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九年级英语学科核心素养发展水平评估
说明：1. 本试题卷满分120分，考试时间120分钟。
2. 请按试题序号在答题卡相应位置作答，答在试题卷成其它位置无效。
一、听力理解（本大题共20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
现在是试听时间。请听一段对话，然后回答问题。
What is the boy going to buy
A. Some juice. B. Some oranges. C. Some apples.
答案是C。
A）请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. Whore is Kate going
A. To the classroom. B. To the library. C. To the gym.
2. What’s tho weather like now
A. Cloudy. B. Sunny. C. Rainy.
3. How does Tom go to school
A. On foot. B. By bike. C. By car.
4. Why was the boy late
A. His alarm clock didn’t go off. B. His mother forgot to. call. him C. He doesn’t have an alarm clock.
5. What does the man mean
A. Ho doesn’t have his own room. B. He wishes to have a large room. C. He is lucky to have his own room.
B）请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
请听第1段对话，回答第6、7小题。
6. What size does the man want
A. 42. B. 43. C. 44.
7. How much does the man need to pay
A. ￥180. B. ￥200. C. ￥220.
请听第2段对话，回答第8、9小题。
8. What’s the matter with the man
A. He hurt his arm. B. He has a stomachache. C. He lost his basketball game.
9. Where might they be
A. On the playground. B. In the hospital. C. In the restaurant.
请听第3段对话，回答第10至第12小题。
10. What color shoes did students use to be required to wear
A. Blue. B. Black. C. White.
11. What are the rules about the club
A. No phones in the club room. B. Phones in bags are okay to bring in.
C. Share phones with classmates during activities.
12. What can we learn from the conversation
A. They both agree with the new rules. B. The boy refuses to follow the new rules.
C. The girl dislikes the library’s new rules.
请听第4段对话，回答第13至第15小题。
13. When does Tom’s band performing start
A. At 7:30 pm. B. At 8:00 am. C. At 8:00 pm.
14. Whore does Tom hold his band performing
A. By the river. B. At the subway station. C. At a coffee shop.
15. What do we know about “Moonlight Coffee”
A. It’s on Main Street. B. It’s on River Road. C. It’s far from the station.
C）请听下面一段独白，根据独白内容完成下列句子，每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。
16. The artists for the competition are aged 11 to ________ years old.
17. The topic for this year is ________.
18. Tho pictures for the competition must be your ________.
19. The prize for the best picture will be ________.
20. All pictures must be handed in on or before ________.
二、单项填空（本大题共8小题，每小题1分，共8分）
请阅读下面各小题，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
21. -What club do you want to join, Bob
-I want to join the ________ club. I like to draw pictures.
A. art B. math C. science D. history
22. -Mike, can you help me carry the boxes
-Sure, but I’m ________ right now.
A. lost B. free C. relaxed D. busy
23. -Where is Jack
-I’m not sure. Maybe he ________ his basketball lesson.
A. had B. was having C. is having D. will have
24. -Do you think we should share our problems with our parents
-Sure! ________ we talk to them, we’ll feel worse.
A. Before B. Although C. Because D. Unless
25. -What should we do to ________ the argument between Tom and Lucy
-We could talk to them separately and find out their different opinions.
A. stop B. start C. continue D. excite
26. The pollution here couldn’t be ________. There was a heavy smoke with terrible smell.
A. bad B. worse C. worst D. better
27. Boys and girls, come on! I want to see who can use these words to ________ a story about animals.
A. pickup B. give up C. make up D. lookup
28. The future of education ________ greatly as AI technologies develop quickly.
A. influences B. will be influenced C. will influence D. was influenced
三、完形填空（本大题共26小题，每小题1分，共26分）
A）请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
If something is free, it will attract many people. Whether it’s a free meal, a free trip, or a free visit to the zoo, most people would 29 it. After all, who doesn’t like getting something for free If it is free, it doesn’t 30 anything. Right Wrong. This is a 31 idea.
There is a popular saying “There is no such thing as a free lunch”. The saying came from a common practice in some American restaurants. A restaurant might give a free 32 to anyone who bought at least one drink. It’s a good way to 33 people to come to the restaurant 34 the meal was free, most people would end up buying more than one drink. This simple example shows how it is not 35 to get anything without paying a cost. In this case, the cost of the meal is 36 in the price of the drinks.
Think about a national park with no fee (费用) to enter. A park visit is not 37 free. Though there is no fee to enter, there is always a cost. People have paid for the building of the park and keeping the park clean 38 their taxes (税收). Some countries in Europe offer whole or 39 medical care for all of their people. However, this “free” medical care is not actually free. Though one may not pay anything to visit the doctor’s office, doctors still need to be paid. 40 also need money to pay for staff, cleaning, and supplies (供给). Where does the money come from 41 . Many of these countries have a lax rate above 40% to pay for such services.
Sometimes, a city or business may hold events such as a free movie or a free 42 in the park. These, too, are not actually free. Though the people attending may not pay for a ticket to enjoy these cultural events, someone is paying in their place.
43 is free. Everything has a price.
29. A. take B. refuse C. fear D. doubt
30. A. keep B. cost C. create D. save
31. A. wise B. useful C. common D. mistaken
32. A. visit B. trip C. ticket D. meal
33. A. punish B. educate C. encourage D. wan
34. A. So that B. Even though C. As soon as D. As long as
35. A. fair B. lucky C. necessary D. possible
36. A. included B. lost C. changed D. broken
37. A. finally B. actually C. hardly D. simply
38. A. as B. for C. by D. about
39. A. free B. special C. safe D. dear
40. A. Theaters B. Restaurants C. Parks D. Hospitals
41. A. Banks B. Cities C. Taxes D. Patients
42. A. race B. concert C. game D. dinner
43. A. Something B. Nothing C. Anything D. Everything
B）请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空，并将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。每个词限用一次。
again easy fun after like read both hand quickly move
cup stacking
Can you quickly put a cup on top of other cups to make a special shape If so, you can be a stacker!
Children all over the world are doing sport stacking. In sport stacking, or cup stacking, you must 44 place cups one on top of the other in the right order. There are three ways to make these stacks, and the 45 way is called the 3-3-3. In the 3-3-3, nine cups are made 46 three stacks, with two cups on the bottom and one cup on top. 47 making the stacks, you have to take them down 48 . More cups can be added to make the stacks of cups much higher.
Cup stacking is a lot 49 building with blocks (积木), but you need to build very fast. Cup stacking is good for you, too. It helps your eyes and 50 work together. It also helps you 51 much more quickly. Cup stacking helps you use 52 sides of your brain. Cup stacking may also help you learn how 53 better.
It seems that cup stacking can help students in many ways. But what is the most important thing about cup stacking It is a lot of 54 !
四、阅读理解（本大题共23小题，每小题2分，共46分）
A）请阅读下面短文，根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
We surveyed 500 Grade Nine Students about the Learning Methods, and here are the results.
According to the survey of Grade Nine students in No. 2 middle school, learning in the classroom is the most important way of learning. It makes up 45%, and it gets the highest score (8.5 points). Learning online makes up 30%, and its score is 7.0 points. Group discussions and self-study make up 15% and 10%. Their scores are quite low, 6.5 points and 5.5 points. The survey shows that students like traditional classroom learning better, but online learning has gradually become an important way.
55. Which learning method gets the highest effectiveness score in the survey
A. Online learning. B. Self-study. C. Group discussion. D. Classroom learning.
56. What percentage of students use online learning
A. 10%. B. 15%. C. 30%. D. 45%.
57. Which of the following sentence is true according to the survey results
A. Group discussion is the most common method.
B. Online learning is becoming more and more popular.
C. Self-study will become the main learning method soon.
D. Traditional classroom learning will be gradually replaced.
B
Throughout my childhood, my mother had a special routine in the evenings. Sometimes she would knit (编织) hats for us, and other times, she would phone one of our neighbors. She would tell us all, “I’m going to call one neighbor every night.” I was 16 then and couldn’t understand why she would spend her evenings on such trivial conversations.
One evening, I overheard her conversation with an elderly lady. She asked about the lady’s dinner and even discussed the blooming (盛开的) roses in the park. When she hung up, I said, “Why do you talk about such trivial things ” With a kind smile, she explained, “I might be the only person she talked to today. So even the simplest conversations can make a big difference.”
It wasn’t until nearly 30 years later that I realized the true effect of my mother’s nightly calls.
As people age, they often feel lonely for different reasons. As people age, they may experience the loss of friends and family members. This leads to a smaller social circle. Health problems can make it harder for old people to move around. This, in turn, may also take away the daily interactions (交流、互动) that work once provided.
The lonely felling can be very strong. Research has shown that older people are being forgotten or no longer valued. Without regular social interactions, they may feel sad, bored and empty. Feeling this way for a long time causes depression (抑郁) and worry.
My mother’s conversations were more than just friendly talks-they were lifelines for the old. Her calls connected them to the world outside.
Her determination (决心) and social skills in keeping those connections going were admirable, and I wish I could do better.
58. Why did the writer question her mother’s choice of topics for the calls
A. Because her mother reported the same topics. B. Because they talked about unimportant matters.
C. Because the old lady was unhappy with the topics. D. Because the topics had nothing to do with the old.
59. What do we know about “trivial conversations”
A. They are about good night sleep every day. B. They are about special and important things.
C. They are about small things in our daily life. D. They are about exciting and interesting events.
60. What’s the main idea of Paragraph 4
A. Losing friends makes old people’s life sad.
B. Different things cause old people to feel lonely.
C. Old people need to talk to others more everyday.
D. Health problems stop old people from going out often.
61. Which word best describes the writer’s mother？
A. Strict. B. Humorous. C. Talented. D. Caring.
62. What docs the underlined phrase “nightly calls” in Paragraph 3 refer to
A. The evening phone calls to a neighbor. B. The evening walks of Mom and the old.
C. The daily conversations with me at night. D. The nightly interactions among the family.
C
Do Animals Have a Sense of Humor？
Laughter is a universal (通用的) “language” for humans. It helps us get along with others and build strong relationships. When we were babies, we giggled (咯咯笑) at our parents’ funny faces. As we grow older, we learn to make others laugh too. But here comes an interesting question: Is laughter only a human thing Scientists have been watching animals closely, and they found some amazing things.
Have you ever seen a dog lot you get close to its toy and then quickly run away playfully Charles Darwin, a famous biology scientist, thought this was like a little joke dogs play. Marc Bekoff, a biology professor (教授) watched dogs playfully tease (捉弄) each other. They would walk slowly towards each other and then suddenly run away. He believed that dogs do this for fun and that animals might do it to deal with stress.
In 2024 study, Isabelle Laumer and her team studied four kinds of apes. They saw 18 different ways that apes teased each other. Young apes would quietly walk up behind an adult, give them a light push to surprise them, and then wait to see how the adult would react. This is just like what human children do when they play tricks. So, people may have started to be able to tell jokes and understand funny things a long time ago in human history.
What about laughing While playing, dogs sometimes make a breathy sound that is like laughter. Dolphins make happy noises when they are play-fighting. Rats make a joyful squeak (吱吱声) similar to a giggle when people tickle them, says Jeffrey Burgdorf, professor at Northwestern University.
But, is a rat’s giggle really a sign that it has a sense of humor Are the apes just playing around for fun or do they just want to get attention Why do animals tease and play tricks on each other “In humans, humour can serve as an ice-breaker, helping us make friends and get closer to others,” says Laumor. “We don’t know if it’s the same in apes or other animals, but it’s possible.”
63. Who believes that animals tease each other to deal with stress
A. Charles Darwin. B. Marc Bekoff. C. Isabelle Laumer. D. Jeffrey Burgdorf.
64. What do animals and humans have in common according to the passage
A. They both laugh mainly when they feel stressed. B. They both make the same sounds when laughing.
C. They always play tricks in exactly the same way. D. They can both use playful behavior to communicate.
65. Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage
A. B. C. D.
66. What question does the passage mainly discuss
A. Is laughter only a human thing
B. Why do animals tease and play pranks
C. Is a rat’s squeak really a sign that it has a sense of humor
D. Are the apes just playing around for fun or do they just want to get attention
67. What can we infer from the passage about animals’ laughing
A. It is a sign that they want to get human’s attention.
B. Animals’ laughter plays the same role as humans’ laughter.
C. Animals make laughing sounds just to copy human behavior.
D. Different kinds of animals have their own ways to show “laughter”.
D
The age at which a child is considered an adult is different from culture to culture. And many cultures have made different ways to show and celebrate a child’s moving into adulthood whenever this happens.
In the small island nation of Vanuatu, boys as young as seven jump from a tall tower, which they are tied to by their feet. A boy’s feet are tied using a vine. Usually, the boy’s mom will hold a toy or something from the boy’s childhood. After the jump, it is thrown away. Since a vine is used for the jump, it can be very dangerous. As the boy grows older, he will continue to jump as a way to show that he has the brave heart of a man.
In South and Central America, a special party called the quinceanera celebrates a girl turning into a woman at the age of 15. Long ago, the 15th birthday marked a time when a girl would be prepared and ready for marriage (结婚). The family would throw a party to allow for the girl to meet possible marriage partners. Today, marriage is not so much the purpose; however, the tradition has continued.
In Japan, a person is considered to be an adult at age 20. The “Seijin no Hi” is a festival in January to celebrate the new adults. Those who are 20 years of age at the time dress up in expensive clothes for this festival.
In the United States, some families choose to celebrate a child’s 16 birthday or “sweet sixteen” with. a big party. However, it is not a tradition that all people celebrate in the US. Instead, 16 is thought to be more important because it is the age at which a person can drive a car after passing a driving test.
Whatever traditions may exist, the time when a young person goes from childhood to adulthood is an important one in almost every culture.
68. Which picture shows the underlined word “vine” in Paragraph 2
A B C D
69. Match the countries with their celebrations
1. Vanuatu 2 South and central America 3. Japan 4. United States
a. “Seijin no Hi” activity b. Tower-jumping activity c. Quinceanera activity sweet d. Sixteen party
A. 1-a. 2-c. 3-d. 4-b B. 1-c. 2-a,3-b. 4-d C. 1-b,2-c,3-a,4-d D. 1-d. 2-b,3-c,4-a
70. Which of the following statements is True
A. Young people wear costly clothes to take part in “Seijin no Hi” in Japan
B. Across the US. families celebrate a child’s “sweet sixteen” with a big party
C. The four countries all celebrate a child’s moving into adulthood with a party.
D. The quinceanera celebration still continues with marriage as its main purpose
71. What does the author want to tell us in the last paragraph
A. Learning culture is important from childhood to adulthood
B. Almost all cultures value the time of growing into adulthood
C. The times of coming of-age differ a lot in different cultures
D. Every culture has its own special traditions for becoming an adult
72. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage
A. Coming-of-Age Traditions. B. Moving to Adulthood Practices.
C. Family Gatherings in Adulthood. D. Teenage Fashion in Different Cultures.
B）请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中，使短文意思通顺、结构完整，并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。
The Benefits of Singing
Are you shy about singing because you think you’re not good at it Well, you shouldn’t be. Singing is for everyone no matter the talent, and we can all benefit from it.
One of the biggest benefits of singing is that it makes you feel better. When you sing, your body makes more happy chemicals (化学物质). 73
Also, singing is good for your lungs (肺). It makes them stronger and able to hold more air. Because of that, doctors use singing to help people with lung problems. Singing has other health benefits. 74 When you sing along to a song, you focus on your breathing and the words. That makes your mind stay active.
75 Through songs you can show yourself and your feelings. And if you sing in public, people can get to know you and feel what you feel.
Your singing may even touch others. It may bring them joy, make them feel comfortable, or help in other ways. It’s a big deal when people are touched by your singing. 76 In tum, that helps you develop more confidence in yourself.
What’s more, if you sing with others, you learn to work towards a common goal. That helps you build connections and a feeling of belonging to a group.
So, sing what you want, where you want, and how you want. 77
A. If talented, go for it. B. It also helps your memory. C. You see that it influences others. D. Just enjoy singing and enjoy life! E. They help you be in a better mood F. The benefits of singing don’t end there G. They benefit your group singing greatly
五、补全对话（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请阅读下面对话，根据对话内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个填入空白处，使对话通顺、合理，意思完整，并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句，
Liu Ying is going to return to China, so he comes to say goodbye to his friend Hanson. L-Liu Ying H-Hanson)
L: Hello, Hanson. Today I come to say goodbye to you, for I’m going back to China tomorrow
H: No, not so soon. Couldn’t I got you to stay a couple of days more
L: Much as I wish to, but I really can’t. 78. ________
H: I hope this won’t be our last meeting
L: 79. ________ You can come to China to visit me in future. And I also will come here if I have a chance.
H: I will miss you.
L: I will miss you, too. 80. ________
H: It’s a pity that I’m too busy to see you off tomorrow.
L: 81. ________
H: Take care of yourself and remember to keep in touch.
L: I will.
H: Goodbye and have a good flight.
L: 82. ________ Goodbye!
A. Thank you. B. Maybe it is. C. It doesn’t matter. D. The same to you. E. Don’t worry about that. F. You’re really a good friend. G. I’ve already booked the flight.
六、书面表达（15分）
83. 本卷阅读理解B篇讲述了作者妈妈以特殊的方式关爱社区老人的故事。老人是社会的宝贵财富，他们生活经验丰富，值得我们尊敬和学习。假设你校英语社团正在开展以 “我和身边老人的故事” 为主题的征文活动，请你根据以下要点提示，用英语写一篇短文讲述你和一位老人之间的故事。内容包括：老人的基本信息、你和他/她相处的经历以及你将怎样关爱老人。
要点：
1. The introduction of an old man or woman;
2. The experience between you and him or her (What did he or she do for you What did you learn from him or her );
3. The things you’ll do for the old people.
要求：
1. 短文应包括所有的写作要点，条理清楚，行文连贯，可适当发挥
2. 短文中不能出现真实的人名、校名、地名等信息；
3. 词数80—120，短文开头已给出，不计入总词数。
In my neighborhood _______________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
2025年九年级英语学科核心素养发展水平评估
一、听力测试（共20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
1~5 CBCAA 6~10 ABABB 11~15 ACCCB
16.14 17. friends 18. own work 19. a camera 20. March 10th
二、单项填空（共8小题，每小题1分，共8分）
21~24 ADCD 25~28 ABCB
三、完形填空（共26小题，每小题1分，共26分）
A) 29~33ABDDC 34~38 BDABC 39~43 ADCBB
B) 44. quickly 45. easiest 46. into 47. After 48. again 49. like
50. hands 51. (to)move 52. both 53. to read 54. fun
四、阅读理解（共23小题，每小题2分，共46分）
55~57 DCB 58~62 BCBDA 63~67 BDCAD 68~72 BCBBA
73~77 EBFCD
五、补全对话 （共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
78~82 GEFCA
六、书面表达（15分）
83．One possible version:
In my neighborhood lives Mr. Li, a 70-year-old retired teacher. With grey hair and a kind smile, he’s thin but energetic, always wearing a blue shirt.
Last autumn, I saw him cut red paper into a beautiful butterfly and asked to learn. My hands shook, tearing the paper and making me disappointed. But he guided my hand and taught me patiently. We were excited when my first “butterfly” was done. Mr. Li's wisdom shined through his patience, making me realize how much we can learn from the elderly.
So, I’ll visit Mr. Li once a week, learning paper cutting and helping with chores. I also plan to start a “Young Helper” group at school to care for more old people.
英语评分补充意见
一、第一大题听力测试C部分（16-20小题）补充意见：
16.14或者fourteen的1分，forteen给0.5分，forty不给分；
17.friend或者friendly给0.5分；
18.own或者work给0.5分；
19.camera给1分；
20.March 10 给1分，March 给0.5分。
二、完形填空B部分（44-54小题）补充意见：
1.大小写不扣分；
2.不要变形的变了形，给0.5分。 如44小题quickly写成了quick，54小题fun写成 funny。
3.需要变形的没有变形，给0.5分。 如45小题easiest写成easy，50小题hands写成 hand，53小题to read写成read。
三、 书面表达评分标准补充意见：
1.先通读文章，重点关注语言的表达的逻辑性和流畅性和思维品质，确定文章档次；
2.看要点是否齐全，但不完全按照要点给分。如缺某一要点酌情扣分；
3.书面表达只给整数分，不给0.5分；
4.时态运用不准确，酌情扣分；
5.抄写阅读理解B给１分，抄写其他阅读文章不给分。
6.评分标准：
(1)总体原则：考查学生综合运用语言的能力，注重语言表达的意义和流畅性。
(2)内容要点：
① 第一个要点 3分；
② 第二个要点4分；
③ 第三个要点4分;
④ 文章结构、语言流畅3分;
⑤ 书写卷面整洁1分。
(3) 评分档次（参考中考英语作文评分标准）：
第一档（13-15分）信息完整，表达流畅准确，逻辑性强，要点齐全，建议给15分。
第二档（10-12分）信息基本完整，要点齐全，表达较流畅，逻辑性强，少量语言错误，但不影响表达, 建议给12分。
第三档（7-9分）能传递部分信息表达不够流畅，较多语法错误，但句子基本可读。建议给8分。
第四档（4-6分）只能传递少量信息，表达不通顺，只有少量句子可读。中文式表达较多，建议给6分。
第五档（1-3分）只传递个别信息，个别句子可读，但表达不清楚，没有实际意义，建议给3分；
听力材料
现在是试听时间。请听一段对话, 然后回答问题。
M: I’m going shopping, Mum. Do you need anything
W: Yes, get some apples and some oranges to make juice with.
M: Well, we already have lots of oranges.
W: OK, just some apples then.
答案是C。
A）请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. M: Kate, where are you going
W: I’m going to my dance class at the gym.
2.M: I don’t want to go for a walk now. I think it may rain later.
W: But the sun is shining! It’s a beautiful day now. There isn’t a cloud in the sky!
3. W: Do you walk to school every day, Tom
M: No, my brother takes me in his car.
4. W: You’re late! It’s already 8:45!
M: I’m sorry. My alarm clock didn’t ring. I overslept as a result.
5.M: You are so lucky, Tina
W: Why is that
M: You have your own room.
W: Oh Don’t you
M: I wish.
B）请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
请听第1段对话, 回答第6、7小题。
W: Good morning, sir. Can I help you
M: Yes, I am looking for black sports shoes.
W: Sure, what size are you
M: Size 42.
W: Let me check... Here is one pair in your size. Try them on, please.
M: Perfect. What’s the price
W: 200 Yuan.
M: OK. I’ll take it.
请听第2段对话，回答第8、9小题。
W: Hi, Jack, what are you doing here
M: Oh, hi, Jane. I hurt my arm when I was playing basketball. I hope it isn’t broken. Why are you here
W: I’ve got stomachache. I think I ate too much pizza yesterday!
M: Oh dear. Well, I hope we don’t have to wait too long to see the doctor.
请听第3段对话，回答第10至第12小题。
W: Hey, did you see the new school rules posted this morning
M: Yeah! The uniform rules changed. Now we can wear white shoes instead of black.
W: That’s cool! But the library rules are stricter. No outside snacks or drinks allowed at all—
not even water.
M: Right. and the club activities—they added a new rule: Leave the phones outside the club room.
W: Oh... I like the uniform part, but the library rule makes me crazy.
M: Well, maybe it’s to keep books safe. Let’s just follow them.
请听第4段对话，回答第13至第15小题。
W: Hi, Tom! Long time no see.
M: Hey, Lucy! My band’s performing at a coffee shop this Friday. Want to join
W: Sounds fun! Where’s it
M: It’s called “Moonlight Coffee” on 9 River Road.
W: River Road… Is that close to the subway station
M: Yes! Just a 5-minute walk.
W: Perfect! How do I get there from the station
M: Get out of the station, turn right onto Main Street. Walk past the bookstore, then turn left at the traffic lights. You’ll see the coffee shop on your right.
W: Got it. What time should I come
M: The show starts at 8:00 p.m, but come by 7:30 to get a seat!
W: OK, see you then!
C）请听下面一段独白, 根据独白内容完成下列句子, 每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。
Now it’s competition time on The Picture Show. We want all you young artists between the ages of 11 and 14 to send in a piece of art that you have done.
We had lots of great pictures last year. Last year the topic was animals, but this year it’s friends. You can send us a painting, a pencil drawing or a photo and it can show one person or a group of people but it must be your own work. Make sure to create by yourself.
There are some great prizes. The prize for the best picture will be a camera. The other winners will get boxes of paints and coloured pencils.
Send your picture together with your name and an email address or telephone number to 95 High Street. All pictures must be in our office on or before March 10th, so to be sure of being on time. Start working now. We can’t wait to see your pictures.

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