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2025 年中考临考押题卷（山东济南卷）
英 语
本卷·热点话题：阅读理解 A 篇主要讲了社区为成年成员、年满 18 岁的志愿者、教练或医生提供青少年心
理健康急救课程。阅读理解 B 篇主要介绍如何减少对他人看法的过度关注，并学会自我价值认同的方法。
阅读理解 C 篇讲述了何静成功登顶中国西藏自治区海拔 8027 米的希夏邦马峰，文章描述了何静在攀登高
山中的成就和她为此所做的努力。阅读理解 D 篇主要介绍了“无屏幕周”活动及其支持者和反对者的不同观
点，并展示了两名学生的具体看法。阅读七选五主要从四个方面对中国茶文化进行了深度解析，展现了茶
不仅仅是一种饮品，更是中国价值观的镜像。语法填空讲述了在 2025 年春节联欢晚会上，一场名为
“YangBOT”的特殊表演引起了全球的注意。书面表达以“Science Technology Helps Me Become Better”为写一
篇短文，叙述一次自己利用手机、电脑或某个 app 进行学习活动、体育锻炼或娱乐爱好的经历及感悟，或
谈谈如何在学习和生活中使用现代科技。
本试题共分为四部分, 满分为 150 分, 考试用时 120 分钟。
答题前, 请考生务必将自己的姓名、座号和准考证号填写在答题卡上, 并同时将考点、姓名、
准考证号和座号填写在试卷规定的位置。
答题时, 选择题部分每小题选出答案后, 用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑; 如
需改动, 用橡皮擦干净后, 再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题部分, 用 0.5 毫米黑色签字笔在答
题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答。直接在试题上作答无效。
考试结束后, 将本试题和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节, 满分 30 分）
第一节听录音, 从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。（共 5 小题, 每小
題 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分）
1．
A．Thanks for your gift. B．Let’s go shopping. C．Have a good vacation.
【答案】C
【原文】Have a good vacation.
2．
A．Jack is tall and thin. B．I watched a movie last night. C．Bob likes to eat hamburgers.
【答案】B
【原文】I watched a movie last night.
3．
A．Are you busy after school B．Is that your new teacher C．Have they seen the film
【答案】A
【原文】Are you busy after school
4．
A．She can’t play the guitar.B．He doesn’t wear a suit. C．They didn’t buy anything.
【答案】A
【原文】She can’t play the guitar.
5．
A．How long is the Nile B．How do you make zongzi C．What will happen in 5 years
【答案】B
【原文】How do you make zongzi
第二节在录音中, 你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题, 从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能
回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。（共 5 小题, 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分）
6．How did John get to school yesterday
A．On foot. B．By bike. C．By bus.
【答案】C
【原文】W: How do you get to school, John
M: Well, I usually walk or ride my bike, but I took the bus yesterday.
7．What does Tony do on weekends
A．He reads books. B．He plays football. C．He plays tennis.
【答案】B
【原文】M: What do you do on weekends, Sally
W: I usually read history books. How about you, Tony
M: I often play soccer with my best friends.
8．Whose schoolbag is this
A．It’s Tom’s. B．It’s Mary’s. C．It’s Tom’s sister’s.
【答案】C
【原文】W: Is this your schoolbag, Tom
M: No, it isn’t. It’s my sister’s.
9．Where are the two speakers
A．At a park. B．At a restaurant. C．In a library.
【答案】B
【原文】M: May I take your order
W: Yes. I’d like some tomato and egg soup.
10．Who in the tallest of them
A．Bob. B．Tony. C．Eric.
【答案】A
【原文】W: You are taller than Eric, aren’t you, Tony
M: Yes, but Bob is taller than me.
第三节在录音中, 你将听到一段对话, 对话后有五个小题, 从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答
所给问题的正确答案。听对话前, 你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间; 听完后, 你将有 40 秒钟的答题
时间。对话听两遍。（共 5 小题, 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分）
11．Why did Frank go to China
A．To travel. B．To visit his relatives. C．To learn Chinese.
12．Where did Frank mainly stay in China
A．In Beijing. B．In Shanghai. C．In Suzhou.
13．How long did Frank stay in China
A．For 2 weeks. B．For 4 weeks. C．For 6 weeks.
14．How was the weather when Frank was in China
A．Hot. B．Cool. C．Cold.
15．When will Susan go to China
A．Next year. B．In a month. C．This summer.
【答案】11．C 12．A 13．C 14．B 15．C
【原文】W: Haven’t seen you for months, Frank!
M: Oh, It’s you, Susan! Yes, I’ve just returned from China.
W: China! For what
M: Learning Chinese, of course!
W: I thought you were there traveling or visiting your relatives. Where did you stay there
M: I mainly stayed in Beijing, and traveled to many other cities, such as Shanghai, Suzhou, Nanjing, and so on.
W: How long were you in China For a month
M: Six weeks in fact. I spent four weeks studying and two weeks traveling.
W: How was the weather there Was it cool all year round like in England
M: Not at all. It was very hot in summer and cold in winter. But it was cool when I was there.
W: I know China is a country with a long history, and there are many interesting places. I hope to go there this
summer.
M: Great! Have a good time! I’m sure you’ll like it.
第四节在录音中, 你将听到一篇短文, 短文后有五个小题, 从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答
所给问题的正确答案。听短文前, 你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间; 听完后, 你将有 40 秒钟的答
题时间。短文听两遍。（共 5 小题, 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分）
16．When will the students leave school
A．On June 8th. B．On June 18th. C．On July 18th.
17．How many points at most can the students got
A．20. B．25. C．30.
18．What sports do all of the students have to choose
A．Running. B．Running and throwing balls.C．Long jump and throwing balls.
19．Where can the students practice throwing balls
A．At home. B．On the playground. C．In the gym.
20．What do the students have to bring when practising
A．Water. B．Milk. C．Orange juice.
【答案】16．B 17．C 18．C 19．B 20．A
【原文】
Dear students. You’ll leave school on June 18 this term. But you’ll have a P. E. test ahead. It’s very
important for you. You’ll get 30 points if you do well in the test. This year, it’ll be in April because it’s not too hot
then. Now let me tell you some information about the P. E. test. First, you’ll have to play three kinds of sports,
running, long jump and throwing balls. All of you have to choose long jump and throwing balls. As for running,
boys have to take part in 1500-meter race and 800-meter race is only for girls. Second, you must exercise for an
hour every day from now on. Running is easy and you can practise it everywhere at any time, but it needs patience.
You can practise long jump and throwing balls on the playground. They need skills, but PE. teachers can help and
tell you how to do them best. Finally, you have to bring water with you. If you are thirsty, just drink a little, don’t
drink too much at a time.
Thank you!
第二部分 阅读（共两节, 满分 50 分）
第一节 阅读理解 阅读下列短文, 从每题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中, 选出一个能回答所提问
题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。（共 20 小题, 每小题 2 分, 满分 40 分）
A
The government is paying more attention to youth mental health. With the support for youth mental health
from the government, our community offers training to help teens in crisis (危机). Join us to become a caring
adult!
Welcome to Health First Aid CoursesWHO: For any community adult members, volunteers
(must be over 18 years old), coaches or doctors who communicate with young people.
WHAT: Youth Mental Health First Aid (青少年心理健康急救) is a course that teaches those
who take part in the course about young people’s common mental health.
SUBJECTS: How to help young people actively deal with a mental health crisis.
WHEN:
May 7th &14th 5 p.m.—9 p.m. * must attend both
June 5th 8 a.m.—4:00 p.m. *30-minute lunch break
June 17th 9 a.m.—3:00 p.m. * working lunch
Address: Public Library, Green Ave.
Registration (登记):
①http://
②send an e-mail to Jessica Brown@ highschools.org
③visit Ms. Brown’s office
WHY:
·1 in 10 persons in the community feel sad or hopeless every day.
·Youth who have an adult to go to for help are less likely to hurt themselves.
The course is valued at $170 but now offered at no cost thanks to the Project Mental Health.
21．Who can NOT take part in the course
A．Doctors. B．Coaches over 18 years old.
C．Volunteers under 18 years old. D．All the community adult members.
22．How long does the course on June 5th last
A．30 minutes. B．4 hours. C．6 hours. D．8 hours.
23．How many ways are mentioned for people to register the course
A．One. B．Two. C．Three. D．Four.
24．What is the main purpose of the Youth Mental Health First Aid course
A．To teach young people how to solve mental health problems alone.
B．To train adults to help youth during mental health crises.
C．To provide medical treatment for mentally ill teenagers.
D．To organize social activities for community volunteers.
25．Where can we probably read this passage
A．On a community website. B．In a travel guide. C．On a school website. D．In a
storybook.
【答案】21．C 22．D 23．C 24．B 25．A
【导语】本文是一篇应用文，主要讲了社区为成年成员、年满 18 岁的志愿者、教练或医生提供青少年心
理健康急救课程，介绍了课程内容、时间、地点、三种报名方式及免费原因，旨在培训成年人帮助青少年
应对心理危机。
21．细节理解题。根据“WHO: For any community adult members, volunteers (must be over 18 years old),
coaches or doctors who communicate with young people.”可知，志愿者需年满 18 岁，因此 18 岁以下的志愿
者不能参加。故选 C。
22．细节理解题。根据“June 5th 8a.m.—4:00 p.m. *30-minute lunch break”可知，课程从 8 点到 16 点共 8 小
时，午休 30 分钟不影响总时长。故选 D。
23．推理判断题。根据“Registration: ①http:// ②send an e-mail to ... ③visit Ms. Brown’s office”
可知，提到了网站、邮件、办公室拜访三种报名方式。故选 C。
24．细节理解题。根据“WHAT: Youth Mental Health First Aid is a course that teaches those who take part in the
course about young people’s common mental health.”及“SUBJECTS: How to help young people actively deal
with a mental health crisis.”可知，课程旨在培训成年人帮助青少年应对心理危机。故选 B。
25．推理判断题。根据“http:// ”以及文章主要介绍社区提供的青少年心理健康急救课程，
面向社区成年成员等，且包含社区相关信息，可知最可能出现在社区网站。故选 A。
B
Being concerned (焦虑的) about what other people think about us is very common. However, we shouldn’t
spend so much time caring about others’ opinions.
In fact, if we always worry about how others see us because of what we do, we can’t get something done.
So, how can we learn not to attach too much importance to others’ views Well, the answer is learning to value
ourselves. We should live our lives for ourselves. This is easier said than done, but there are a few ways to go
about doing this.
First, we should remember that our biggest judges (裁 判 ) are ourselves. If we have a low opinion of
ourselves, then we think that others feel the same way about us. To get over this, British therapist (心理治疗师)
Chloe Brotheridge wrote in Psychology Today that we should “learn to love ourselves”. For example, you can
make a list of the things you’re good at and practice them every day. You can also spend more time with people
who love you. These things can help you feel b... about yourself.
Second, as Brotheridge wrote, “We sometimes can’t control the way other people react (反应) to us, no
matter how hard we try.” By realizing this, you can learn to focus more on things that make you excellent.
At the same time, however, we shouldn’t completely take no notice of how we behave when we are with
other people. So, the best thing to remember is to always be nice to others. If you do this, you won’t need to worry
about how others will see you.
26．What do the underlined words “attach too much importance to” mean in Paragraph 2
A．Look for. B．Pay too much attention to.
C．Blow out. D．Put up.
27．Who are the biggest judges for us according to the text
A．Our best friends. B．Ourselves.
C．Our parents. D．Our teachers.
28．What is the proper word in the sentence “These things can help you feel b... about yourself.”
A．Bad. B．Bored. C．Better. D．Blind.
29．Which of the following will the writer probably agree with
A．We should take no notice of our behaviors completely.
B．We should try to control other people’s reaction to us.
C．We should always think about others’ views.
D．We can learn to focus more on things that make us excellent.
30．What is the best title for the text
A．Learn to value ourselves B．Learn to care about others
C．Learn to work with others D．Learn to be nice to others
【答案】26．B 27．B 28．C 29．D 30．A
【导语】本文主要介绍如何减少对他人看法的过度关注，并学会自我价值认同的方法。
26．词句猜测题。根据上文“However, we shouldn’t spend so much time caring about others’ opinions.”以及“In
fact, if we always worry about how others see us because of what we do, we can’t get something done.”以及下文
介绍如何减少对他人看法的过度关注，并学会自我价值认同的方法可知，此处与“过度关注他人看法”有关。
故选 B。
27．细节理解题。根据“First, we should remember that our biggest judges (裁判) are ourselves.”可知，我们最
大的评判者是我们自己。故选 B。
28．推理判断题。根据上文“For example, you can make a list of the things you’re good at and practice them every
day. You can also spend more time with people who love you.”可知，此处为积极意向的建议，应是会产生积极
的影响，C 项符合。故选 C。
29．推理判断题。根据“you can learn to focus more on things that make you excellent.”可知，作者最有可能同
意我们可以学会更多地关注那些让我们变得优秀的事情。故选 D。
30．最佳标题题。根据“Well, the answer is learning to value ourselves.”并通读全文可知，本文主要介绍如何
减少对他人看法的过度关注，并学会自我价值认同的方法，A 项符合。故选 A。
C
He Jing is 37. She’s from Xi’an in Shaanxi province. She reached the top of the 8,027-meter Mount
Shishapangma in China’s Xizang autonomous region on October 9, 2024. She has become the first person from
China and the third woman in the world to climb to the tops of all 14 of the world’s peaks (峰顶) over 8,000
meters without the use of oxygen (氧气).
He Jing didn’t start mountaineering until she was 18. Her first climb, in 2006, was in the Qinling
Mountains, and since then she has had a great love for it. In 2012, He Jing tried her first mountain over 5,000
meters—Mount Siguniang in Sichuan province. Since then, He Jing has been dedicated to climbing high-altitude
(高海拔) peaks. She reached the top of her first 8,000-meter peak, Mount Cho Oyu, in 2016, using just one bottle
of oxygen. After that, she decided to try future climbs without oxygen.
Climbing without oxygen can be dangerous. To prepare, He Jing trained hard, running at least five times a
week, climbing 200 flights of stairs with a 20-kilogram load three times weekly, and using a special mask to
simulate (模拟) high-altitude conditions.
On September 25, 2017, she successfully reached the top of Mount Manaslu in Nepal without oxygen for
the first time. On May 14, 2022, He Jing became the first Chinese woman to reach the top of Mount Qomolangma
from the south side without using bottled oxygen.
“I didn’t set many goals for myself,” she said. “I simply love to achieve my dreams, one step at a time. I
enjoy both the climbing process and the view from the top.”
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31．How many peaks are over 8,000 meters in the world
A．Eight. B．Ten. C．Twelve. D．Fourteen.
32．What can we learn from paragraph 2
A．When He Jing fell in love with mountain climbing.B．How He Jing prepared for climbing without
oxygen.
C．Why He Jing chose to climb without using oxygen. D．Which high-altitude peak He Jing decided to
climb.
33．What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 2 refer to
A．Climbing. B．Hiking. C．Walking. D．Oxygen.
34．What can we know about He Jing from the passage
A．She is an environmental protector. B．She is a person with a strong will.
C．She enjoys travelling around the world. D．She aims to be rich and successful.
35．What’s the passage mainly about
A．The reasons why He Jing loves climbing. B．Famous mountains around the world.
C．He Jing’s achievements in climbing. D．He Jing’s plans for the future climbs.
【答案】31．D 32．A 33．A 34．B 35．C
【导语】本文讲述了何静成功登顶中国西藏自治区海拔 8027 米的希夏邦马峰，文章描述了何静在攀登高
山中的成就和她为此所做的努力。
31．细节理解题。根据文中“all 14 of the world’s peaks over 8,000 meters”可知，世界上有 14 座超过 8000 米
的山峰，故选 D。
32．细节理解题。根据文中“He Jing didn’t start mountaineering until she was 18. Her first climb, in 2006, was in
the Qinling Mountains, and since then she has had a great love for it.”可知，我们可以了解到何静何时爱上登山，
故选 A。
33．词句猜测题。根据“Her first climb, in 2006, was in the Qinling Mountains, and since then she has had a great
love for it.”可知，2006 年，她第一次攀登秦岭，从那时起，她就非常喜欢它，it 应指代“攀登”，故选 A。
34．推理判断题。从文章中何静不使用氧气攀登高山、努力训练等内容可以看出，她是一个意志坚定的人，
故选 B。
35．主旨大意题。文章描述了何静在攀登高山中的成就和她为此所做的努力，故选 C。
D
In many countries, people celebrate Screen-Free Week. It is on the first week of May every year. People are
encouraged to turn off screens during the week.
Supporters of Screen-Free Week say turning off tech devices (设备) is good for kids. According to a study,
kids slept better and got better grades when their parents limited (限制) their screen time. Also, some people think
Screen-Free Week can help kids develop a good habit. They point out that many kids who took part in the event in
the past now spend less time using tech devices.
However, not everyone supports the idea. Some people argue that screen time is OK as long as kids don’t
overdo (滥用) it. Also, others say turning off tech devices completely for a week won’t teach kids how to balance
(兼顾) screen time with other activities.
Here’s what two students think:
YES! Kids spend too much time in front of screens. According to a study, kids spend about seven hours a
day in front of TVs, computers and other devices. Instead of sitting around playing video games, kids should be
more active. They can make art, play sports or hang out with friends and family.
DAVID
NO! Not all screen time is bad for kids. There are many educational television shows, apps and websites
which help kids learn. Also, In many countries, people celebrate Screen-Free Week. It is on the first week of May
every year. People are encouraged to turn off screens during the week.
Supporters of Screen-Free Week say turning off tech devices (设备) is good for kids. According to a study,
kids slept better and got better grades when their parents limited (限制) their screen time. Also, some people think
Screen-Free Week can help kids develop a good habit. They point out that many kids who took part in the event in
the past now spend less time using tech devices.
However, not everyone supports the idea. Some people argue that screen time is OK as long as kids don’t
overdo (滥用) it. Also, others say turning off tech devices completely for a week won’t teach kids how to balance
(兼顾) screen time with other activities.
Here’s what two students think:
YES! Kids spend too much time in front of screens. According to a study, kids spend about seven hours a
day in front of TVs, computers and other devices. Instead of sitting around playing video games, kids should be
more active. They can make art, play sports or hang out with friends and family.
DAVID
NO! Not all screen time is bad for kids. There are many educational television shows, apps and websites
which help kids learn. Also, it can be a way for kids to relax after a long day at school. And some kids use screens
to communicate with friends and family who live far away. It would be unfair to ask kids to give up all screen
time.
EMILY
36．When is Screen-Free Week
A．It’s on the last week of May every year. B．It’s on the first week of May every year.
C．It’s on the first week of April every year.D．It’s on the last week of April every year.
37．What do supporters of Screen-Free Week think of turning off tech devices
A．It’s bad for kids’ eyes. B．It can help kids get more sleep.
C．It can help kids develop a good habit. D．It can help kids communicate better with others.
38．What does David think kids should do
A．They should spend more time on screens.
B．They should watch more educational shows.
C．They should play video games instead of doing sports.
D．They should be more active and less dependent on screens.
39．What does Emily think
A．All screen time is bad for kids.
B．Kids should give up all screen time.
C．Screen time can be beneficial for kids in some ways.
D．Kids should only use screens to communicate with others.
40．What is the main idea of the passage
A．To introduce Screen-Free Week and different opinions about it.
B．To encourage kids to take part in Screen-Free Week.
C．To tell kids how to balance screen time with other activities.
D．To show the disadvantages of too much screen time.
【答案】36．B 37．C 38．D 39．C 40．A
【导语】本文是一篇议论文，主要介绍了“无屏幕周”活动及其支持者和反对者的不同观点，并展示了两名
学生的具体看法。
36．细节理解题。根据文章第 1 段“It is on the first week of May every year.”可知，“无屏幕周”的时间是五月
的第一周。故选 B。
37．细节理解题。根据文章第 2 段“Supporters of Screen-Free Week say turning off tech devices is good for
kids… Also, some people think Screen-Free Week can help kids develop a good habit.”可知，支持者认为这一活
动能帮助孩子养成好习惯。故选 C。
38．观点态度题。根据 David 的观点“Instead of sitting around playing video games, kids should be more active.
They can make art, play sports or hang out with friends and family.”可知，David 认为孩子应减少对屏幕的依赖
并更活跃。故选 D。
39．观点态度题。根据 Emily 的观点“Not all screen time is bad for kids… There are many educational television
shows, apps and websites which help kids learn.”可知，Emily 认为屏幕时间在某些方面对孩子有益。故选 C。
40．主旨大意题。全文通过介绍“无屏幕周”活动，列举支持者（如改善睡眠、培养习惯）和反对者（如合
理使用屏幕的益处）的观点，并展示两名学生的不同态度，主要目的是介绍该活动及相关争议。故选 A。
第二节 阅读理解七选五 （共 5 小题, 每小题 2 分, 满分 10 分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。
Tea is more than leaves in water—it’s a mirror of Chinese values. When you hold a teacup, you’re not just
drinking a beverage—you’re tasting 5,000 years of wisdom.
A Gift from Nature: Harmony (和谐) with the World
For thousands of years, tea has symbolized China’s connection to nature—tea grows in mountains, rain,
and soil, showing how humans and nature depend on each other. 41
Tea and Philosophy (哲学): Wisdom in Every Cup
Daoism (道家) sees tea as a way to calm the mind, like a quiet mountain stream. Confucianism uses tea
ceremonies to teach respect: pouring tea for others shows kindness, while sipping (啜 饮 ) quietly shows
self-control. 42
Tea as Friendship: Building Trust
43 Hosts serve guests tea as a welcome sign, saying, “You are like family to me.” Even strangers
become friends over a cup of tea. The phrase “using tea instead of wine”—shows that sincere feelings matter
more than fancy drinks.
44
Young people now explore “tea art” workshops, blending old rituals (茶道) with new styles. 45
But the essence of tea isn’t changing. Whether in a grandparent’s teacup or a student’s bubble tea, the spirit of
Chinese tea culture lives on.
A．Tea and Art: Beauty in Water
B．In China, sharing tea means sharing trust.
C．Tea Today: Tradition Meets Modern Life
D．Popular tea shops mix tea with milk or fruit.
E．These traditions turn a simple drink into a lesson about life.
F．Tea is completely different from what it was, and it’s just a kind of drink.
G．So, today, drinking tea reminds people to respect and protect the environment.
【答案】41．G 42．E 43．B 44．C 45．D
【导语】本文主要从四个方面对中国茶文化进行了深度解析，展现了茶不仅仅是一种饮品，更是中国价值
观的镜像。
41．根据“For thousands of years, tea has symbolized China’s connection to nature—tea grows in mountains, rain,
and soil, showing how humans and nature depend on each other.”及备选项可知，前文介绍了茶生长在山间、雨
水中、土壤中，显示了人类与自然是如何相互依存的，则空处应在继续介绍茶与自然环境的关系，选项 G
“所以，今天，饮茶提醒人们要尊重和保护环境”与之匹配。故选 G。
42．根据“Confucianism uses tea ceremonies to teach respect: pouring tea for others shows kindness, while sipping
quietly shows self-control.”及备选项可知，前文提到儒家用茶道来教导尊重，则空处应在继续介绍茶文化在
传统思想方面的体现，选项 E“这些传统把一杯简单的饮料变成了一堂关于生活的课”与之匹配。故选 E。
43．根据该段对应的小标题“Tea as Friendship: Building Trust”及备选项可知，空处应在引出茶在人际交往方
面所起的作用，选项 B“在中国，分享茶意味着分享信任”与之匹配。故选 B。
44．根据“Young people now explore ‘tea art’ workshops, blending old rituals with new styles…”及备选项可知，
该段主要介绍了传统茶艺与现代风格的融合，选项 C“今日茶：传统与现代生活的相遇”与之匹配。故选 C。
45．根据“Young people now explore ‘tea art’ workshops, blending old rituals with new styles.”及备选项可知，
空处应在例举传统茶艺与现代风格结合的一些表现形式，选项 D“受欢迎的茶店将茶与牛奶或水果混合”与
之匹配。故选 D。
第三部分 语言运用（共两节, 满分 35 分）
第一节 补全对话（共 5 小题, 每小题 1 分, 满分 5 分）
阅读对话，从每题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
Anna: Dale, what will the weather be like tomorrow
Dale: The weather report says it will be sunny.
Anna: I’m going camping near the river tomorrow.
Dale: Really Who will go with you
Anna: Some of my friends.
Dale: I’m free on Sunday but busy on Saturday.
Anna: It’s a pity.
Dale: I’ll visit my grandparents. They live in the countryside.
Anna: How will you get there
Dale: I will go there by bike.
Anna: It’s wonderful.
Dale: The same to you. Remember to take a camera with you.
Anna: Thanks, I will. By the way, how about going to the bookshop on Sunday
Dale:
46．A．You’d better take some exercise. B．That’s good for outdoor activities.
C．We can stay at home and watch a movie. D．Nothing is good to go outside.
47．A．Are you going to the countryside B．Do you agree with me
C．Would you like to join us D．Have you ever been there
48．A．Are you going to help them out B．What did you do for them
C．How long will you stay there D．What will you do tomorrow
49．A．Have a good time! B．Of course!
C．Let’s go for it! D．See you there!
50．A．Nothing much. B．You’re kidding!
C．You are welcome. D．That’s a good idea!
【答案】46．B 47．C 48．D 49．A 50．D
【解析】Anna 询问 Dale 周六天气情况，并且告诉 Dale 她星期六和她的一些朋友到河边野营的打算。Dale
因为看望外住父母而不能去，但他们约好了星期天一起去书店。
46．根据空格后的句子“I’m going camping near the river tomorrow”可知，明天打算去河边野营，是户外活动。
结合所给选项，可推测选项 B“那很适合户外活动”符合题意，故选 B。
47．根据下文中的句子“I’m free on Sunday but busy on Saturday.”可知，空格所在句应该邀请对方，选项 C“你
愿意加入我们吗？”符合语境，故选 C。
48．根据下文中的“I’ll visit my grandparents. They live in the countryside.”可知，Dale 将要看望他的外祖父母，
可推测，空格所在句是 Anna 询问 Dale 明天要做什么。选项 D“明天你要做什么？”符合语境，故选 D。
49．根据下文的句子“The same to you.”可知，这是相互祝福时的用语。选项 A“祝玩得愉快”符合题意，故
选 A。
50．空格处所填内容是句子“how about going to the bookshop on Sunday ”的答语，结合选项可知，选项 D“好
主意！”符合题意。故选 D。
第二节 完形填空
阅读短文, 从每题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中, 选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。
（共 15 小题, 每小题 1 分, 满分 15 分）
As the music begins, a Sichuan Opera performer steps onto the stage, walking, kicking and dancing to the
music while quickly changing face masks. No one notices 51 unusual until the last mask is removed.
The audience realizes that this performer is somewhat (有点) 52 .
Yin Qiuhua, the 19-old-year performer, was born with Down syndrome (唐氏综合征). Her mother, Zhao
Haiying, has been seeking 53 treatment for her and teaching her life skills. “I can’t take care of her for
her whole life. My biggest wish was to find a suitable 54 for her so that she can earn her own living,”
said Zhao.
They tried almost every training course in Peng’an County in Nanchong City, Sichuan Province, including
violin and folk dance lessons, 55 Yin didn’t do well in any of them. “The problem was either my
daughter 56 couldn’t understand what was being taught, and the other children in the class had
difficulty accepting her, or the 57 was unable to communicate with her,” she said.
Things began to change in 2021, when Zhao met Lin Chun, a traditional Chinese opera teacher at the
county’s cultural center. Lin 58 to take Yin as an apprentice (徒弟) and teach her the face-changing art
of Sichuan Opera, which is 59 in Southwest China.
The face-changing technique is difficult to learn for the average person, let alone for Yin, who can hardly
communicate with others 60 speech and has limited understanding and learning abilities. During the
first year, Yin practiced for up to eight hours a day. To 61 her and help with her training, Zhao
accompanied (陪伴) her every day. After about 18 months of 62 , Yin made her first performance at an
event. It was a great success and her mother was so 63 and moved to tears.
“The most valuable advice I can give to parents is that they should not 64 on their children. We
should try our best to 65 their shining points,” Zhao said.
51．A．something B．anything C．everything D．nothing
52．A．humorous B．energetic C．different D．creative
53．A．expensive B．traditional C．medical D．correct
54．A．skill B．hobby C．friend D．place
55．A．or B．and C．so D．but
56．A．wisely B．simply C．warmly D．quietly
57．A．doctor B．farmer C．teacher D．mother
58．A．agreed B．refused C．caused D．disliked
59．A．relaxing B．awful C．modern D．popular
60．A．through B．without C．against D．behind
61．A．protect B．punish C．encourage D．influence
62．A．rest B．training C．attention D．risk
63．A．happy B．worried C．thankful D．angry
64．A．come up B．give up C．show up D．stay up
65．A．realize B．discover C．practice D．introduce
【答案】
51．B 52．C 53．C 54．A 55．D 56．B 57．C 58．A 59．D 60．A 61．
C 62．B 63．A 64．B 65．B
【导语】本文讲述了一位患有唐氏综合征的女孩在母亲和老师的帮助下，通过刻苦学习川剧变脸技艺，最
终成功表演的故事。
51．句意：没有人注意到任何异常，直到最后一张面具被摘下。
something 某物；anything 任何事物；everything 一切；nothing 没什么。根据“No one notices...until the last
mask is removed”可知，起初没人发现异常。否定句中用 anything。故选 B。
52．句意：观众意识到这位表演者有点不同。
humorous 幽默的；energetic 精力充沛的；different 不同的；creative 有创造力的。根据“Yin Qiuhua, the
19-old-year performer, was born with Down syndrome”可知，这位表演者有点与众不同。故选 C。
53．句意：她的母亲赵海英一直在为她寻求治疗，并教她生活技能。
expensive 昂贵的；traditional 传统的；medical 医疗的；correct 正确的。根据“was born with Down syndrome”
可知，因为她有唐氏综合症，所以她母亲寻找医学治疗。故选 C。
54．句意：我最大的愿望就是为她找到一门合适的技能，这样她就能自己谋生了。
skill 技能；hobby 爱好；friend 朋友；place 地方。根据“so that she can earn her own living”可知，谋生需要
技能。故选 A。
55．句意：他们尝试了四川省南充市彭安县几乎所有的培训课程，包括小提琴和民间舞蹈课程，但尹都不
擅长。
or 或者；and 和；so 所以；but 但是。根据“They tried almost every training course”和“Yin didn’t do well in any
of them.”可知，前后句意转折，用 but。故选 D。
56．句意：问题要么是我的女儿根本听不懂所教的内容，而班上的其他孩子很难接受她，要么是老师无法
与她沟通。
wisely 聪明地；simply 简直；warmly 热情地；quietly 安静地。根据“The problem was either my daughter...couldn’
t understand what was being taught”可知，强调完全不懂。故选 B。
57．句意：问题要么是我的女儿根本听不懂所教的内容，而班上的其他孩子很难接受她，要么是老师无法
与她沟通。
doctor 医生；farmer 农民；teacher 老师；mother 母亲。根据“training course”和“what was being taught”可知，
应是老师没法和她沟通。故选 C。
58．句意：林同意把尹收为徒弟，教她川剧变脸艺术，这是中国西南部的一种流行艺术。
agreed 同意；refused 拒绝；caused 导致；disliked 不喜欢。根据“teach her the face-changing art of Sichuan Opera”
可知，林同意收徒。故选 A。
59．句意：林同意把尹收为徒弟，教她川剧变脸艺术，这是中国西南部的一种流行艺术。
relaxing 放松的；awful 糟糕的；modern 现代的；popular 流行的。根据文化常识，变脸是川剧特色，是流
行的艺术形式。故选 D。
60．句意：对于普通人来说，变脸技术很难学习，更不用说尹了，她除了说话几乎无法与人交流，理解和
学习能力也很有限。
through 通过；without 没有；against 反对；behind 在后面。根据“communicate with others...speech”可知，通
过语言交流用 through。故选 A。
61．句意：为了鼓励她，帮助她训练，赵每天都陪着她。
protect 保护；punish 惩罚；encourage 鼓励；influence 影响。根据“help with her training”可知，母亲是支持
鼓励她的。故选 C。
62．句意：经过大约 18 个月的训练，尹第一次在活动上表演。
rest 休息；training 训练；attention 注意；risk 风险。根据前文“Yin practiced for up to eight hours a day.”可知，
尹接受了训练。故选 B。
63．句意：这是一个巨大的成功，她的母亲很高兴，感动得流下了眼泪。
happy 高兴的；worried 担心的；thankful 感激的；angry 生气的。根据“success”和“moved to tears”可知，母
亲是开心的。故选 A。
64．句意：我能给父母的最有价值的建议是，他们不应该放弃自己的孩子。
come up 提出；give up 放弃；show up 出现；stay up 熬夜。根据全文尹的经历可知，父母要发现孩子的闪
光点，不应该放弃孩子。故选 B。
65．句意：我们应该尽最大努力发现他们的闪光点。
realize意识到；discover发现；practice练习；introduce介绍。根据“We should try our best to...their shining points”
并结合全文可知，父母应该发现孩子的闪光点。故选 B。
第三节 阅读填空 （共 10 小题, 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
During the 2025 Spring Festival Gala, a special performance called YangBOT surprised people around the
world. In this performance, some robots wearing 66 (dance) bright red traditional Chinese clothes
danced with human performers. They combined (结合) modern technology with the classic folk dance “Yangko.”
The robots moved correctly. They could even do complex (复杂的) actions like tossing and 67 (catch)
handkerchiefs (手帕).
The performance was 68 (direct) by famous Chinese director Zhang Yimou. It included 16
robots made by Unitree Technology, 69 top Chinese robotics company. These robots wore floral
padded jackets (大花袄) in the style of northeastern China. They looked very lively 70 stage. The
robots can not only 71 (smooth) twist their waists (扭腰) and kick their legs like humans, but also spin
handkerchiefs, displaying extremely flexible actions.
Behind the scenes, engineers and programmers worked hard for many months. They made sure the robots’
movements matched the music and the human dancers perfectly. Through lots of practice 72 AI
learning, the robots learned to follow the rhythm (节奏) and understand the cultural 73 (mean) of the
dance.
The performance showed China’s progress in robotics and AI. It also showed how technology can be used
in 74 (create) fields like art and dance. The robots were developed by Unitree Technology, which
75 (receive) support from China’s robotics industry. Their appearance represented China’s goal to lead in AI
and robotics innovation (创新).
【答案】
66．dancers’ 67．catching 68．directed 69．a 70．on 71．smoothly 72．and 73．
meaning 74．creative 75．has received/received
【导语】本文讲述了在 2025 年春节联欢晚会上，一场名为“YangBOT”的特殊表演引起了全球的注意。
66．句意：在这个表演中，一些机器人穿着舞者的鲜红色传统中国服装与人类表演者一起跳舞。根据“some
robots wearing...(dance) bright red traditional Chinese clothes”可知，指的是机器人穿着舞者的鲜红色传统中国
服装。dancer“舞者”，这里应用复数名词所有格修饰后面名词。故填 dancers’。
67．句意：它们甚至能够完成复杂的动作，比如抛接手帕。and连接并列结构，catch应用动名词。故填catching。
68．句意：这场表演是由中国著名导演张艺谋执导的。此处需要动词的过去分词形式和 was 构成一般过去
时的被动语态，表示“被执导”，故填 directed。
69．句意：它包括了由宇树科技制造的 16 个机器人，宇树科技是中国顶级的机器人公司。此处表示泛指，
top 以辅音音素开头，应用 a。故填 a。
70．句意：它们在舞台上看起来非常生动。此处需要介词表示“在舞台上”，应用 on。故填 on。
71．句意：这些机器人不仅能够像人类一样流畅地扭腰和踢腿，还能旋转手帕，展示出极其灵活的动作。
此处需要副词修饰动词“twist”，表示“流畅地”，故填 smoothly。
72．句意：通过大量的练习和 AI 学习，机器人学会了跟随节奏并理解舞蹈的文化含义。前后是并列关系，
应用 and 连接。故填 and。
73．句意：通过大量的练习和 AI 学习，机器人学会了跟随节奏并理解舞蹈的文化含义。空前是形容词，
其修饰名词，应用 meaning“含义”，故填 meaning。
74．句意：它还展示了技术如何被应用于艺术和舞蹈等创造性领域。空处作定语修饰名词，应用形容词
creative“创造性的”，故填 creative。
75．句意：这些机器人由宇树科技开发，该公司（已经）得到了中国机器人行业的支持。根据题干可知，
这里可以说宇树科技公司（已经）得到了中国机器人行业的支持。时态是可以一般过去时，也可以是现在
完成时，主语是三单，助动词用 has。故填 has received/received。
第四部分 书面表达（共两节, 满分 35 分）
第一节 情境运用 （共 5 小题, 每小题 2 分, 满分 10 分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76．
A:
B: It is black.
77．
A: What are they going to do this weekend
B:
78．
A:
B: I’ve had it for three years.
79．
A:
B: It was invented in 1946.
80．
A: What was the weather like yesterday
B:
【答案】76．What colour is this shirt 77．They are going to fly a kite. 78．How long have you had your
bike 79．When was TV invented 80．It was rainy.
【解析】76．根据答语“It is black.”和观察图片可知，此处应该表达“这件衬衫是什么颜色的呢？”，时态为
一般现在时，What colour“什么颜色”，引导特殊疑问句；is“是”，系动词；this shirt“这件衬衫”，作主语。
故填 What colour is this shirt
77．根据问句“What are they going to do this weekend ”和观察图片可知，此处应该表达“他们打算去放风筝。”，
they“他们”，作主语，位于句首，首字母要大写； be going to do sth“打算做某事”，此处 be 动词用 are；fly
a kite“放风筝”，宾语。故填 They are going to fly a kite.
78．根据答语“I’ve had it for three years.”和观察图片可知，此处应该表达“你拥有你的自行车多长时间了？”，
How long“多长时间”，引导特殊疑问句；you“你”，作主语；have had“已经拥有”，作谓语；your bike“你的
自行车”，作宾语。故填 How long have you had your bike
79．根据答语“It was invented in 1946.”和观察图片可知，此处应该表达“电视是什么时候发明的？”，When
“什么时候”，引导特殊疑问句；TV“电视”，作主语；was invented“被发明”，一般过去时的被动语态，作谓
语。故填 When was TV invented
80．根据问句“What was the weather like yesterday ”和观察图片可知，时态为一般过去时，此处应该表达“它
是下雨的。”It“它”，代指 the weather，作主语，was“是”，作谓语；rainy“下雨的”，作表语。故填 It was rainy.
第二节 写作（25 分）
81．2025 年真是令人惊喜的一年，宇树机器人的春晚亮相、DeepSeek 等各种 AI（Artificial Intelligence
人工智能）的横空出世无不预示着未来已来。为了解同学们使用现代科学技术的情况，你校校刊英语专栏
正在开展以“Science Technology Helps Me Become Better”为题的征文活动。请你用英文写一篇短文，叙述 一
次你利用手机、电脑或某个 app 进行学习活动、体育锻炼或娱乐爱好的经历及感悟，或谈谈你如何在学习
和生活中使用现代科技。
要求：
1、根据所给题目，写一篇短文，词数不少于 80 词；
2、语言流畅、书写规范、卷面整洁；
3、文中不得使用真实姓名、校名，否则以零分计；
4、请将短文写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
___________________________________________________________________________________________
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【答案】
Science Technology Helps Me Become Better
I have a smart phone which helps me a lot. Last year, I joined an online English learning community. First,
I used an app to practice pronunciation. The app would score my performance and provide feedback. Then I
listened to English news and songs.This helped improve my listening comprehension. Finally, I made progress in
my spoken English.
Science technology helps me become better both academically and mentally. It provides efficient tools for
learning and entertainment, and enriches my life.
【详解】[总体分析]
①题材：本文是一篇话题作文；
②时态：时态以“一般过去时”为主；
③提示：写作要点已给出，考生应根据提示要点进行书面表达，不要遗漏要点，可适当发挥。应能够围绕
主题准确使用一定的语法、词汇、短语和句型等，清楚连贯地表达自己的思想，进而完成写作任务。
[写作步骤]
第一步，表明写作意图，引出话题；
第二步，具体阐述写作内容。叙述一次你利用手机、电脑或某个 app 进行学习活动、体育锻炼或娱乐爱好
的经历及感悟，或谈谈你如何在学习和生活中使用现代科技。
第三步，书写结语。表达自己的感悟。
[亮点词汇]
①a smart phone 智能手机
②enrich my life 丰富我的生活
③provide feedback 提供反馈
④make progress 取得进展
[高分句型]
①I have a smart phone which helps me a lot. (定语从句)2025 年中考临考押题卷（山东济南卷）
英 语
本卷·热点话题：阅读理解 A 篇主要讲了社区为成年成员、年满 18 岁的志愿者、教练或医生提供青少年心
理健康急救课程。阅读理解 B 篇主要介绍如何减少对他人看法的过度关注，并学会自我价值认同的方法。
阅读理解 C 篇讲述了何静成功登顶中国西藏自治区海拔 8027 米的希夏邦马峰，文章描述了何静在攀登高
山中的成就和她为此所做的努力。阅读理解 D 篇主要介绍了“无屏幕周”活动及其支持者和反对者的不同观
点，并展示了两名学生的具体看法。阅读七选五主要从四个方面对中国茶文化进行了深度解析，展现了茶
不仅仅是一种饮品，更是中国价值观的镜像。语法填空讲述了在 2025 年春节联欢晚会上，一场名为
“YangBOT”的特殊表演引起了全球的注意。书面表达以“Science Technology Helps Me Become Better”为写一
篇短文，叙述一次自己利用手机、电脑或某个 app 进行学习活动、体育锻炼或娱乐爱好的经历及感悟，或
谈谈如何在学习和生活中使用现代科技。
本试题共分为四部分, 满分为 150 分, 考试用时 120 分钟。
答题前, 请考生务必将自己的姓名、座号和准考证号填写在答题卡上, 并同时将考点、姓名、
准考证号和座号填写在试卷规定的位置。
答题时, 选择题部分每小题选出答案后, 用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑; 如
需改动, 用橡皮擦干净后, 再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题部分, 用 0.5 毫米黑色签字笔在答
题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答。直接在试题上作答无效。
考试结束后, 将本试题和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节, 满分 30 分）
第一节听录音, 从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。（共 5 小题, 每小
題 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分）
1．
A．Thanks for your gift. B．Let’s go shopping. C．Have a good vacation.
2．
A．Jack is tall and thin. B．I watched a movie last night. C．Bob likes to eat hamburgers.
3．
A．Are you busy after school B．Is that your new teacher C．Have they seen the film
4．
A．She can’t play the guitar.B．He doesn’t wear a suit. C．They didn’t buy anything.
5．
A．How long is the Nile B．How do you make zongzi C．What will happen in 5 years
第二节在录音中, 你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题, 从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能
回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。（共 5 小题, 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分）
6．How did John get to school yesterday
A．On foot. B．By bike. C．By bus.
7．What does Tony do on weekends
A．He reads books. B．He plays football. C．He plays tennis.
8．Whose schoolbag is this
A．It’s Tom’s. B．It’s Mary’s. C．It’s Tom’s sister’s.
9．Where are the two speakers
A．At a park. B．At a restaurant. C．In a library.
10．Who in the tallest of them
A．Bob. B．Tony. C．Eric.
第三节在录音中, 你将听到一段对话, 对话后有五个小题, 从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答
所给问题的正确答案。听对话前, 你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间; 听完后, 你将有 40 秒钟的答题
时间。对话听两遍。（共 5 小题, 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分）
11．Why did Frank go to China
A．To travel. B．To visit his relatives. C．To learn Chinese.
12．Where did Frank mainly stay in China
A．In Beijing. B．In Shanghai. C．In Suzhou.
13．How long did Frank stay in China
A．For 2 weeks. B．For 4 weeks. C．For 6 weeks.
14．How was the weather when Frank was in China
A．Hot. B．Cool. C．Cold.
15．When will Susan go to China
A．Next year. B．In a month. C．This summer.
第四节在录音中, 你将听到一篇短文, 短文后有五个小题, 从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答
所给问题的正确答案。听短文前, 你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间; 听完后, 你将有 40 秒钟的答
题时间。短文听两遍。（共 5 小题, 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分）
16．When will the students leave school
A．On June 8th. B．On June 18th. C．On July 18th.
17．How many points at most can the students got
A．20. B．25. C．30.
18．What sports do all of the students have to choose
A．Running. B．Running and throwing balls.C．Long jump and throwing balls.
19．Where can the students practice throwing balls
A．At home. B．On the playground. C．In the gym.
20．What do the students have to bring when practising
A．Water. B．Milk. C．Orange juice.
第二部分 阅读（共两节, 满分 50 分）
第一节 阅读理解 阅读下列短文, 从每题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中, 选出一个能回答所提问
题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。（共 20 小题, 每小题 2 分, 满分 40 分）
A
The government is paying more attention to youth mental health. With the support for youth mental health
from the government, our community offers training to help teens in crisis (危机). Join us to become a caring
adult!
Welcome to Health First Aid CoursesWHO: For any community adult members, volunteers
(must be over 18 years old), coaches or doctors who communicate with young people.
WHAT: Youth Mental Health First Aid (青少年心理健康急救) is a course that teaches those
who take part in the course about young people’s common mental health.
SUBJECTS: How to help young people actively deal with a mental health crisis.
WHEN:
May 7th &14th 5 p.m.—9 p.m. * must attend both
June 5th 8 a.m.—4:00 p.m. *30-minute lunch break
June 17th 9 a.m.—3:00 p.m. * working lunch
Address: Public Library, Green Ave.
Registration (登记):
①http://
②send an e-mail to Jessica Brown@ highschools.org
③visit Ms. Brown’s office
WHY:
·1 in 10 persons in the community feel sad or hopeless every day.
·Youth who have an adult to go to for help are less likely to hurt themselves.
The course is valued at $170 but now offered at no cost thanks to the Project Mental Health.
21．Who can NOT take part in the course
A．Doctors. B．Coaches over 18 years old.
C．Volunteers under 18 years old. D．All the community adult members.
22．How long does the course on June 5th last
A．30 minutes. B．4 hours. C．6 hours. D．8 hours.
23．How many ways are mentioned for people to register the course
A．One. B．Two. C．Three. D．Four.
24．What is the main purpose of the Youth Mental Health First Aid course
A．To teach young people how to solve mental health problems alone.
B．To train adults to help youth during mental health crises.
C．To provide medical treatment for mentally ill teenagers.
D．To organize social activities for community volunteers.
25．Where can we probably read this passage
A．On a community website. B．In a travel guide. C．On a school website. D．In a
storybook.
B
Being concerned (焦虑的) about what other people think about us is very common. However, we shouldn’t
spend so much time caring about others’ opinions.
In fact, if we always worry about how others see us because of what we do, we can’t get something done.
So, how can we learn not to attach too much importance to others’ views Well, the answer is learning to value
ourselves. We should live our lives for ourselves. This is easier said than done, but there are a few ways to go
about doing this.
First, we should remember that our biggest judges (裁 判 ) are ourselves. If we have a low opinion of
ourselves, then we think that others feel the same way about us. To get over this, British therapist (心理治疗师)
Chloe Brotheridge wrote in Psychology Today that we should “learn to love ourselves”. For example, you can
make a list of the things you’re good at and practice them every day. You can also spend more time with people
who love you. These things can help you feel b... about yourself.
Second, as Brotheridge wrote, “We sometimes can’t control the way other people react (反应) to us, no
matter how hard we try.” By realizing this, you can learn to focus more on things that make you excellent.
At the same time, however, we shouldn’t completely take no notice of how we behave when we are with
other people. So, the best thing to remember is to always be nice to others. If you do this, you won’t need to worry
about how others will see you.
26．What do the underlined words “attach too much importance to” mean in Paragraph 2
A．Look for. B．Pay too much attention to.
C．Blow out. D．Put up.
27．Who are the biggest judges for us according to the text
A．Our best friends. B．Ourselves.
C．Our parents. D．Our teachers.
28．What is the proper word in the sentence “These things can help you feel b... about yourself.”
A．Bad. B．Bored. C．Better. D．Blind.
29．Which of the following will the writer probably agree with
A．We should take no notice of our behaviors completely.
B．We should try to control other people’s reaction to us.
C．We should always think about others’ views.
D．We can learn to focus more on things that make us excellent.
30．What is the best title for the text
A．Learn to value ourselves B．Learn to care about others
C．Learn to work with others D．Learn to be nice to others
C
He Jing is 37. She’s from Xi’an in Shaanxi province. She reached the top of the 8,027-meter Mount
Shishapangma in China’s Xizang autonomous region on October 9, 2024. She has become the first person from
China and the third woman in the world to climb to the tops of all 14 of the world’s peaks (峰顶) over 8,000
meters without the use of oxygen (氧气).
He Jing didn’t start mountaineering until she was 18. Her first climb, in 2006, was in the Qinling
Mountains, and since then she has had a great love for it. In 2012, He Jing tried her first mountain over 5,000
meters—Mount Siguniang in Sichuan province. Since then, He Jing has been dedicated to climbing high-altitude
(高海拔) peaks. She reached the top of her first 8,000-meter peak, Mount Cho Oyu, in 2016, using just one bottle
of oxygen. After that, she decided to try future climbs without oxygen.
Climbing without oxygen can be dangerous. To prepare, He Jing trained hard, running at least five times a
week, climbing 200 flights of stairs with a 20-kilogram load three times weekly, and using a special mask to
simulate (模拟) high-altitude conditions.
On September 25, 2017, she successfully reached the top of Mount Manaslu in Nepal without oxygen for
the first time. On May 14, 2022, He Jing became the first Chinese woman to reach the top of Mount Qomolangma
from the south side without using bottled oxygen.
“I didn’t set many goals for myself,” she said. “I simply love to achieve my dreams, one step at a time. I
enjoy both the climbing process and the view from the top.”
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31．How many peaks are over 8,000 meters in the world
A．Eight. B．Ten. C．Twelve. D．Fourteen.
32．What can we learn from paragraph 2
A．When He Jing fell in love with mountain climbing.B．How He Jing prepared for climbing without
oxygen.
C．Why He Jing chose to climb without using oxygen. D．Which high-altitude peak He Jing decided to
climb.
33．What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 2 refer to
A．Climbing. B．Hiking. C．Walking. D．Oxygen.
34．What can we know about He Jing from the passage
A．She is an environmental protector. B．She is a person with a strong will.
C．She enjoys travelling around the world. D．She aims to be rich and successful.
35．What’s the passage mainly about
A．The reasons why He Jing loves climbing. B．Famous mountains around the world.
C．He Jing’s achievements in climbing. D．He Jing’s plans for the future climbs.
D
In many countries, people celebrate Screen-Free Week. It is on the first week of May every year. People are
encouraged to turn off screens during the week.
Supporters of Screen-Free Week say turning off tech devices (设备) is good for kids. According to a study,
kids slept better and got better grades when their parents limited (限制) their screen time. Also, some people think
Screen-Free Week can help kids develop a good habit. They point out that many kids who took part in the event in
the past now spend less time using tech devices.
However, not everyone supports the idea. Some people argue that screen time is OK as long as kids don’t
overdo (滥用) it. Also, others say turning off tech devices completely for a week won’t teach kids how to balance
(兼顾) screen time with other activities.
Here’s what two students think:
YES! Kids spend too much time in front of screens. According to a study, kids spend about seven hours a
day in front of TVs, computers and other devices. Instead of sitting around playing video games, kids should be
more active. They can make art, play sports or hang out with friends and family.
DAVID
NO! Not all screen time is bad for kids. There are many educational television shows, apps and websites
which help kids learn. Also, In many countries, people celebrate Screen-Free Week. It is on the first week of May
every year. People are encouraged to turn off screens during the week.
Supporters of Screen-Free Week say turning off tech devices (设备) is good for kids. According to a study,
kids slept better and got better grades when their parents limited (限制) their screen time. Also, some people think
Screen-Free Week can help kids develop a good habit. They point out that many kids who took part in the event in
the past now spend less time using tech devices.
However, not everyone supports the idea. Some people argue that screen time is OK as long as kids don’t
overdo (滥用) it. Also, others say turning off tech devices completely for a week won’t teach kids how to balance
(兼顾) screen time with other activities.
Here’s what two students think:
YES! Kids spend too much time in front of screens. According to a study, kids spend about seven hours a
day in front of TVs, computers and other devices. Instead of sitting around playing video games, kids should be
more active. They can make art, play sports or hang out with friends and family.
DAVID
NO! Not all screen time is bad for kids. There are many educational television shows, apps and websites
which help kids learn. Also, it can be a way for kids to relax after a long day at school. And some kids use screens
to communicate with friends and family who live far away. It would be unfair to ask kids to give up all screen
time.
EMILY
36．When is Screen-Free Week
A．It’s on the last week of May every year. B．It’s on the first week of May every year.
C．It’s on the first week of April every year.D．It’s on the last week of April every year.
37．What do supporters of Screen-Free Week think of turning off tech devices
A．It’s bad for kids’ eyes. B．It can help kids get more sleep.
C．It can help kids develop a good habit. D．It can help kids communicate better with others.
38．What does David think kids should do
A．They should spend more time on screens.
B．They should watch more educational shows.
C．They should play video games instead of doing sports.
D．They should be more active and less dependent on screens.
39．What does Emily think
A．All screen time is bad for kids.
B．Kids should give up all screen time.
C．Screen time can be beneficial for kids in some ways.
D．Kids should only use screens to communicate with others.
40．What is the main idea of the passage
A．To introduce Screen-Free Week and different opinions about it.
B．To encourage kids to take part in Screen-Free Week.
C．To tell kids how to balance screen time with other activities.
D．To show the disadvantages of too much screen time.
第二节 阅读理解七选五 （共 5 小题, 每小题 2 分, 满分 10 分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。
Tea is more than leaves in water—it’s a mirror of Chinese values. When you hold a teacup, you’re not just
drinking a beverage—you’re tasting 5,000 years of wisdom.
A Gift from Nature: Harmony (和谐) with the World
For thousands of years, tea has symbolized China’s connection to nature—tea grows in mountains, rain,
and soil, showing how humans and nature depend on each other. 41
Tea and Philosophy (哲学): Wisdom in Every Cup
Daoism (道家) sees tea as a way to calm the mind, like a quiet mountain stream. Confucianism uses tea
ceremonies to teach respect: pouring tea for others shows kindness, while sipping (啜 饮 ) quietly shows
self-control. 42
Tea as Friendship: Building Trust
43 Hosts serve guests tea as a welcome sign, saying, “You are like family to me.” Even strangers
become friends over a cup of tea. The phrase “using tea instead of wine”—shows that sincere feelings matter
more than fancy drinks.
44
Young people now explore “tea art” workshops, blending old rituals (茶道) with new styles. 45
But the essence of tea isn’t changing. Whether in a grandparent’s teacup or a student’s bubble tea, the spirit of
Chinese tea culture lives on.
A．Tea and Art: Beauty in Water
B．In China, sharing tea means sharing trust.
C．Tea Today: Tradition Meets Modern Life
D．Popular tea shops mix tea with milk or fruit.
E．These traditions turn a simple drink into a lesson about life.
F．Tea is completely different from what it was, and it’s just a kind of drink.
G．So, today, drinking tea reminds people to respect and protect the environment.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节, 满分 35 分）
第一节 补全对话（共 5 小题, 每小题 1 分, 满分 5 分）
阅读对话，从每题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
Anna: Dale, what will the weather be like tomorrow
Dale: The weather report says it will be sunny.
Anna: I’m going camping near the river tomorrow.
Dale: Really Who will go with you
Anna: Some of my friends.
Dale: I’m free on Sunday but busy on Saturday.
Anna: It’s a pity.
Dale: I’ll visit my grandparents. They live in the countryside.
Anna: How will you get there
Dale: I will go there by bike.
Anna: It’s wonderful.
Dale: The same to you. Remember to take a camera with you.
Anna: Thanks, I will. By the way, how about going to the bookshop on Sunday
Dale:
46．A．You’d better take some exercise. B．That’s good for outdoor activities.
C．We can stay at home and watch a movie. D．Nothing is good to go outside.
47．A．Are you going to the countryside B．Do you agree with me
C．Would you like to join us D．Have you ever been there
48．A．Are you going to help them out B．What did you do for them
C．How long will you stay there D．What will you do tomorrow
49．A．Have a good time! B．Of course!
C．Let’s go for it! D．See you there!
50．A．Nothing much. B．You’re kidding!
C．You are welcome. D．That’s a good idea!
第二节 完形填空
阅读短文, 从每题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中, 选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。
（共 15 小题, 每小题 1 分, 满分 15 分）
As the music begins, a Sichuan Opera performer steps onto the stage, walking, kicking and dancing to the
music while quickly changing face masks. No one notices 51 unusual until the last mask is removed.
The audience realizes that this performer is somewhat (有点) 52 .
Yin Qiuhua, the 19-old-year performer, was born with Down syndrome (唐氏综合征). Her mother, Zhao
Haiying, has been seeking 53 treatment for her and teaching her life skills. “I can’t take care of her for
her whole life. My biggest wish was to find a suitable 54 for her so that she can earn her own living,”
said Zhao.
They tried almost every training course in Peng’an County in Nanchong City, Sichuan Province, including
violin and folk dance lessons, 55 Yin didn’t do well in any of them. “The problem was either my
daughter 56 couldn’t understand what was being taught, and the other children in the class had
difficulty accepting her, or the 57 was unable to communicate with her,” she said.
Things began to change in 2021, when Zhao met Lin Chun, a traditional Chinese opera teacher at the
county’s cultural center. Lin 58 to take Yin as an apprentice (徒弟) and teach her the face-changing art
of Sichuan Opera, which is 59 in Southwest China.
The face-changing technique is difficult to learn for the average person, let alone for Yin, who can hardly
communicate with others 60 speech and has limited understanding and learning abilities. During the
first year, Yin practiced for up to eight hours a day. To 61 her and help with her training, Zhao
accompanied (陪伴) her every day. After about 18 months of 62 , Yin made her first performance at an
event. It was a great success and her mother was so 63 and moved to tears.
“The most valuable advice I can give to parents is that they should not 64 on their children. We
should try our best to 65 their shining points,” Zhao said.
51．A．something B．anything C．everything D．nothing
52．A．humorous B．energetic C．different D．creative
53．A．expensive B．traditional C．medical D．correct
54．A．skill B．hobby C．friend D．place
55．A．or B．and C．so D．but
56．A．wisely B．simply C．warmly D．quietly
57．A．doctor B．farmer C．teacher D．mother
58．A．agreed B．refused C．caused D．disliked
59．A．relaxing B．awful C．modern D．popular
60．A．through B．without C．against D．behind
61．A．protect B．punish C．encourage D．influence
62．A．rest B．training C．attention D．risk
63．A．happy B．worried C．thankful D．angry
64．A．come up B．give up C．show up D．stay up
65．A．realize B．discover C．practice D．introduce
第三节 阅读填空 （共 10 小题, 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
During the 2025 Spring Festival Gala, a special performance called YangBOT surprised people around the
world. In this performance, some robots wearing 66 (dance) bright red traditional Chinese clothes
danced with human performers. They combined (结合) modern technology with the classic folk dance “Yangko.”
The robots moved correctly. They could even do complex (复杂的) actions like tossing and 67 (catch)
handkerchiefs (手帕).
The performance was 68 (direct) by famous Chinese director Zhang Yimou. It included 16
robots made by Unitree Technology, 69 top Chinese robotics company. These robots wore floral
padded jackets (大花袄) in the style of northeastern China. They looked very lively 70 stage. The
robots can not only 71 (smooth) twist their waists (扭腰) and kick their legs like humans, but also spin
handkerchiefs, displaying extremely flexible actions.
Behind the scenes, engineers and programmers worked hard for many months. They made sure the robots’
movements matched the music and the human dancers perfectly. Through lots of practice 72 AI
learning, the robots learned to follow the rhythm (节奏) and understand the cultural 73 (mean) of the
dance.
The performance showed China’s progress in robotics and AI. It also showed how technology can be used
in 74 (create) fields like art and dance. The robots were developed by Unitree Technology, which
75 (receive) support from China’s robotics industry. Their appearance represented China’s goal to lead in AI
and robotics innovation (创新).
第四部分 书面表达（共两节, 满分 35 分）
第一节 情境运用 （共 5 小题, 每小题 2 分, 满分 10 分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76．
A:
B: It is black.
77．
A: What are they going to do this weekend
B:
78．
A:
B: I’ve had it for three years.
79．
A:
B: It was invented in 1946.
80．
A: What was the weather like yesterday
B:
第二节 写作（25 分）
81．2025 年真是令人惊喜的一年，宇树机器人的春晚亮相、DeepSeek 等各种 AI（Artificial Intelligence
人工智能）的横空出世无不预示着未来已来。为了解同学们使用现代科学技术的情况，你校校刊英语专栏
正在开展以“Science Technology Helps Me Become Better”为题的征文活动。请你用英文写一篇短文，叙述 一
次你利用手机、电脑或某个 app 进行学习活动、体育锻炼或娱乐爱好的经历及感悟，或谈谈你如何在学习
和生活中使用现代科技。
要求：
1、根据所给题目，写一篇短文，词数不少于 80 词；
2、语言流畅、书写规范、卷面整洁；
3、文中不得使用真实姓名、校名，否则以零分计；
4、请将短文写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
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