第二部分 阅读
第一节 阅读理解
A 篇：21. B 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D
B 篇：26. C 27. D 28. B 29. D 30. A
C 篇：31. C 32. A 33. D 34. A 35. A
D 篇：36. C 37. C 38. D 39. D 40. A
第二节 阅读七选五：41. B 42. G 43. E 44. C 45. F
第三部分 语言运用
第一节 补全对话：46. A 47. C 48. A 49. D 50. B
第二节 完形填空：51. B 52. A 53. D 54. B 55. C 56. A 57. B 58. A 59. C 60. D 61. C 62. D 63. A 64. C 65. B
第三节 阅读填空：
66. wonderful 67. reached 68. unhappy 69. our 70. to buy 71. ways 72. in 73. a
74. was moved 75. goes
第四部分 写作（情境运用答案为示例，具体需根据图片准确内容调整）
第一节 情境运用（示例）：
76. I want to play football.
77. I was doing my homework.
78. Where are you going in the summer holiday
79. Can I borrow your pen
80. What instrument do you like playing best

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