新疆维吾尔自治区、新疆生产建设兵团2025年初中学业水平考试英语试题(含答案,无听力音频及原文)

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新疆维吾尔自治区、新疆生产建设兵团2025年初中学业水平考试英语试题(含答案,无听力音频及原文)

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新疆维吾尔自治区、新疆生产建设兵团2025年初中学业水平考试英语试题
考生须知:1.本试卷分为试题卷和答题卷两部分,试题卷共8页,答题卷共2页。
2.满分150分(含听力20分)。考试时间120分钟。
3.考生必须在答题卷上答题,在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。
Ⅰ.听力部分(满分20分)
A.图片理解(本题共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
根据听到的句子内容选择正确的图片。每小题读两遍。
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
B.情景反应(本题共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听句子,选择正确的应答。每小题读两遍。
6. A. Hold on, please. B. Good luck. C. Goodbye.
7. A. I'm sorry to hear that. B. It doesn't matter. C. Thank you.
8. A. For a week. B. Once a month. C. Two kilometers.
9. A. I think so. B. Never mind. C. ' Be careful.
10. A. You' re welcome. B. Good idea. C. What a pity.
C.对话理解(本题共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听对话及问题,选择正确的答案。每组对话读两遍。
11. What is Jack doing now
A. Taking out the rubbish. B. Playing the piano. C. Fixing his bike.
12. What is Mike's dream job
A. A doctor. B. A basketball player. C. A pilot.
13. When will they have their picnic
A. Next Friday. B. Next Saturday. C. Next Sunday.
14. What color is Judy's notebook
A. Red. B. Blue. C. Yellow.
15. Where are the two speakers
A. In a library. B. In a restaurant. C. In a supermarket.
D.短文理解(本题共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听短文,选择正确的答案。短文读两遍。
16. How many cats are there on the boat
A. One. B. Two. C. Three.
17. How old is Henry
A.70 years old. B.71 years old. C.72 years old.
18. Where does Henry live
A. Near a river. B. In a boat. C. In a village.
19. How do the cats help Henry to catch fish
A. By sitting down. B. By standing straight. C. By lying down.
20. What does Henry have to do to make sure the cats won't eat all the fish
A. Hide the fish. B. Sell the fish. C. Watch the cats.
Ⅱ.完形填空(本题共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
根据短文内容,从A、B、C三个选项中选择一个最佳答案。
Bill used to live in a big city. He was born there and made friends there. Life always seemed to be 21 for him.
Last year, Bill's family had to move to a small town. His life 22 all of a sudden. He felt lonely and 23 .
On Bill's 24 day to school in the town, the driver said a friendly“Hello!” to the lonely boy when he got on the bus. He just 25 with a nod in silence because of shyness. While Bill was looking for a 26 , everyone on the bus said“Hello!” 27 a gentle(温和的) voice to him. But nodding was Bill's only reply. The next day Bill got on and 28 the driver said“Hello!” kindly to him. Bill still kept 29 .
On the fifth day, Bill answered with a shy“Hello!” to everybody. He felt he was 30 of them. And he began to talk to them like old friends. That moment, it seemed that the new world opened 31 door to him.
As days went by, Bill got used to the 32 there. He made 33 friends in the town.Everybody knew him as 34 as he knew them. Life was colorful like before. Smiles appeared onBill's face again.
Sometimes 35 a simple“Hello!” can bring sunshine and warmth(温暖) into a lonely heart.
21. A. busy B. happy C. boring
22. A. changed B. remained C. exchanged
23. A. excited B. sad C. pleasant
24,A. last B. best C. first
25. A. joked B. asked C. replied
26. A. window B. bag C. seat
27. A. in B. at C. on
28. A. suddenly B. again C. angrily
29. A. silent B. noisy C. hungry
30. A. all B. none C. one
31. A. its B. your C. her
32. A. work B. life C. weather
33. A. worse B. fewer C. more
34. A. well B. little C. fast
35. A. just B. nearly C. almost
Ⅲ.阅读理解(本题共分两节,共23 小题,每小题2分,满分46分)
第一节 阅读并从所给选项中选出最佳答案。(四篇阅读,共18小题,每小题2分,满分36分,其中第一篇为T/F判断选择题)
A
根据短文内容,判断下面各小题的正(T)误(F)。
An elephant and her baby were alone in the forest. They had to leave their family, for the little baby was too small to keep up with the other big elephants.
Whenever the mother looked at the sweet, little baby elephant, she would say, “As long as you are small, I shall do anything to protect you and take care of you. When you are big, you will have to fight for yourself. You will have to be very careful if you want to reach your full size.”
In the day, when she saw him pick up some leaves with his trunk(象鼻) and put them into his mouth, she was pleased. When they met other big animals, she would cry angrily and guard him. In the night, she stood close to him until morning, for she knew a lion might be near.
As time went by, the baby elephant grew big enough to follow his mother and then they met the other big elephants. They returned to their family!
At last, they came to a beautiful river. There they lived a happy life together.
36. The mother elephant and her baby were in the forest with their family.
37. The mother elephant would try her best to protect her baby.
38. When the baby elephant is big, he has to fight for himself.
39. In the night, the mother elephant stood far from her baby.
40. The mother elephant and her baby returned to their family at last.
B
阅读下面材料,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
In 2024, China made great progress in science and technology.
China's‘Dream’ Research Ship China's new ship, Mengxiang, or‘Dream’, went into service in Guangdong on November 17. It was the largest scientific research ship that China had ever made on its own by 2024. Mengxiang has special tools and can dig up to 11 kilometers under the ocean floor(海床).
On September 10, Air China's first C919 aircraft(飞机) successfully completed its first flight. The flight took off from Beijing Capital International Airport and landed at Shanghai Hongqiao Airport. C919 aircraft can carry more passengers and cover a longer airline.
One Rocket, Eight Satellites (卫星) On the morning of September 24, the TaiyuanSatellite Launch Center used the Jielong–3 rocket to successfully send eight satellites into space. The successful sea launch shows China's strong abilities in space technology.
Satellite Recovery(回收) On October 11, China successfully recovered its first reusable experimental Satellite, Shi Jian - 19. It was launched on September 27 from the Jiuquan SatelliteLaunch Center. It marks an important technological development of China.
41. What can Mengxiang do using its special tools
A. Recover reusable satellites. B. Carry more passengers and cover a longer airline.
C. Send satellites into space. D. Dig up to 11 kilometers under the ocean floor.
42. When did Air China's first C919 aircraft complete its first flight
A. On September 10. B. On September 24. C. On October 11. D. On November 17.
43. How many satellites were sent into space on September 24 according to the text
A. Five. B. Six. C. Seven. D. Eight.
44. Where was Shi Jian-19 launched on September 27
A. From Shanghai Hongqiao Airport. B. From the Jiuquan Satellite Launch Center.
C. From Beijing Capital International Airport.D. From the Taiyuan Satellite Launch Center.
45. Where is the text probably from
A. A story book. B. A novel. C. A newspaper. D. A diary.
c
阅读下面材料,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
It is believed that reading is not only good for our self-development but also quite easy to do.There are so many benefits(好处) to read books.
Reading is a good way to deal with stress. In one study, reading was found to be effective(有效的) in reducing stress. When you are reading books, you can keep the noisy world out and needn't worry about the problems that bother you. This means that reading can help you feel relaxed.
Reading protects brain health. If you read at least once a week, you probably have a better ability in understanding at an old age than those who do not. Because when you are reading, you actually keep thinking even imagining. And that is a good exercise for your mind.
Reading is an excellent bedtime activity. On one hand, reading before bed can help you fall asleep in a shorter time. On the other hand, it is better for your eyes to hold a book while going to bed instead of your mobile phone.
All in all, there is no doubt that reading is good for you. Why not pick up a book to read right now
46. What does the underlined word“bother” in Paragraph 2 mean
A. Trouble. B. Help. C. Encourage. D. Support.
47. You could have a better ability in understanding when you' re old if you read at least .
A. twice a year B. once a year C. twice a week D. once a week
48. Which is the right structure of the text
(①= Paragraph 1,②= Paragraph 2,……)
49. What is the text mainly about
A. A good way to deal with stress. B. The advantages of self-development.
C. The benefits of reading books. D. An excellent bedtime activity.
D
阅读下面材料,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
When I was a little girl, our families would always gather for big meals. Besides the delicious food, I also loved listening to the adults talking about their stories. Some stories are so unforgettable that I still remember them today.
My aunt, Kathy, heard a disabled friend had won a marathon(马拉松) race. She felt motivated(被激励的) and decided to run. The next day, she ran 5 miles. Although it was not easy for a54-year-old woman, she kept on running.
Edward, my cousin, was a main role in a play for the first time. He experienced a 2-month hard time preparing for it. Hearing people's applause(掌声), he felt good. What's more, he realized he could have more fun by trying something new.
My father was deeply moved by a 3-year-old girl on a plane. He saw that the little girl offered all she had, a piece of chocolate, to save a man's life. He said the girl's kindness always made him smile.
Wherever life will lead me, these stories always give me inspiration. I have learned that we should love life itself, love ourselves and love the people around us. It is the stories that make my life beautiful and meaningful.
50. What did the author's families always do when she was a little girl
A. They cooked delicious food. B. They gathered for big meals.
C. They listened to her stories. D. They still remembered those stories.
51. Why did the author's aunt start to run
A. Because she ran 5 miles at the age of 54.B. Because she thought it was easy for her.
C. Because she was motivated by a friend. D. Because the author had won a marathon race.
52. Which of the following statements is TRUE
A. Edward saved a man's life on a plane.
B. The author's father was moved by Edward.
C. The author's father saved a 3-year-old girl's life.
D. Edward felt good when he heard the applause.
53. What is the best title for the text
A. Kindness from Small Acts. B. Believe in Yourself and Try Something New.
C. No Cooking, No Gathering. D. Inspiration from Stories Shared in Family Gatherings.
E
第二节 阅读并按照要求完成选择。(一篇阅读,共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从方框内所给的A、B、C、D、E五个选项中,选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,使文章内容完整且符合逻辑。
Flowers are beautiful living things and can be found all over the world—— in gardens , parks and even your home. 54 They can only be felt in the deepest part of your heart. These flowers are planted by two kinds of people.
When you meet the first kind of people, they plant“bad” seeds in your heart. 55 You think they only come into your life to bring you problems. However, when you overcome the problems with your courage, you get strength(力量) and experience. As you fight to win, beautiful flowers blossom(开花). That can make you a strong man.
56 They are people who bring you happiness. They may teach you something meaningful you have never done. They may give you an unbelievable deal of joy. As you slowly build a close relationship with them, the seeds will grow into beautiful flowers of love. 57
So, who plants the seeds in your heart Who do you choose to meet 58 And you must face that.
A. When you meet the second kind of people, they plant good seeds in your heart. B. These people may be not friendly enough. C. You have no choice but life does. D. However, there are some other kinds of flowers that cannot be seen or touched. E. And you will grow into a full man.
Ⅳ.补全对话(本题共6小题,每小题2分,满分12分)
从下面方框中选择合适的句子,填到横线上,使对话意思完整。
(Paul and Bob are classmates. They are meeting on the street.)
A: Hi, Bob.
B: Hello, Paul.
A: Where are you going
B: 59 Would you like to go with me
A: Sure, I'd love to. 60
B: I want to buy something for the graduation ceremony.
A: I can't believe we are leaving school soon. 61
B: Yes, I do. I really had a great time in the school swimming team.
A: Yeah, you won the first prize last year and we are all proud of you.
B: Thank you. 62 What's your most unforgettable experience
A: 63 Our teacher and classmates helped me a lot and I will never forget it.
B: They are always so nice and we are a big family forever.
A: You are right. I' ll miss those days and people.
B: 64
A. What are you going to buy B. Do you have any special memories C. I am going to the supermarket. D. Me too. E. I hurt my knee a year ago. F. How about you
V.读写题(本题共分两节,满分15分)
第一节 阅读短文,根据语篇内容,在方框内的缩写文章中,填入与短文意思最符合的单词,每空一词。(共6小题,每小题1分,满分6分)
It was a Saturday morning, my father and I walked in a park. When I saw some people shooting arrows(箭) on the square, I decided to have a try.
A girl of my age was having her second try. She picked up an arrow and shot it. But it missed the target(靶子)! She tried a third time, and failed again. She just gave up and walked away.
Then it was my turn to shoot. I fixed my eyes on the target. With all of my efforts, I shot the arrow. It missed! I shot three more arrows. I failed them all. I was upset and wanted to leave.
My father encouraged me to take one more shot. I held my breath, stared at the target and shot the arrow. Again, I missed the target! But I got closer to it. I kept trying and finally I made it!“See, son. Nobody is born to do well in everything. Never give up, and you can do it,” said my father.
From this experience, I realize that challenges in life are not as difficult as they seem to be. If we focus on them, learn from failure(失败), and keep trying, we can succeed in the end.
One Saturday morning, my father and I took a 65 in a park. I saw some people shooting arrows and I wanted to 66 . A girl failed three times. Then it was 67 turn. I made every effort to shoot, but failed, too. I shot another three arrows. I failed them all. The time I was to give up, my father 68 me to go on. As my father said, nobody is born to be 69 at doing everything. Holding on leads to success. After trying some more times,I did make it! From this experience, I learn that if we face 70 bravely, learn from failure, and keep trying, we are sure to succeed.
第二节 阅读短文,根据语篇内容,回答3个问题。(共3小题,每小题3分,满分9分)
71. Did the writer go to the park with his father on a Saturday morning
72. How many times did the girl shoot arrows
73. What can you learn from the text
Ⅵ.阅读填空(本题共分两节,共22小题,每小题1分,满分22分)
第一节 语法填空(共11小题,每小题1分,满分11分)
阅读短文,在空白处填入适当的词或用括号中所给词的正确形式填空。每空不超过两词。
During the Warring States Period(战国时期), many states made changes to become stronger.One of the most 74 (success) changes was created by Shang Yang in Qin.
Shang Yang worked out a set of 75 (plan). At first, these plans were not easily 76 (accept) because people didn't believe in him.
To solve this problem, Shang Yang came 77 with an idea. He ordered his men to put a thin wooden pole(杆) at the south gate. Then he said anyone who took the pole to the north gate would 78 (receive)10 gold pieces. The task was so easy 79 nobody believed it was true.They all thought Shang Yang was joking. After seeing that, Shang Yang said he would offer 50 gold pieces to anyone who did it.
And 80 (final), a man wanted to have a try. He put the pole on his shoulder and walked to the north gate. 81 his surprise, Shang Yang paid him 50 gold pieces.
The news spread across the capital. Soon, people were saying Shang Yang was a man of 82 (he) word. Then people 83 (follow) him without question. With his efforts, Qin 84 (become) the strongest of all the states.
第二节 短文填空(共11小题,每小题1分,满分11分)
阅读短文,从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空,使短文通顺,意思完整,每空限填一词,每词限用一次。
part or answer dry slow get stop deep rose a in
Can roses really grow in the desert The 85 is yes. Yutian in Xinjiang has perfect conditions to grow some special 86 . It has 87 long history of rose growing. In the past,roses were mainly made into rose jam(酱). But 88 recent years, they have played an important 89 in keeping the desert from growing.
Roses’ roots(根) go down over three meters 90 and make the sand stay close around the plants. In just two 91 three years, a single rose can grow into a group. These rose groups can 92 down the wind's speed.
Growing roses in the desert has greatly changed the local people's life. “Last year, my family 93 63,000 yuan just from growing roses,” a farmer said. “It brings in income(收入) and helps to 94 the desert from growing. That's something to be proud of,” he added.
Today, Yutian's rose industry has developed a lot. Over 30 rose products are now sold acrossChina. The roses from this 95 land are now reaching far and wide markets.
Ⅶ.书面表达(满分20分)
某英文报刊以“Colorful Summer Vacation”为主题向广大初中生征稿。假设你是李明,请你以“Three Things to Do for Summer Vacation”为题目,参考以下提示,也可适当发挥,根据要求用英语写一篇短文投稿。
提示:1.自我提升; 2.体重管理; 3.研学旅行; 4.娱乐交友;……
要求:1.语句通顺,意思连贯,语法正确,书写规范;
2.文中不得出现真实姓名、校名等信息;
3.词数80-120。
新疆维吾尔自治区、新疆生产建设兵团2025年初中学业水平考试
英语参考答案及评分标准
I、听力部分(满分20分)
A.图片理解(本题共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
1-5 EDABC
B.情景反应(本题共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
6-10 ACBAB
C.对话理解(本题共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
11-15 CBCAB
D.短文理解(本题共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
16-20 CBABC
Ⅱ.完形填空(本题共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
21-25 BABCC 26-30 CABAC 31-35 ABCAA
Ⅲ.阅读理解(本题共分两节,共23小题,每小题2分,满分46分)
36-40 FTTFT 41-45 DADBC 46~49 ADBC
50-53 BCDD 54-58 DBAEC
Ⅳ.补全对话(本题共6小题,每小题2分,满分12分)
59-64 CABFED
V.读写题(本题共分两节,满分15分)
第一节(共6小题,每小题1分,满分6分)
65. walk 66. try 67. my 68. encouraged 69. good
70. challenges / difficulties / problems / troubles / failure / failures
第二节(共3 小题,每小题3分,满分9分)
71. Yes. / Yes, he did.
72.3. / Throo. / 3 times. / Three times. / She shot three times. / She shot 3 times. / 3arrows. / Three arrows. / She shot three arrows. / She shot 3 arrows.
73. I learn / realize/ know/ think / believe / I want to say that challenges in life are not as difficult as they see m to be. / If we face/ focus on challenges bravely, learn from the failure, and keep trying , we are sure to succeed / make it. / Nobody is born to do well in / be good at everything. / Holding on leads to success. / Never give up. / Failure is the mother of success. /Don't lose heart when facing challenges. / Praction makes perfect. / Believe in yourself. / ...
Ⅵ.阅读填空(本题共分两节,共22小题,每小题1分,满分22分)
第一节 语法填空(共11小题,每小题1分,满分11分)
74. successful 75. plans 76. accepted / acceptable 77. up 78. receive
79. that/ but/ and 80. finally 81. To 82. his 83. followed 84. became
第二节 短文填空(共11小题,每小题1分,满分11分)
85. answer 86. roses 87. n 88. in 89. part 90. deep
91. or 92. slow 93. got 94. stop 95. dry
Ⅶ.书面表达(满分20分)
Three Things to Do for Summer Vacation
With the temperature rising, a color ful vacation is around the corner. Three things come into my mind when I am making a list.
On the top of the list is a self-improvement plan, which includes reading books, watching movies and writing diaries. Besidos, I also plan to build my body to keep a good shape and stay lively. I' ll invite some classmates to go to the gym together and keep a daily record. The last thing is to relax with friends. It's a nice chance to meet some friends who I haven't seen for a long time because of my busy study.
In a word, I can't wait to enjoy the coming vacation.
评分标准
第一档(17-20分)主题突出,叙述清楚,内容完整。使用多种语法结构和丰富的词汇,语句通顺,语意连贯,符合逻辑。基本无语言错误。
第二档(13-16分)主题突出,叙述清楚,内容完整。语法结构和词汇基本满足文章需要,语句通顺,语意基本连贯,有少量语言错误。
第三档(9-12分)主题比较突出,但内容松散,写出了部分要点,语句比较通顺,有少量语病,但不影响意思的表达。
第四档(5-8分)部分内容基本符合题目要求,叙述不清楚,内容不完整。语法结构和词汇错误较多。语句不通顺,影响整体理解。
第五档(0-4分)没有主题,不能表达自己的思想。拼凑单词,句子不连贯,所写内容难以理解。
写作要求:1.词数少于80词,赋分减去1分。
2.书写较差,影响对表述内容的理解,赋分减去1分。

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