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2025年安徽省初中学业水平考试
英语
注意事项：
1．本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。
2．全卷包括“试题卷”（8页）和“答题卡”（2页）两部分。
3．请务必在“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。
4．考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卡”一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分）
Ⅰ．短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1．How will the girl get to the concert
A． B． C．
2．What are the speakers probably talking about
A． B． C．
3．When is the school bus leaving
A．At 3:20. B．At 3:30. C．At 3:40.
4．What did the river use to be like
A．Nice. B．Clean. C．Dirty.
5．Where are the two speakers
A．Under the tree. B．On the bus. C．In the bank.
Ⅱ．长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。
6．Why did Helen’s parents give the shoes to her
A．For her dance. B．For her birthday. C．For her success.
7．What’s the possible relationship between the two speakers
A．Customer and salesman. B．Doctor and patient. C．Father and daughter.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。
8．What is Mike doing
A．Replying to a letter. B．Creating a story. C．Doing a test.
9．How did Mike feel when he heard Tina won the writing competition
A．Surprised. B．Relaxed. C．Worried.
10．When will Tina go for the trip
A．Next Friday. B．Next Saturday. C．Next Sunday.
Ⅲ．短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11．What does Judy probably do
A．A guide. B．A tourist. C．A teacher.
12．How many floors does the museum have
A．Three. B．Four. C．Five.
13．What should the students do on the weekend
A．Visit a museum. B．Write a report. C．Draw a picture.
14．What can the students learn about on the third floor
A．The history. B．The local food. C．The local culture.
15．Where do the students meet at five o’clock in the afternoon
A．At the gate of the gift shop. B．At the gate of the museum. C．At the gate of the rest area.
Ⅳ．信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Students Wanted
Place The school 16________
Number Five
Requirements ·Write 17________and draw pictures ·Know how to make good use of 18________
Benefits (好处) ·Receiving a payment for it ·Getting fun by 19________ with us ·Getting some 20 ________experiences
第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分）
Ⅴ．单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
1. —Is the noise coming from your neighbors above
—Yeah, but it’s usually not so ________.
A. light B. low C. loud D. simple
2. —Make sure ________ is in the library before you lock the door.
—OK, Mr Han.
A. nobody B. anybody C. everybody D. somebody
3. —Self-driving cars still have a long way to go before they can ________ deal with difficult situations on public roads.
—You have a point. They still need a lot of improvement.
A. patiently B. carefully C. properly D. slowly
4. —Although Mr Wang is a man of great ________, he never wastes money on expensive clothes.
—So smart!
A. courage B. influence C. talent D. wealth
5. It’s impolite to ________ people who make mistakes. Instead, we should encourage them to try again.
A. laugh at B. find out C. depend on D. believe in
6. —Look! Some young people ________ their bodies slowly over there. What kind of sport is that
—It’s called baduanjin.
A. move B. moved C. are moving D. were moving
7. —Lily took care of me when I broke my leg. She is a true friend.
—I agree. As the saying goes, “A friend is never known ________ a man has need.”
A. as B. till C. since D. though
8. —Ruby, do you know ________ fish can only live in the water
—Yes because there are lots of cats on the ground.
A. why B. how C. whether D. what
9. The Great Wall has a history of over twenty centuries and each part of it ________ in separate periods.
A. build B. is built C. built D. was built
10. —It’s been sunny these days. I hope it stays this way for the picnic tomorrow.
—________. A sunny day would be perfect for a picnic.
A. Never mind B. No problem C. I hope so D. My pleasure
Ⅵ．完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
Xiaohe is a digger (挖掘机) driver. The 31-year-old man has chosen a special ____11____ to give back to society. He says, “I see a hole and I ____12____ it.” The story didn’t really begin with joy. In February 2024, Xiaohe was ____13____ on a highway (高速公路) in Hubei Province because of a heavy snow. On the third day, he ran out of his food. ____14____, some local villagers gave help to him. They gave him some food and hot water.
Xiaohe always remembered this act of ____15____. In June, he decided to drive a digger across Xizang. He wanted to help others on his trip as he had once been helped.
On day 22, Xiaohe came across a big hole in the road. Such a large hole in the ground would ____16____ the passing cars. He used a bucket (铲斗) of ____17____ to fill the hole. That night, he posted a video of his work online. It quickly became ____18____.
Over the past six months, Xiaohe has ____19____ more than 7,000 such holes in the road. The videos of his work have won him millions of followers. “Xiaohe isn’t just fixing roads; he’s ____20____ trust and hope,” said one of his followers. “He shows how one person can make a difference, even with just a digger.”
11. A. way B. rule C. class D. answer
12. A. fill B. mix C. play D. cover
13. A. fixed B. shocked C. hidden D. stuck
14. A. Luckily B. Sadly C. Recently D. Secretly
15. A. business B. shyness C. kindness D. politeness
16. A. lose B. harm C. support D. help
17. A. clothes B. stones C. coins D. leaves
18. A. popular B. terrible C. heavy D. common
19. A. collected B. painted C. repaired D. checked
20. A. turning down B. taking up C. bringing back D. keeping away
B
You hear different kinds of sounds each day. Some sounds are loud, others are ____21____. Some are high, others are low. All these sounds are alike in one way. They are ____22____by sound energy. Sound energy is the energy made by ____23____ that vibrate (振动). In order for a sound to be produced, something must vibrate.
When an object vibrates, it pushes on the ____24____ around it. The air is pressed together. Then the air is pushed back to its old place. A sound wave ____25____. This sound wave ____26____ energy from one place to another.
Sound waves have a different kind of motion (运动). They do not move up and down but move back and forth. That is because they form ____27____ air is quickly pulled together and then pushed apart. Waves that move back and forth are called compression waves (压缩波).
Every sound that you hear is carried to your ____28____ by a compression wave. As the wave ____29____ your ear, parts of your ear begin to vibrate. If the parts vibrate very ____30____, you hear a high sound like a whistle (哨子). If the parts move slowly, you hear a low sound like a drumbeat.
21. A. funny B. soft C. nosy D. hard
22. A. forced B. stopped C. stored D. caused
23. A. signs B. materials C. objects D. instructions
24. A. air B. water C. fire D. earth
25. A. stands B. forms C. changes D. fails
26. A. creates B. throws C. collects D. carries
27. A. after B. before C. when D. unless
28. A. eye B. ear C. hand D. arm
29. A. reaches B. cuts C. opens D. falls
30. A. strangely B. weakly C. deeply D. quickly
Ⅶ．补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据对话内容，从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hey, Susan. What are you reading
B: I’m reading The Story of Doctor Dolittle. It’s a children’s book. But it’s fun for everyone.
A: ____31____
B: It’s about an amazing doctor who can talk to animals. He has funny conversations with them.
A: ____32____
B: Yes. Doctor Dolittle builds friendships with many animals. ____33____
A: Wow, that sounds interesting. Is The Story of Doctor Dolittle your favorite book
B: Yes, it is. I read it every year. ____34____
A: Sometimes. Perhaps I can try The Story of Doctor Dolittle when I’m free.
B: Here. ____35____
A: Thanks! I may start it tonight.
B: Great! Then we can talk about it once you’re done.
A. I love reading.
B. What’s it about
C. You can read my book.
D. They travel together too.
E. Do you like reading books
F. Can animals understand him
G. Do you read in your free time
第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分）
Ⅷ．阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
How to Make a Bookmark
When you are reading a book, sometimes you have to stop to play soccer, go to bed, or even go to school. You can use a bookmark to mark your place. Here is how you make a bookmark. Steps to follow: Step 1 On a piece of cardboard, draw a rectangle (长方形) that is the size you want your bookmark to be. Use a ruler to make sure that the sides are straight. Step 2 Use scissors to cut out your bookmark. Step 3 At one end of the bookmark, make a hole. Step 4 Measure and cut a piece of ribbon that is six inches long. Step 5 Thread (穿过) your ribbon through the hole and tie it in a double knot. Step 6 Use colored pencils to decorate (装饰) your bookmark. Materials: ·cardboard ·a ruler ·scissors ·ribbon ·colored pencils
36. What should we prepare to make a bookmark
①A ruler. ②Scissors. ③Knives. ④Cardboard.
A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ②③④ D. ①③④
37. Why do we need to use a ruler when drawing the rectangle
A. To keep the rectangle clean. B. To know the size of the cardboard.
C. To make the sides of the rectangle straight. D. To cut the rectangle without any difficulty.
38. What is the purpose of the text
A. To tell readers how to use a bookmark. B. To teach readers how to make a bookmark.
C. To introduce different kinds of bookmarks. D. To show readers the importance of bookmarks.
B
“It was great fun to guess the price of products,” 12-year-old Audrey Brown said. The idea of the game came from The Price Is Right, a TV show. “Whenever a student guessed right, all their friends would cheer,” Audrey said.
The game was an interesting way to learn about a serious subject: hygiene poverty (卫生贫困). That’s when people can’t afford the products they need for health and cleanliness. Audrey and her classmates wanted to help people in this situation. They started a hygiene product drive at school. Their goal was to collect and donate 10 bags of products to the Medina Personal Care Pantry. In the end, they donated 17 bags. Each bag had about $45 worth of personal care and cleaning products. “I’m really proud of how much we’ve learned as a class,” Audrey said.
On the first Saturday of each month, the Personal Care Pantry hands out the things to people who need them. It gives out about 180 bags each month. The bags donated by Audrey’s class were gone in 15 minutes. “The activity is meaningful. One of my friends—her family was able to get a month’s worth of products,” Audrey said.
“I really like doing service in my community,” she added. “I also love to see where the bags go, and how they’re helping people.”
39. Where did Audrey know the price guessing game
A. From a TV program. B. From a school project. C. From a science book. D. From a cleaning product.
40. How does the writer show the success of Audrey’s collection activity
A. By listing numbers. B. By telling stories. C. By giving examples. D. By asking questions.
41. What is introduced in paragraph 3 about the activity
A. Its members. B. Its process. C. Its meaning. D. Its method.
42. Which of the following best describes Audrey
A. Polite. B. Strict. C. Helpful. D. Careless.
C
What makes an art form last over 600 years Kunqu Opera, one of China’s oldest and most beautiful traditional operas, has done just that. However, like many traditional Chinese art forms, Kunqu Opera faced challenges. Modern culture like pop music took center stage, and it seemed fewer young people were interested in traditional arts like Kunqu Opera.
But things are changing now. With schools teaching traditional arts and performers using social media, a new generation has started discovering Kunqu’s beauty through online videos and live shows.
Fang Qian is one of these young fans. “Kunqu Opera is like a seed (种子) that grows as I learn more about it,” she says. “The more I study it, the more I discover about other parts of Chinese culture, like literature, calligraphy (书法), music, and painting. This helps me understand my cultural roots (根) better gradually.”
Fu Jin, a professor at the National Academy of Chinese Theater Arts, explains why Kunqu Opera is so special. “It shows many parts of traditional Chinese culture, such as social values and lifestyle,” he says.
Today, Kunqu Opera is not just part of history—it’s a living treasure that connects us to China’s rich culture. I believe it will become popular both in China and around the world with growing support from the youth.
43. What challenge did Kunqu Opera face in the past
A. Young people showed less interest in it. B. People had little chance to know about it.
C. There were fewer and fewer performances. D. The stories were too difficult to understand.
44. What does the underlined word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to (指是)
A. Pop music. B. Social media. C. Kunqu Opera. D. The live show.
45. How does the writer feel about Kunqu Opera’s future
A. Doubtful. B. Hopeful. C. Uncaring. D. Uncertain.
D
On April 19, 2025, Beijing held a special half-marathon (半程马拉松) where 21 human-like robots raced with thousands of human runners along a 21.0975-kilometer course. This was the first time that robots and humans had competed in a marathon together.
The robots had to look like humans and walk or run on two legs-wheels were not allowed. They were accompanied by human trainers, with some supporting the machines during the race. Several of the robots wore running shoes, with one wearing gloves and another wearing a red headband that said “Must Win” in Chinese.
The winning robot was Tiangong Ultra, which crossed the finishing line in two hours and 40 minutes, while the men’s race winner had a time of one hour and two minutes. Tang Jian, the chief technology officer (首席技术官) for the creator of the robot, said its success came from long legs and a smart program that copied human running movements. He added that Tiangong Ultra stopped only three times to change batteries (电池) during the race.
“I don’t want to show off, but I think no other robot company in the West has made a robot better than Tiangong in sports,” he said.
46. What should 21 human-like robots in the race do
A. They should look like animals. B. They should use wheels to move.
C. They should walk or run on two legs. D. They should take part in the race alone.
47. What does the underlined word “accompanied” mean in the passage
A. Tested. B. Treated. C. Followed. D. Researched.
48 Why did the robot “Tiangong Ultra” win the race
A. Because it didn’t need to change its battery. B. Because it had wheels that made it run faster.
C. Because it had long legs and a smart program. D. Because it didn’t face any difficult problems.
49. In which part of a newspaper can you find the text
A. History. B. Weather. C. Nature. D. Science.
E
Nature is all around us, and it is very important for us to take care of it. Nature includes everything that is not made by humans, like trees, animals, and even the air. It is beautiful and amazing, and we can learn so much from it.
One of the most important things we can learn from nature is how to be kind. Just as the sun shines on everything and the rain falls on everyone, we should also be kind to everyone and everything around us. We should not hurt animals or plants, and we should not litter or pollute the environment.
Another important thing we can learn from nature is how to be patient. Sometimes things in nature take a long time to grow or change, such as a small tree growing into a towering tree. We can learn to be patient and enjoy the beauty of the process (过程).
Finally, nature reminds us how amazing and powerful the world is. We can see the beauty of the mountains, and we can feel the power of the wind. It is important to remember that we are just a small part of this big world, and we should do our best to take care of it.
50. What examples are used to show nature’s kindness
A. Trees and flowers. B. The sun and rain. C. Animals and people. D. The air and earth.
51. How does nature show its patience
A. The seasons change slowly. B. It takes time for plants to grow.
C. Animals are used to changes. D. A forest fire always lasts a long time.
52. What’s the best title for the text
A. What is Nature B. How Beautiful Nature is
C. What Nature Teaches us D. How Powerful Nature is
第二节 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。
F
Max loved to experiment (做实验) with things when he was a little boy. He always took apart his toys and put them together in new and interesting ways. Max loved to invent things, and he dreamed of becoming a famous inventor one day.
One day, Max came up with an idea for a new kind of toy. He wanted to create a robot that could walk and talk and do all kinds of cool things. Max spent weeks working on his invention, experimenting with everything until he created the perfect robot.
When Max showed his invention to his parents, they were surprised. They had never seen anything like it before. Max’s robot was a huge success, and soon he sold his robots to kids all over the world.
Max’s success as an inventor didn’t stop there. He continued to create all kinds of amazing things, from flying cars to underwater submarines (潜艇). Max became famous for his inventions, and kids everywhere looked up to him as a role model.
But even with all his success, Max never forgot where he came from. He always remembered the joy of experimenting with things as a child, and he encouraged other kids to ____53____.
53 What did Max dream of doing when he was a little boy （不超过10个词）
__________________________________________________
54. How did Max’s parents feel when seeing the perfect robot （不超过5个词）
__________________________________________________
55. What would Max encourage other kids to do at the end of the text （不超过10个词）
__________________________________________________
第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分）
Ⅸ．单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
56. Hidden c________ (照相机) in forests help scientists study wild animals more conveniently.
57. A good s________ (演讲) should be easy to follow and fun to listen to.
58. People in Bozhou o________ (经常) celebrate traditional festivals with Hui-style performances.
59. The b________ (勇敢的) firefighter rushed into the burning building to save the child inside.
60. If you can’t c________ (领会) what someone said, ask him or her politely to repeat it.
Ⅹ．书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）
61. 假定你是李辉，你校在4月24日举办了“校园航天日”主题活动来激发你们对太空的兴趣。请你结合下图信息，给英国笔友David写一封邮件，分享此次活动的过程和感受。
注意：
1.邮件须包含上述要点，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
2.文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称；
3.词数80～100 (开头和结尾已为你写好，不计入总词数)。
Dear David,
How are you doing I’m writing to share an unforgettable activity with you. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hui
2025年安徽省初中学业水平考试
英语
注意事项：
1．本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。
2．全卷包括“试题卷”（8页）和“答题卡”（2页）两部分。
3．请务必在“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。
4．考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卡”一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分）
Ⅰ．短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1．How will the girl get to the concert
A． B． C．
2．What are the speakers probably talking about
A． B． C．
3．When is the school bus leaving
A．At 3:20. B．At 3:30. C．At 3:40.
4．What did the river use to be like
A．Nice. B．Clean. C．Dirty.
5．Where are the two speakers
A．Under the tree B．On the bus. C．In the bank.
Ⅱ．长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。
6．Why did Helen’s parents give the shoes to her
A．For her dance. B．For her birthday. C．For her success.
7．What’s the possible relationship between the two speakers
A．Customer and salesman. B．Doctor and patient. C．Father and daughter.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。
8．What is Mike doing
A．Replying to a letter. B．Creating a story. C．Doing a test.
9．How did Mike feel when he heard Tina won the writing competition
A．Surprised. B．Relaxed. C．Worried.
10．When will Tina go for the trip
A．Next Friday. B．Next Saturday. C．Next Sunday.
Ⅲ．短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11．What does Judy probably do
A．A guide. B．A tourist. C．A teacher.
12．How many floors does the museum have
A．Three. B．Four. C．Five.
13．What should the students do on the weekend
A．Visit a museum. B．Write a report. C．Draw a picture.
14．What can the students learn about on the third floor
A．The history. B．The local food. C．The local culture.
15．Where do the students meet at five o’clock in the afternoon
A．At the gate of the gift shop. B．At the gate of the museum. C．At the gate of the rest area.
Ⅳ．信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Students Wanted
Place The school 16________
Number Five
Requirements ·Write 17________and draw pictures ·Know how to make good use of 18________
Benefits (好处) ·Receiving a payment for it ·Getting fun by 19________ with us ·Getting some 20 ________experiences
第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分）
Ⅴ．单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【1题答案】
【答案】C
【2题答案】
【答案】A
【3题答案】
【答案】C
【4题答案】
【答案】D
【5题答案】
【答案】A
【6题答案】
【答案】C
【7题答案】
【答案】B
【8题答案】
【答案】A
【9题答案】
【答案】D
【10题答案】
【答案】C
Ⅵ．完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
【11~20题答案】
【答案】11. A 12. A 13. D 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. C
B
【21~30题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. C 28. B 29. A 30. D
Ⅶ．补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
【31~35题答案】
【答案】31. B 32. F 33. D 34. G 35. C
第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分）
Ⅷ．阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【36~38题答案】
【答案】36. B 37. C 38. B
B
【39~42题答案】
【答案】39. A 40. A 41. C 42. C
C
【43~45题答案】
【答案】43. A 44. C 45. B
D
【46~49题答案】
【答案】46. C 47. C 48. C 49. D
E
【50~52题答案】
【答案】50. B 51. B 52. C
第二节 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。
F
【53~55题答案】
【答案】53. Becoming a famous inventor.
54. They felt surprised.
55. Experiment with things and dream big.
第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分）
Ⅸ．单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
【56题答案】
【答案】(c)ameras
【57题答案】
【答案】(s)peech
【58题答案】
【答案】(o)ften
【59题答案】
【答案】(b)rave
【60题答案】
【答案】(c)atch
Ⅹ．书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）
【61题答案】
【答案】例文
Dear David,
How are you doing I’m writing to share an unforgettable activity with you. In order to make us show an interest in space, my school held an activity named School Space Day in our school hall on April 24.
First, we attended a lecture given by a well-known space expert at 10 a.m. During the lecture, we had a deep understanding of the secrets of space. Then, we visited a space exhibition at 2 p.m. There, we saw some spacesuits at close quarters and learned about the history of human space exploration by watching some videos. One of my favorite parts was taking part in the water rocket launching contest at 4 p.m. What made it special was that it enabled us to express our creativity.
The activity not only taught us about the mysteries of space and broadened our horizons, but also brought science to life. Looking forward to hearing about your recent interesting activities as well.
Yours,
Li Hui

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