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写作评分细则
第一节（满分 15 分）
（一） 评分原则
1.本题总分为 15 分，按 5 个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最
后给分。
3.词数少于 60 或多于 100 的，从总分中减去 2 分。
4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇
用法均可接受。
6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。
（二） 各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（13～15 分）
——完全完成试题规定的任务。
——覆盖所有内容要点。
——应用较多的语法结构和词汇。
——语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能
力。
——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
——完全达到预期的写作目的。
第四档（10～12 分）
——完成试题规定的任务。
——虽漏掉 1～2 个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致。
——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
——达到预期的写作目的。
第三档（7～9 分）
——基本完成试题规定的任务。
——虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
——整体而言，基本达到预期的写作目的。
第二档（4～6 分）
——未适当完成试题规定的任务。
——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
——语法结构单调，词汇有限。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。
——信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档（1～3 分）
——未完成试题规定的任务。
——明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题的要求。
——语法结构单调，词汇有限。
——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。
——缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
——信息未能传达给读者。
{#{QQABAQQx5wKwwAQACI7bAQ2eCwqQkJARJSoGgQAUOAwLiRFIBAA=}#}
0 分
——未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判。
——所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
第二节（满分 25 分）
（一） 评分原则
1.本题总分为 25 分，按 5 个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档
次，最后给分。
3.词数少于 120 的，酌情扣分；只写一段的原则上不超过 10 分。
4.评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑：
（1） 与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
（2） 内容的丰富性和关键信息的利用情况；
（3） 应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
（4） 上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及
词汇用法均可接受。
6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。
（二） 各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21～25 分）
——与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接合理。
——内容丰富，利用了文中的关键信息。
——所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。
——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档（16～20 分）
——与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
——内容比较丰富，基本利用了文中的关键信息。
——所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。
——比较有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。
第三档（11～15 分）
——与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
——写出了若干有关内容，部分利用了文中的关键信息。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。
——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档（6～10 分）
——与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
——写出了一些有关内容，较少利用文中的关键信息。
——语法结构单调，词汇有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，且影响了意义的表达。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档（1～5 分）
——与所给短文和所提供的各段落开头语的衔接较差。
——写出的内容较少，很少利用文中的关键信息。
——语法结构单调，词汇很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。
——缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。
0 分
——未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
{#{QQABAQQx5wKwwAQACI7bAQ2eCwqQkJARJSoGgQAUOAwLiRFIBAA=}#}2024～2025学年度下学期高一年级6月份联合考试
英语
考生注意：
1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2．答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3．考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
4．本卷命题范围：人教版至必修第三册Unit4.
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．Which club has Kelly joined
A．Music club. B．Debate club. C．Drama club.
2．When will the lecture start
A．At 8:10. B．At 8:20. C．At 8:30.
3．What is the woman doing
A．Giving a lecture. B．Chairing a meeting. C．Conducting an interview.
4．Where does this conversation take place
A．At the hotel. B．On the beach. C．At the airport.
5．Why does the woman talk to Michael
A．To ask for help. B．To repair a television. C．To buy a piece of cake.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．Why does Lucy feel stressed
A．For a story. B．For her look. C．For her phone.
7．What does the man advise Lucy to do
A．Take a note. B．Be confident. C．Call her friend.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8．What troubles Mary
A．The homework. B．The cost of living. C．The change of seasons.
9．What will the speakers probably do next
A．Go back home. B．Make a to-do list. C．Clean the classroom.
10．What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A．Classmates. B．Mother and son. C．Teacher and student.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11．What did Sally want to be at first
A．A writer. B．A reporter. C．A scientist.
12．How does Sally find photography
A．Costly. B．Practical. C．Challenging.
13．What are the speakers mainly talking about
A．Doing workouts. B．Looking for a job. C．Choosing a course.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14．What did Sarah do this morning
A．She wrote a letter. B．She won first prize. C．She read in the library.
15．What does Sarah like best
A．Book reviews. B．Short stories. C．Science reports.
16．How many books does the man expect to read this year
A．Five. B．Ten. C．Fifteen.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17．Why does the speaker give the talk
A．To ask listeners to learn swimming.
B．To share an exciting competition.
C．To voice her views on education.
18．Who encouraged the speaker to enter competitions
A．Her parents. B．Her first coach. C．An Olympic winner.
19．Why did the speaker move to another club
A．To accept better training.
B．To work with her classmate.
C．To save time for schoolwork.
20．How often did the speaker’s parents allow her to swim each week
A．Once. B．Twice. C．Three times.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
The Zozobra Festival is a unique cultural event in Santa Fe staged annually by the Kiwanis Club of Santa Fe in Zozobra Field at Fort Marcy Park on the Friday of Labor Day weekend as an exciting finale to the last days of summer.
The history of Zozobra
Artist William Howard “Will” Shuster Jr. created the first Zozobra in 1924 as the signature highlight of a private party for Los Cinco Pintores, a group of artists and writers who made their way to New Mexico in the 1920s. Shuster drew inspiration from Mexico’s Yaqui Indians and their traditions, where an effigy (塑像) is led around the village on a donkey (驴) and then set alight. The painter named his 6-foot-tall effigy Zozobra, a Spanish word meaning “pain” or “anxiety”.
Celebrating a century-old tradition
“Zozobra is a tradition here,” says New Mexico History Museum Curator Hannah Abelbeck. “Zozobra wouldn’t exist unless Santa Fe cared about it and invested in it.” To celebrate the festival’s birthday, Abelbeck’s museum, located in downtown Santa Fe, has opened a new, two-year-long exhibition (展览) that explores Zozobra’s history and cultural influences.
Putting fears into the fire
As always in the weeks before Zozobra’s burning, people dutifully write down their fears and anxieties on pieces of paper and drop them into boxes. These are collected and their contents filled inside the effigy, adding additional fuel for the fire. A crowd of 75,000 people is expected to come to Fort Marcy, a local park that’s a five-minute drive from Santa Fe’s Central Plaza, to see the impressive view. As night falls, the dancing Fire Spirit appears and then lights the effigy in the hope of putting people’s fears into the fire.
1. What inspired Shuster to create the Zozobra Festival
A. Celebrations in his hometown. B. Eye-catching artworks by his friends.
C. Well-designed language training courses. D. Traditions in the Yaqui Indian communities.
2. Why does New Mexico History Museum host the great exhibition
A. To explore the history of Mexico. B. To show the changes the state has seen.
C. To mark the birthday of Zozobra. D. To honor writers from around the world.
3 What do people hope to do by burning the effigy
A. Welcome the New Year. B. Destroy worrisome feelings.
C. Face hardships fearlessly. D. Be careful about possible fires.
B
The Chinese New Year parade isn't the only place to watch a lion dance in. the San Francisco Bay Area. At weddings, grand openings of new businesses and other celebrations, the traditional Chinese art is performed year-round, thanks to the contributions of lion dance groups and young people increasingly embracing the activity.
Connie Lu, a senior at Lincoln High School in San Francisco, has been practicing lion dance for three years in a youth lion dance club. She performed as the lion's head at a high school competition during the weekend in San Francisco's Chinatown to celebrate Asian Pacific American Heritage Month.
“I officially started performing in my freshman year, but I had been a ’tail’ in a Chinese school for some years. I was only following the head’s steps,” Lu said. “I think being a head is more fun because you can play out the lion.”
Lu’s team — eleven girls and two boys — participated in the competition, along with four other teams of about 100 players. The event also attracted hundreds of tourists. Blinking big eyes and shaking the body, the yellow lion played by Lu and her teammates jumped up on a narrow bench to the beat of drums and gongs and picked up a hanging flower bouquet. The dancers’ skillful movements won a big round of applause from the audience.
Each performance has a unique meaning. Lu’s performance tells the story of a lion who tries to cross a river to get a flower for his friend, but he is afraid of the river at first. Finally, he conquers the challenge and gets the flower to his friend.
“The meaning is that everyone has struggles in life and it can be scary. But when we work together and work hard, we can achieve it,” said Sophia Lee, a teammate of Lu’s. “The practice of lion dancing serves as a way to celebrate our cultural heritage with audience abroad, giving them a deeper understanding and appreciation for the rich Chinese traditions.”
4. What might be Lu’s favourite role in a lion dance
A. The head. B. The tail. C. The body. D. The leg.
5. How many teams joined in the competition in total
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.
6. What can we learn about Lu in the competition
A. She was unfamiliar with a lion dance. B. Her role is still scary for her.
C. She gave up in the face of difficulty. D. Her performance tells a story of a brave lion.
7. What does Sophia Lee agree with about the lion dance
A. It focuses on individual spirit. B. It's a chance to share Chinese culture.
C. It's hardly accepted abroad. D. It doesn't require a high level of skills.
C
In recent years, I have tried to appreciate younger artists such as Doja Cat, Lil Nas X and Sabrina Carpenter, but songs from the 2000s hold a special place in my heart and mind.
As I see other generations of music lovers say music was so much better when they were younger, I wondered why. We can’t all be right—or maybe we are, I talked to experts about how music influences our brains to find out.
“It’s not that music was better when we were younger, it’s that music brings out very, very strong emotions,” said Dr. Rita Aiello, a music psychologist at New York University. “Music is a very strong reminder of things that happened in our past.”
But why does music hold such power “Music is episodic (情景性的),” said Dr. Robert Cutietta, a professor of music at the University of Southern California. “If you look at an artwork or something, you can look at it and leave, Music is over time. There’s a part of our brain called episodic memory—that’s where it goes.”
The feelings connected to music during our younger years create a strong, lasting connection, with both happy and sad emotions mixing together when we listen to a song.
What if you see the 1970s and 1980s as the best, time for real music, even though every decade has some high- or low-quality songs It may be because you’re remembering the songs that were meaningful to you and forgetting the ones that weren’t. “There are situations that made certain songs special to you, and the memories of those situations will come back when you hear the songs,” Aiello said.
“Every era has some songs that are not of high quality but still become huge hits,” Cutietta said. “They’re still there somewhere in our memory, but we choose not to pull those up. Naturally, we tend to pull up the songs we like.”
8. Why do people prefer music from their youth according to experts
A. New music lacks creativity. B. Today’s songs have a really quick beat.
C. It can connect their feelings with the past. D. It always brings out happy emotions.
9. Why does Cutietta mention an artwork in paragraph 4
A To make a comparison. B. To lead in the topic.
C. To give a warning. D. To offer a suggestion.
10. What does the author say about music from different times
A. The 1970s and 1980s had the worst music.
B. The 2000s is the only time with good music.
C. Each decade has a mix of good and bad songs.
D. Bad music from the 1980s has become popular today.
11. What does the underlined word “those” in the last paragraph refer to
A. Pop singers. B. Bad experiences.
C. Favourite songs. D. Popular but low-quality songs.
D
Titania Jordan, working at Bark Technologies, knows that parents today face a tough challenge: raising kids in a world filled with technology. That’s why she’s devoted to helping them navigate the digital landscape. “Parents need to be aware of what their children are exposed to online,” she stresses. “It’s not just about monitoring; it’s about understanding and leading them through this new world.”
Jordan and her team work on developing tools that allow parents to protect their children from the dangers of the Internet. “We help parents filter out things like cyberbullying, inappropriate contents, and even potential attackers,” she explains. The platform sends warnings to parents when it detects something concerning, giving them the power to take action.
Jordan believes that education is key. “We need to educate parents about the risks and how to talk to their kids about them,” she says. She often holds classes and talks, explaining why it’s important to talk openly and set good limits on how much technology we use.
One of the biggest problems Jordan addresses is the fear of missing out that children experience when they see their friends posting about fun events which they’re not part of. “It’s crucial for parents to help their children understand that social media often shows the best parts, not reality,” she says. “We need to teach them to appreciate real-life experiences rather than comparing themselves to others online.”
Jordan also stresses the importance of setting a good example. “Parents should model healthy tech habits,” she advises. “If parents are always on their phones, their kids will follow suit. But if parents show balance, it sends a strong message about the role of technology in our lives.”
“Despite the challenges,” Jordan adds, “technology is here to stay, and we just need to ensure it’s used in a way that enriches our children’s lives, not harms them.”
12. What does Jordan suggest parents do when their children use the Internet
A. Offer instruction. B. Turn a blind eye.
C. Monitor everything. D. Cut Internet access.
13. What does the underlined phrase “filter out” in paragraph 2 mean
A. Add. B. Remove. C. Keep. D. Mix.
14. How are parents advised to deal with their children’s fear of missing out
A By asking them to post fun events.
B. By showing them social media’s best parts.
C. By setting a good example in communicating with teachers.
D. By telling them to value reality over online comparisons.
15. Which of the following can be the best title for the text
A. Internet Developments and Threats B. A Parent’s Guide in Kids’ Digital World
C. Social Media and Mental Health in Teens D. The Impact of Technology on Child Development
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
While it is possible for you to survive in the wild with nothing, you’ll always be much better off with a bit of preparation. ___16___.
Learn how to find a survival shelter
The most likely cause of death in the wild is not from having no food or water, but from getting too cold. ___17___.
A shelter in the wild could be a fallen tree with dry ground below it, or up against a rocky outcropping. You can make the natural shelter stronger by leaning branches against the main structure or other wastes.
Learn something about the bow-drill (弓钻)
The bow-drill is a very valuable survival skill for creating fire. It can be learned in a relatively short period of time, and has the highest possibility of succeeding.
The hardest part of creating a bow-drill is the string (细绳). ___18___, you’ll have the material needed to create a fire without worrying. Since it’s the easiest way to make fire by friction.
Make a basic survival kit(工具包)
___19___. Some of the important items in a survival kit include a strong sharp knife, a fishing line, a signal whistle, a scarf and a water bottle.
___20___
Learn about the poisonous plants as well as edibles (可食物). This can also help you choose the best location for a shelter. However, there is no shortcut to get plant knowledge. You must put your time and energy into learning it. You can do it through either websites or published resources.
A. Find water for survival
B. If you can master the survival skills
C. Improve your skills by identifying the plants
D. So your first need in a typical survival situation is shelter
E. Here are some steps you can take to prepare yourself for survival situations
F. If you always wear shoes with strong shoestrings when you’re in the woods
G. A small amount of basic materials could make all the difference in a survival situation
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Late in the afternoon, I went for a walk near my house and decided to go towards the river. I heard two dogs barking (犬吠) ____21____. I couldn’t see them, but their barks echoed (回响) off the rocks. There were no other people around.
Following the dogs’ barks, I ____22____ two beagle dogs up the cliff (悬崖). The female was stuck under a fallen tree and couldn’t ____23____ and the male was very weak. I climbed up to them, but the female wouldn’t let me get ____24____. It was getting ____25____, and I worried about predators (捕食者), so I decided to ____26____ them.
I managed to free the female by ____27____ the tree that trapped her. ____28____, she was free. I didn’t know how to get them down the cliff since the male was too ____29____ and the female had no trust in me. I thought if I carried the male, the female might ____30____ me. And it actually ____31____. I led the female down the safest way, carrying the male.
After a ____32____ journey, I made them down from the cliff in the end. Upon arriving back, I gave them some water and food. I posted the event on local social media, hoping to ____33____ their owner as soon as possible. While waiting for their ____34____, the dogs gradually developed a sense of ____35____ in their new family and played with my kids.
21. A. loudly B. softly C. slowly D. calmly
22. A. found B. hid C. hung D. drove
23. A. breathe B. move C. sleep D. fight
24. A. outside B. close C. away D. here
25. A. bright B. hot C. early D. dark
26. A. forget B. cure C. help D. stop
27. A. cutting through B. pulling away C. holding onto D. pushing down
28. A. Regretfully B. Carelessly C. Accidentally D. Successfully
29. A. weak B. strong C. foolish D. fat
30. A. cheat B. attract C. follow D. attack
31. A. dropped B. worked C. failed D. appeared
32. A. free B. costly C. comfortable D. difficult
33. A. contact B. praise C. pay D. punish
34. A. position B. food C. owner D. turn
35. A. impatience B. pride C. trust D. fear
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Karl Landsteiner, an Austrian-American pathologist and bacteriologist (病理兼细菌学家), was born ____36____ June 14,1868, in Vienna, Austria. He is known for making a ____37____ (discover) in the identification of blood groups, which was a great breakthrough in medical science.
Working in the lab of Dr. Max von Pettenkofer in Munich, Landsteiner became ____38____ (addict) to the study of blood. His research led to the classification (分类) of blood into four groups, now known as A, B, AB, and O. This finding was important because it allowed doctors to choose the blood types for transfusions (输血), which saved many lives.
Landsteiner’s work was challenging. In ____39____ beginning, his finding was met with doubts by the medical community. However, he didn’t give up and continued his research. He kept ____40____ (try) and it paid off. In 1909, he ____41____ (award) the Nobel Prize in Medicine for finding out how to figure out blood groups.
____42____ (further) his research, Landsteiner moved to the United States in 1922 and joined the staff of the Rockefeller Institute for Medical Research in New York City. There, he continued to contribute a lot to the study of blood.
One of Landsteiner’s most important ____43____ (contribution) was the development of the Rh factor classification system that was introduced in 1937. It helped to give the reason for ____44____ some individuals experienced serious reactions during blood transfusions. The Rh factor, along with the ABO blood group system, is now used worldwide to ensure the safety of blood transfusions.
Today, his findings are considered one of the most important in the history of medicine, and he is _____45_____ (true) remembered as the father of modern blood transfusion.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
46. 假定你是李华，上周五你参观了学校举办的健康饮食（healthy eating）图片展。请你给英国朋友Helen写一封邮件分享这次经，内容包括：
1.活动介绍；
2.你的感想。
注意：1.写作词数应为80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Helen,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
As the starting gun rang, I found myself among the sea of runners, my heart beating with a mix of excitement and anxiety. I had trained for months, preparing for the marathon that would test my limits and mark a big step in my sports journey. The first part of the run went quickly, and I felt good with my pace, breathing in the fresh air with every step.
However, as the sun climbed higher in the sky, the temperature started to go up, and the run began to make me tired. My legs felt heavier with each step, and I started to feel sick. Suddenly, I felt myself losing balance. Before I realized it, I had fallen onto the hot ground.
Everything was spinning (旋转) around me, but I could see someone coming closer. A runner from the pack (队伍) was at my side. “Are you OK ” he asked with a voice of concern. Without waiting for an answer, he helped me up to my feet and guided me to the medical aid station.
The doctors quickly checked how I was feeling. They gave me water and a break to ease my thirst and tiredness from the heat. As I drank water and put cold pads on my head, I started to feel better. The stranger, Alex, stayed by my side, giving me much comfort.
注意：
1.续写词数应为150个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
I looked at Alex, really thankful.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
In the last few minutes, we ran towards the finish line hand in hand.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024～2025学年度下学期高一年级6月份联合考试
英语
考生注意：
1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2．答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3．考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
4．本卷命题范围：人教版至必修第三册Unit4.
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．Which club has Kelly joined
A．Music club. B．Debate club. C．Drama club.
2．When will the lecture start
A．At 8:10. B．At 8:20. C．At 8:30.
3．What is the woman doing
A．Giving a lecture. B．Chairing a meeting. C．Conducting an interview.
4．Where does this conversation take place
A．At the hotel. B．On the beach. C．At the airport.
5．Why does the woman talk to Michael
A．To ask for help. B．To repair a television. C．To buy a piece of cake.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．Why does Lucy feel stressed
A．For a story. B．For her look. C．For her phone.
7．What does the man advise Lucy to do
A．Take a note. B．Be confident. C．Call her friend.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8．What troubles Mary
A．The homework B．The cost of living. C．The change of seasons.
9．What will the speakers probably do next
A．Go back home. B．Make a to-do list. C．Clean the classroom.
10．What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A．Classmates. B．Mother and son. C．Teacher and student.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11．What did Sally want to be at first
A．A writer. B．A reporter. C．A scientist.
12．How does Sally find photography
A．Costly. B．Practical. C．Challenging.
13．What are the speakers mainly talking about
A．Doing workouts. B．Looking for a job. C．Choosing a course.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14．What did Sarah do this morning
A．She wrote a letter. B．She won first prize. C．She read in the library.
15．What does Sarah like best
A．Book reviews. B．Short stories. C．Science reports.
16．How many books does the man expect to read this year
A．Five. B．Ten. C．Fifteen.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17．Why does the speaker give the talk
A．To ask listeners to learn swimming
B．To share an exciting competition.
C．To voice her views on education.
18．Who encouraged the speaker to enter competitions
A．Her parents. B．Her first coach. C．An Olympic winner.
19．Why did the speaker move to another club
A．To accept better training.
B．To work with her classmate.
C．To save time for schoolwork.
20．How often did the speaker’s parents allow her to swim each week
A．Once. B．Twice. C．Three times.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. D 2. C 3. B
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. A 5. D 6. D 7. B
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. A 10. C 11. D
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. A 13. B 14. D 15. B
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. E 17. D 18. F 19. G 20. C
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. A 23. B 24. B 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. A 30. C 31. B 32. D 33. A 34. C 35. C
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. on 37. discovery
38. addicted
39. the 40. trying
41. was awarded
42. To further
43. contributions
44. which 45. truly
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Helen,
Last Friday, I had the chance to visit an eye-catching photo show on healthy eating in our school. The event showcased various tasty foods and highlighted their benefits for our well-being. There were amazing photos of fruits, vegetables, and balanced meals, along with informative posters on the importance of a balanced diet.
I found the show eye-opening as it stressed the significance of making good food choices for our health. It was a great opportunity to learn more about healthy eating in such a practical way.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
【47题答案】
【答案】I looked at Alex, really thankful. “Thank you,” I managed to say. “I wouldn’t have made it without you.” Alex just smiled, his eyes kind and encouraging. “We’re all in this together,” he replied. Feeling more determined, I chose to keep running the race, even if it meant finishing at a slower pace. Alex, who first thought of running without me, decided to stay with me. Together, we picked up our pace to the finish line, and our friendship started to build with each shared mile. The cheers from the crowd celebrating the crossing of the finish line grew louder and clearer.
In the last few minutes, we ran towards the finish line hand in hand. Though we didn’t cross the finish line ahead of the pack, we received the warmest applause, because we had won something far more valuable — a friendship that was built on the understanding of what it means to support one another in the face of difficulty.

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