贵州省贵阳市南湖实验中学2024-2025学年高一下学期6月检测英语试题(含解析,含听力原文及音频)

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贵州省贵阳市南湖实验中学2024-2025学年高一下学期6月检测英语试题(含解析,含听力原文及音频)

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《2025年6月月考高一英语》参考答案
题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
答案 B A C B A A C A C B
题号 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
答案 A A C C A B A C B C
题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
答案 A B C B C B A C A D
题号 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
答案 B C D A B E F B A D
题号 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
答案 B C A D C A D B D B
题号 51 52 53 54 55
答案 D B A A C
【参考答案】
语法填空:56.traditional 57.a 58.to 59.which 60.eventually 61.means 62.using 63.items 64.his 65.has attracted
应用文:
Dear Peter,
I am glad to hear from you. Just as you’ve learned,artificial intelligence is now widely used in China.Here I’d like to share with you what I experienced during the week-long National Day holiday.
When traveling,we were amazed at the changes and convenience brought by artificial intelligence.First of all,wherever and whenever we went,we could use the mobile payment.More amazingly,unlike previous years when we had to get into tourist attractions with the ID card,we could do it simply through a face recognition app last time,which really saved time so that we didn’t have to wait in a queue.What an amazing experience!
I do hope you can come to China and experience all of this when you have spare time.Looking forward to your coming.
Yours truly,
Li Hua
读后续写范文
Para 1:Rose wouldn’t watch the tragedy happen before her eyes. She rushed up the embankment staircase, repeating at the top of her voice “Stay off the tracks!” Mary, at the sight of Rose’s coming to her rescue, burst into tears of joy. Though reducing speed as hard as it could, the train was still approaching fast. Seeing there was little time to drag her sister out of danger, Rose jumped over without a second thought and covered Mary’s body under hers.
Para 2:The train rolled over and finally stopped. Frightened and worried, the engine driver quickened his pace to see what happened to the little girl. To his great relief, the sisters lied between the rails safe and sound. What a narrow escape! He helped them sit up and comforted them. The two sisters hugged and kissed each other, tears of joy flowing down their cheeks. Never were the two souls so happily united at that moment. They then collected all the remaining mushrooms and, hand in hand more tightly than before, walked back home.
【解析】本文以人物为线索展开,讲述了两姐妹出去采蘑菇,带着沉重的蘑菇篮子回家,在穿过铁轨的时候小妹妹Mary在铁轨上摔倒了,姐姐Rose在危急时刻冲过去护住妹妹,最后火车停了下来,两人死里逃生。
【详解】1.段落续写:①由第一段首句内容“Rose不愿看到悲剧发生在她眼前。”可知,第一段可描写Rose是如何帮助妹妹的。②由第二段首句内容“火车翻倒了,终于停了下来。”可知,第二段可描写火车停下,两姐妹获救。2.续写线索:Rose冲上铁轨——Rose护住妹妹——火车停下——获救3.词汇激活行为类①靠近:approach/get close②捡起:collect/pick up③回家:walk back home/get back home情绪类①快乐:joy/happiness②害怕:frightened/scared【点睛】[高分句型1] She rushed up the embankment staircase, repeating at the top of her voice “Stay off the tracks!”(运用了现在分词作状语)[高分句型2] Never were the two souls so happily united at that moment. (运用了全部倒装)
答案解析
听力部分录音稿
(Text 1)
W : Martin , go to the airport now.
M : For what
W : Meet Sandra Parker , a girl with long hair. She is arriving from London on Flight 576.
M : OK.
(Text 2)
M : Can we have supper now My stomach can ’t stop making noise.
W : In a minute. Help set the table , please.
(Text 3)
W : Did you have a good time in the countryside
M : Well , I was happy to do the farm work , but I had to go a long way to buy the things I needed.
(Text 4)
M : Where is your bike
W : It was broken yesterday. So I had to walk to the theater. Why didn ’t you drive your car today
M : Well , my friend borrowed it from me. So I got here just like you.
(Text 5)
M : Can I pay the bill later
W : I ’m sorry , you can ’t. You ’re a new patient , so the fee for the first examination is due now.
(Text 6)
W : Welcome to Inspire Gym! Are you a member here already
M : I ’ve already joined. But I ’m new here and would like to know more about the classes. Are there any on Wednesday
W : Yes. We have three on Wednesday afternoon. The cycling class is at 3 : 00 pm. There is a dance class at
4:00 and another one at 6:00. Are you interested in any of those activities
M : Not really. I ’m just starting to work out , so I ’d like something very easy , like a swimming class for beginners.
(Text 7)
M : Hi , Kate. You look great. New skirt
W : Thanks , Robert , though I ’ve had this skirt for a year.
M : It looks new.
W : Yes. I haven ’t worn it very much.
M : I ’ve not seen you wearing that pair of shoes before , either.
W : Yes , these are new. I bought them and a pair of trousers yesterday. How do you like them
M : They ’re very nice. I ’d hoped to buy a pair , but I have a report to write today.
W : I remember Mr. Reagan has promised to give you a day off after you finish the report , right
(Text 8)
W : Hi , Justin. This is Annie calling. I need your help.
M : Hi , Annie , go ahead.
W : My sister is moving to London this week. She wants to give all her books to me. There are just too many. Could you help carry the books to my apartment
M : OK. But I ’ll be busy with my work until 2:00 pm. Could you wait for an hour
W : Sure. My sister is still packing. She won ’t leave until the day after tomorrow.
M : OK. I ’ll wait for you downstairs at 2 : 10 pm.
W : OK. By the way , do you have any boxes in your home My sister needs three more boxes to pack.
M : Sure. There ’re five boxes in my home.
W : That ’d be great. Thank you so much , Justin.
(Text9)
M : How was your weekend , Ann
W : Wonderful. We had a family dinner.
M : Your whole family
W : Yes , all ten of us. We went to our favorite French restaurant , Golden Crab.
M : I didn ’t know that was your favorite. It’s mine , too.
W : The food was good as usual , but my brother Paul’s car broke down. He and Jennifer got there after nine.
We were all feeling very hungry by then. M : What was the trouble
W : I don ’t know. Paul bought it only two months ago , just one month before he got married.
M : Maybe new cars are not as good as old ones. By the way , Ann , can you do me a favor to lend me your computer My computer doesn ’t work.
W : Sorry , Daniel , but I have lent it to Nancy. Why don ’t you ask Emily I ’m sure she ’ll lend you hers.
(Text10)
W : Welcome to Star Language School. I hope you will enjoy your time here. First , let me tell you about the school building. On the first floor , there is a library with lots of books and DVDs. You can borrow some books and DVDs to take home with you , and you can keep them for two weeks. You don ’t have to pay to borrow books , but you have to pay $ 2 to borrow a DVD. However , you can ’t take grammar books out , and you must use them in the library. On the second floor , there is a small computer room. It’s often busy , so you should book in advance. The booking form is on the door. There is also a small caféon the second floor. You can buy hot and cold drinks , sandwiches and chocolate there. Our school also has an activity program. We organize trips every Saturday. This week , there will be a trip to Warwick where you can see a great old castle. If you want to join the trip this weekend , please speak to Susan in the office.
参考答案
1 ~ 5 BACBA 6 ~ 10 ACACB 11 ~ 15 AACCA 16 ~ 20 BACBC 21.A 22.B 23.C
【导语】这是一篇应用文。文章对五个网站上的歌剧及管弦乐等乐曲作品的演出时间,内容及购票等细节做了介绍。
21.细节理解题。根据第一个标题Opera at Music Hall中“It’s on 1243 Elm Street. The season runs June through August, with additional performances in March and September. The opera honors enjoy the membership discounts.Phone: 241-2742.(在榆树街1243号。这个演出季从6月持续到8月,3月和9月还有额外的演出。歌剧荣誉会员享受会员折扣。 电话:241 - 2742。)”可知,如果你想看歌剧,应该拨打电话241-2742。故选A。
22.细节理解题。根据第二个标题Chamber Orchestra中“The orchestra plays at Memorial Hall at 1406 Elm Street, which offers several concerts from March through June.(管弦乐团在榆树街1406号的纪念堂演出,从3月到6月,这里会举办几场音乐会。)”可知,四个选项中只有五月在此时间范围内。因此,你可以在五月去看一场Chamber Orchestra室内管弦乐团的音乐会。故选B。
23.细节理解题。根据第四个标题College Conservatory of Music (CCM)中“Performances are usually held at Patricia Cobbett Theater. CCM organizes a variety of events. Students with their student ID cards can attend the events for free.(演出通常在Patricia Cobbett Theater举行。CCM组织各种各样的活动。学生凭学生证可以免费参加活动。)”可知,学生可以凭学生证去Patricia Cobbett Theater免费看演出。故选C。
24.B 25.C 26.B 27.A
【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了足球作为一项全球性运动有其历史渊源以及从足球的形成到现代足球的发展历程。
24.推理判断题。文章第一段讲到“Have you ever wondered when the sport started and became popular (你有没有想过这项运动是什么时候开始并流行起来的?)”可知,作者撰写第一段的目的是介绍文章的主题。故选B。
25.细节理解题。文章第二段讲到“However, modern football originally appeared in Britain in the 19th century. (然而,现代足球最初出现在19世纪的英国)”可知,现代足球从英国开始,故选C。
26.推理判断题。文章第三段讲到“The rules were carried out by each school, and this made it difficult for players to play an official game with each other. (规则由各校执行,这使得玩家之间很难进行正式比赛)”可知,在1849年之前很难进行正式比赛是因为没有共同的规则。故选B。
27.推理判断题。文章主要介绍了足球作为一项全球性运动有其历史渊源以及从足球的形成到现代足球的发展历程。从文章中出现的年代顺序2,000 以前—1849—1904—1992可知,文章主要是按时间顺序展开的。故选A。
28.C 29.A 30.D 31.B
【导语】本文是说明文。介绍了智能手表的优点以及一些家长对智能手表的担忧。
28.细节理解题。根据第一段“More and more people prefer to choose a smart watch in their dally life. And there are also many different brands (品牌) to choose, such as Apple, Huawei, Samsung and Xiaomi.(越来越多的人喜欢在日常生活中选择智能手表,也有很多不同的品牌可供选择,比如苹果、华为、三星和小米)”可知,文中只提到了华为和小米两个中国品牌的智能手表。故选C项。
29.细节理解题。根据第二段“First of all, it can tell the time like a usual watch.(首先,它可以像普通手表一样显示时间)”可知,智能手表和传统手表两者都能看时间。故选A项。
30.细节理解题。根据最后一段“Each coin (硬币) has two sides. Use it or not It’s up to you.(任何事物都有两面性。用不用?这取决于你)”可知,作者对使用智能手表的看法是:是否使用智能手表取决于你自己。故选D项。
31.词句猜测题。根据前文“In their opinion, wearing smart watches for a long time may cause health problems.(在他们看来,长时间佩戴智能手表可能会导致健康问题)”以及后文“It’s harmful to teenagers(它对青少年有害)”可推知,radiation应是能伤害青少年健康的事物,根据选项“辐射”符合。故选B项。
32.C 33.D 34.A 35.B
【分析】这是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍人类从认识火到用火以及会取火的过程。
32.细节理解题。根据文章第一句“Thousands of years ago, people didn't live in cold places because they didn't know how to keep themselves warm.( 几千年前,人们不生活在寒冷的地方,因为他们不知道如何保持温暖。)”可知,人们曾经只生活在炎热的地方,因为他们不知道如何保暖。故选C。
33.细节理解题。根据第一段“When an animal was killed, they made use of its skins to cover their bodies. The skins kept them warm.( 当动物被杀死时,他们用它的皮来覆盖他们的身体。这些皮使他们保暖。)”可知,那时候人们用兽皮取暖。故选D。
34.细节理解题。根据第一段“ Soon people found the food cooked tasted much better, so they began to use the fire to cook food. (很快,人们发现煮熟的食物味道更好,所以他们开始用火做饭。)”可知,后来人们学会了如何用火做饭。故选A。
35.细节理解题。根据第一段“ For example, they made fire by burning wood or knocking two pieces of stones.( 例如,他们通过燃烧木头或敲打两块石头来生火。)”可知,人们通过燃烧木头或敲打两块石头来生火。故选B。
36.E 37.F 38.B 39.A 40.D
【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章主要说明了家中不同顺序出生的孩子所具有的一些特点。
36.根据上文“Within your family, are you the “boss”, the “peacemaker”, the “baby” or the “king” (在你的家庭里,你是“老板”、“和事佬”、“宝宝”还是“国王”?)”可知,上文主要说明了人们家里的不同角色,结合后文对出生顺序对性格的影响进行了说明,故E选项“许多研究人员认为你在家庭中的地位会影响你的性格”符合语境,故选E。
37.根据上文“First-time parents often have very high expectations for their eldest children.(初为父母的人通常对他们的长子抱有很高的期望)”以及后文“Firstborns tend to be natural leaders who respect and trust authority. Many astronauts and engineers are firstborn children.(长子长女往往是天生的领导者,他们尊重和信任权威。许多宇航员和工程师都是第一个孩子)”可知,本句与上文构成因果关系,指出长子所具有的一些特点,故F选项“因此,这些孩子往往是负责任的、有条理的、专横的、成功的成功者”符合语境,故选F。
38.根据上文“Typically, parents don’t give middle children as much attention as the firstborn or the youngest.(通常情况下,父母不会像第一个或最小的孩子那样给予中间的孩子太多的关注)”可知,中间出生的孩子不会得到太多父母的关注,所以本句说明结果:让他们觉得自己被忽视了。B选项中them指的是上文middle children,故B选项“这通常会让他们觉得自己被忽视了”符合语境,故选B。
39.根据上文“By the time the youngest family member is born, most parents have loosened their rules.(当最小的家庭成员出生时,大多数父母已经放松了他们的规则)”可知,上文提到父母放松了对最小一个孩子的规则,即他们拥有更多的自由,故A选项“因此,他们往往有更多的自由”符合语境,故选A。
40.根据上文“Life in the family of an only child often revolves around him or her.(独生子女家庭的生活常常以他或她为中心)”以及后文“An only child enjoys learning from adults and is usually very clever for his or her age. Only children are creative and intelligent and can easily communicate with adults. They are typically confident, independent and very successful. What about you Does the birth order description match your personality (独生子女喜欢向大人学习,通常在他或她的年龄来说非常聪明。独生子女很有创造力,很聪明,很容易和大人交流。他们通常自信、独立、非常成功。你呢?出生顺序描述符合你的性格吗?)”可知,上文提到独生子女是家庭的中心,本句承接上文说明结果:这些孩子不需要分享他们的玩具或父母的时间。故D选项“这些孩子不需要分享他们的玩具或父母的时间”符合语境,故选D。
41.B 42.C 43.A 44.D 45.C 46.A 47.D 48.B 49.D 50.B 51.D 52.B 53.A 54.A 55.C
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了作者在高中时期最喜欢的老师——Ide夫人,她既是作者的音乐老师,也是合唱团的领导,对作者的音乐之路产生了深远影响。
41.考查名词词义辨析。句意:她是我的音乐老师和合唱团的团长,我在法国上高中的时候是合唱团的一员。A. history历史;B. music音乐;C. science科学;D. language语言。根据后文“the leader of our choir”和“Mrs Ide was a great teacher and musical genius”可知,Ide夫人是合唱团的团长,是一位音乐天才,因此她是作者的音乐老师。故选B项。
42.考查动词词义辨析。句意:是Mrs Ide邀请我加入学校合唱团的。A. direct指导;B. visit参观;C. join加入;D. help帮助。根据前文“in which I was a member during high school in France”可知,作者在高中时是合唱团的一员,因此是Ide夫人让作者加入了合唱团。故选C项。
43.考查形容词词义辨析。句意:首先,Mrs Ide的音乐课总是有有趣的话题。A. interesting有趣的;B. serious严肃的;C. useful有用的;D. difficult困难的。根据后文“She had 4 to make us fun every time”可知,Ide夫人总是能让我们感到有趣,因此她的音乐课话题是有趣的。故选A项。
44.考查名词词义辨析。句意:她每次都有办法让我们开心。A. excuses借口;B. examples例子;C. senses感觉;D. ideas主意,办法。根据后文“make us fun every time”和“We studied musicals (like Cats, My Fair Lady) and every one of us had a part to act and sing.”可知,Ide夫人每次都能让我们开心,说明她在课堂上有办法做到这一点。故选D项。
45.考查动词词义辨析。句意:在课堂上我们分组活动。A. danced跳舞;B. asked问;C. worked工作;D. waited等待。根据后文“in groups in class”和“We studied musicals (like Cats, My Fair Lady) and every one of us had a part to act and sing.”可知,我们学习音乐剧,每个人都有角色要演和唱,因此大家是分组工作,分组展开学习活动。故选C项。
46.考查动词词义辨析。句意:当我们完成自己的学习部分后,我们会有一个“创意之夜”,届时我们的家人、朋友和老师都会来看我们的表演。A. finished完成;B. tried尝试;C. kept保持;D. practised练习。根据后文“we had a “creative evening”, where all our families, friends and teachers came and watched...”可知,应该是完成学习自己扮演的那部分角色后,才能给别人表演。故选A项。
47.考查名词词义辨析。句意:当我们完成自己的学习部分后,我们会有一个“创意之夜”,届时我们的家人、朋友和老师都会来看我们的表演。A. study学习;B. films电影;C. photos照片;D. play表演。根据前文“every one of us had a part to act and sing”和“all our families, friends and teachers came and watched”可知,在“创意之夜”,家人、朋友和老师都会来看我们的表演。故选D项。
48.考查动词短语辨析。句意:其次,Mrs Ide相信我们的音乐才能。A. thought of想起;B. believed in相信;C. made use of利用;D. made up for弥补。根据后文“She taught us to be self-confident”和“She told us every week that we all have great talent”可知,Ide夫人教会我们自信,每周都告诉我们,我们都有伟大的天赋,说明她相信我们的音乐才能。故选B项。
49.考查名词词义辨析。句意:她教我们对自己的声音要有自信,以及如何运用不同的技巧来提高我们的歌唱水平。A. hearing听力;B. future未来;C. plans计划;D. voices声音。根据前文“our musical talent”和后文“our singing”可知,Ide夫人要我们对自己的声音充满自信。故选D项。
50.考查动词词义辨析。句意:她教我们对自己的声音要有自信,以及如何运用不同的技巧来提高我们的歌唱水平。A. change改变;B. improve提高;C. find发现;D. check检查。根据前文“how to use different skills”和“our singing”可知,Ide夫人教我们运用不同的技巧来提高我们的歌唱水平。故选B项。
51.考查名词词义辨析。句意:她每周都告诉我们,我们都有伟大的天赋,她对我们的音乐能力如此有信心,这让我们感觉非常好。A. taste味道;B. culture文化;C. traditions传统;D. abilities能力。根据上文“She told us every week that we all have great talent”可知,她非常信任我们,认为我们在音乐方面都很有能力。故选D项。
52.考查副词词义辨析。句意:最后,我可以说Ide夫人是最好的老师,她真的很关心我们。A. hardly几乎不;B. truly真正地;C. finally最后;D. already已经。根据前文“I can say that Mrs Ide was the best teacher”可知,Ide夫人是最好的老师,因此她也应该是真的很关心我们。故选B项。
53.考查名词词义辨析。句意:她帮助班上的每个人提高自己的歌唱水平,变得更加自信。A. singing唱歌;B. reading阅读;C. writing写作;D. painting画画。根据前文可知,Ide夫人是音乐老师,因此她帮助每个人提高的是歌唱水平。故选A项。
54.考查动词词义辨析。句意:而且,她教了我们一些技巧,这样我们就可以独自在家训练。A. train训练;B. stay待;C. eat吃;D. pay支付。根据前文“she taught us skills”和后文“at home alone”可知,Ide夫人教了我们一些技巧,这样我们就可以独自在家进行训练。故选A项。
55.考查动词词义辨析。句意:我真的希望有像她这样的老师,能成为学生们的灵感和他们的未来。A. realise意识到;B. promise承诺;C. hope希望;D. suggest建议。根据后文“that there are other teachers like her, who are an inspiration for students and their future”可知,作者希望有更多像Ide夫人这样的老师,能成为学生们的灵感和他们的未来。故选C项。
56.traditional 57.a 58.to 59.which 60.eventually 61.means 62.using 63.items 64.his 65.has attracted
【导语】这是一篇新闻报道。文章讲述了一位63岁的中国爷爷不用胶水、螺丝钉和钉子就能做出木工活,他的木工手艺在网上令数千万观众赞叹的故事。
56.考查形容词。句意:一位63岁的中国老爷爷不用胶水、螺丝钉或钉子就能做出木工作品,他的传统木工技艺在网上赢得了数千万观众的喜爱。修饰后文名词skills应用形容词traditional,作定语。故填traditional。
57.考查冠词。句意:在YouTube上被称为“阿木爷爷”的中国木匠大师王德文,因其丰富的木工知识,被称为现代的中国周代著名结构工程师鲁班。engineer为可数名词,此处为泛指应用不定冠词,且famous是发音以辅音音素开头的单词。故填a。
58.考查固定短语。句意:在YouTube上被称为“阿木爷爷”的中国木匠大师王德文,因其丰富的木工知识,被称为现代的中国周代著名结构工程师鲁班。此处为短语thanks to表示“由于”。故填to。
59.考查定语从句。句意:他最受欢迎的视频是他制作一座奇妙的木拱桥的视频,在该平台上流行起来,最终获得了超过4200万的观看量。此处为非限制性定语从句修饰先行词video,先行词在从句中作主语,指物,故用关系代词which引导。故填which。
60.考查副词。句意:他最受欢迎的视频是他制作一座奇妙的木拱桥的视频,在该平台上流行起来,最终获得了超过4200万的观看量。修饰动词gain应用副词eventually,作状语。故填eventually。
61.考查主谓一致。句意:阿木爷爷采用的是中国古代的榫卯技术,这意味着整个拱桥的建造过程中不需要使用钉子或胶水。此处为一般现在时,且非限制性定语从句修饰上文整个句子,从句谓语应用第三人称单数形式,故填means。
62.考查非谓语动词。句意:阿木爷爷也用同样的方法给孙子做了几个木制玩具。分析句子结构可知use在句中应用非谓语动词形式,与逻辑主语Grandpa Amu构成主动关系,故用现在分词作状语。故填using。
63.考查名词的数。句意:在所有的物品中,一只会走路的小猪佩奇和一个吹泡泡的玩具是他孙子的最爱。item为可数名词,由all修饰应用复数形式。故填items。
64.考查代词。句意:在所有的物品中,一只会走路的小猪佩奇和一个吹泡泡的玩具是他孙子的最爱。修饰后文名词favorites应用形容词性物主代词his。故填his。
65.考查时态。句意:到目前为止,这位木匠大师在YouTube上已经吸引了118万多名粉丝。根据上文so far可知为现在完成时,主语为the master carpenter,助动词用has。故填has attracted。
答案第1页,共2页2025年6月月考高一年级英语试卷
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共5小题;每小题 1 . 5分,满分 7. 5 分)
听下面5段对话 。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 听完每段对话后,你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题 。每段对话仅读一遍。
1 . What is Sandra Parker’s flight number
A. 756. B. 576. C. 567.
2. How does the man feel now
A. Hungry. B. Angry. C. Sleepy.
3. What does the man probably think of the farm work
A. Boring. B. Tiring. C. Interesting.
4. How did the woman go to the theater
A. By car. B. On foot. C. By bike.
5 . Where does the conversation take place
A. In a hospital. B. In a school. C. In a bank.
第二节 (共15小题;每小题 1 . 5分,满分 22. 5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白 。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项 中选出最佳选项 。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各 小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间 。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6段材料,回答第 6 、7 题。
6. At what time does the cycling class begin
A. 3 : 00 pm. B. 4 : 00 pm. C. 6 : 00 pm.
7. Which is the man interested in
A. The cycling class. B. The dance class. C. The swimming class.
听第 7段材料,回答第 8 至 10题。
8. What did the woman buy a year ago
A. The skirt. B. The shoes. C. The trousers.
9. What will the man do today
A. Attend a fashion show. B. Do some shopping. C. Write a report.
10. Who is Mr. Reagan most probably
A. The man’s friend. B. The man’s boss. C. The man’s father.
听第 8段材料,回答第 11 至 13 题。
11 . Why does the woman make the phone call
A. To ask for help. B. To check the time. C. To make an invitation.
12. What will the man do for the woman
A. Carry the books. B. See her sister off. C. Pack things for her sister.
13. How many boxes are there in the man’s home
A. Two. B. Three. C. Five.
听第 9段材料,回答第 14 至 16 题。
14. Where do the speakers love to go
A. The Internet café. B. The park. C. Golden Crab.
15 . What is the relationship between Paul and the woman
A. Brother and sister. B. Husband and wife. C. Co-workers.
16. What does the man want to borrow
A. A book. B. A computer. C. A car.
听第 10段材料,回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. Which floor is the library on
A. The first. B. The second. C. The third.
18. What is a must for borrowing a DVD
A. Booking it in advance. B. Using it in the library. C. Paying $ 2.
19. What can you do on the second floor
A. Borrow grammar books. B. Enjoy food. C. See an old castle.
20. What is the school’s activity on Saturday
A. Sharing s tories. B. Seeing a film. C. Having a trip.
第二部分阅读 (共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Opera at Music Hall
It’s on 1243 Elm Street. The season runs June through August, with additional performances in March and September. The opera honors enjoy the membership discounts.
Phone: 241-2742.
http://www..
Chamber Orchestra
The orchestra plays at Memorial Hall at 1406 Elm Street, which offers several concerts from March through June.
Call 723-1182 for more information.
http://www..
Symphony Orchestra
At Music Hall at Riverbend, the regular season runs September through May at Music Hall in summer.
For ticket sales, call 381-3300.
http://www.symphony.org/home.asp.
College Conservatory of Music (CCM)
Performances are usually held at Patricia Cobbett Theater. CCM organizes a variety of events. Students with their student ID cards can attend the events for free.
For more information, call 556-4183.
http://www.ccm.uc.edu/events/calendar.
Riverbend Music Theater
It’s on 6295 Kellogg Ave. It’s a large outdoor theater with the closest seats under cover and big name shows all summer long!
Phone: 232-6220.
http://www.riverbendmusic.com.
21.Which number should you call if you want to see an opera
A.241-2742. B.723-1182. C.381-3300. D.232-6220.
22.When can you go to a concert by the chamber orchestra
A.In February. B.In May. C.In August. D.In November.
23.Where can students go for free performances with their student ID cards
A.To Music Hall. B.To Memorial Hall.
C.To Patricia Cobbett Theater. D.To Riverbend Music Theater.
B
There’s no doubt that football is the global sport. Though basketball, tennis, and other sports are popular too, nothing comes close to football. Being played in every country in the world, football provides dozens of superstars. The numbers are greater when compared to any other sport, and this drives the popularity of football up. Have you ever wondered when the sport started and became popular
Football has its origin (起源) in China and has a history of more than 2,000 years. However, modern football originally appeared in Britain in the 19th century. Folk football matches had been played before in many cities and towns, but never on a professional level.
Football became a winter sport game played in different schools. The rules were carried out by each school, and this made it difficult for players to play an official game with each other. It all changed in 1849 at the University of Cambridge that invented a set of standard rules known as the Cambridge rules of football. From that moment, a new star sport was born.
By the early 20th century, football had spread all across Europe. In 1904, FIFA was set up. There are seven original members, including France, Denmark and Spain, FIFA became the governing body for many associations in Europe.
England’s international success improved the popularity of the sport in the country. The league (联赛) in Britain was set up in 1992. From the 1990s, it became a truly impressive piece of football organization, becoming the world’s top football league in the process.
Football is obviously the most popular sport in the world. It is impossible for any other sport to take its place, especially with leagues spending billions of pounds every year to stay in the focus.
24.What is the author’s purpose of writing paragraph 1
A.To describe the level of football.
B.To introduce the topic of the text.
C.To debate the main idea of the text.
D.To introduce famous football leagues.
25.Where did modern football first start
A.In China. B.In France.
C.In Britain. D.In Spain.
26.Why was it difficult to play an official game before 1849
A.The rules always changed.
B.There were no common rules.
C.The season made players hard to win.
D.Officials made players misunderstand the rules.
27.How is the text mainly developed
A.By time order. B.By space order.
C.By listing numbers. D.By giving examples.
C
Smart watch, a new product, is changing our lifestyle. More and more people prefer to choose a smart watch in their dally life. And there are also many different brands (品牌) to choose, such as Apple, Huawei, Samsung and Xiaomi. Here are the reasons why people choose a smart watch.
First of all, it can tell the time like a usual watch. But the most important difference is that a smart watch can also be connected to (连接) the mobile phone. You are able to use it to answer the phone, but a traditional watch can never do that. Besides, the smart watch looks fascinating. It’s very popular among teenagers because it’s cool enough. Thirdly, now many people have known the importance of health. They play sports every day to keep healthy. It’s helpful to know how far they have run or how many steps they have gotten with a watch. The watch shows the results every day and they’ll know whether they achieve their goal or not.
However, some parents still don’t want their children to use smart watches too much. In their opinion, wearing smart watches for a long time may cause health problems. They think the teenagers are under the radiation all the time. It’s harmful to teenagers.
Each coin (硬币) has two sides. Use it or not It’s up to you.
28.How many Chinese brands of the smart watch are mentioned in the passage
A.Four. B.Three. C.Two. D.One.
29.Which one is the same between a smart watch and a traditional one
A.Both can tell the time. B.Both look fascinating
C.Both can be connected to the mobile phone. D.Both can record steps and distance.
30.What is the writer’s opinion about using the smart watches
A.Using smart watches is very good.
B.Using smart watches may cause health problems.
C.Using smart watches is harmful to teenagers.
D.Whether using smart watches or not depends on yourself.
31.What does the underlined word “radiation” in the third paragraph mean
A.光能 B.辐射 C.热能 D.太阳能
D
Thousands of years ago, people didn't live in cold places because they didn't know how to keep themselves warm. Later they learned to make clothes. When an animal was killed, they made use of its skins to cover their bodies. The skins kept them warm. Nature is people's good friend. It once helped people find fire, when lightning hit a forest and started a fire. People took some of this fire to their homes. The fire kept them warm, and also frightened wild animals. Soon people found the food cooked tasted much better, so they began to use the fire to cook food. But people still didn't know how to make a fire. When they got a fire from the forest they tried to keep it burning. If it went out, they had to wait for years. But later they found different ways to make fire. For example, they made fire by burning wood or knocking two pieces of stones.
Today it's easy for people to make fire because they have matches, lighters and different kinds of heaters. They can make fire at any time they need.
32.Why did people live only in hot places once
A.Because they didn't know how to kill animals.
B.Because they didn't know how to take fire from forest.
C.Because they didn't know how to keep themselves warm.
D.Because they didn't know how to make matches.
33.What did people use animal skins to do in those days
A.For food. B.To make fire.
C.For burning. D.To warm themselves.
34.People later learned how to use fire to ________.
A.cook food B.kill animals
C.cut off an animal's skin D.burn wood
35.How did people learn to make fire later
A.By burning stones. B.By burning wood.
C.By burning dry leaves. D.By burning animal skins.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Within your family, are you the “boss”, the “peacemaker”, the “baby” or the “king” 36
Firstborn — The “Boss”
First-time parents often have very high expectations for their eldest children. 37 Firstborns tend to be natural leaders who respect and trust authority. Many astronauts and engineers are firstborn children.
Middle child — The “Peacemaker”
Typically, parents don’t give middle children as much attention as the firstborn or the youngest. 38 As a result, they are usually determined to achieve success in their own way. They don’t like conflict and will try to avoid it. They are often realistic, independent, patient peacemakers and good communicators.
Youngest child — The “Baby”
By the time the youngest family member is born, most parents have loosened their rules. 39 They often enjoy amusing others and being the center of attention. They are typically fun-loving, creative people who aren’t afraid to question authority or take risks.
Only child — The “King of the Castle”
Life in the family of an only child often revolves around him or her. 40 An only child enjoys learning from adults and is usually very clever for his or her age. Only children are creative and intelligent and can easily communicate with adults. They are typically confident, independent and very successful. What about you Does the birth order description match your personality
A.Thus, they tend to have more freedom.
B.That often causes them to feel they are ignored.
C.Early-born children experience a better social environment.
D.These kids don’t have to share their toys or their parents’ time.
E.Many researchers believe your position in the family influences your personality.
F.As a result, these kids are often responsible, organized, bossy, successful achievers.
G.The relationships between birth order, personality, and behavior confuse many researchers.
语言运用 (共两节,满分30分)
(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
One of my favourite high school teachers is Mrs Ide. She was my 41 teacher and the leader of our choir (合唱团), in which I was a member during high school in France. It was Mrs Ide who asked me to 42 the school choir. Mrs Ide was a great teacher and musical genius.
First of all, Mrs Ide always had 43 topics for her music class. She had 44 to make us fun every time. We 45 in groups in class. We studied musicals (like Cats, My Fair Lady) and every one of us had a part to act and sing. When we 46 studying our parts, we had a “creative evening”, where all our families, friends and teachers came and watched our 47 .
Secondly, Mrs Ide 48 our musical talent. She taught us to be self-confident with our 49 and how to use different skills to 50 our singing. She told us every week that we all have great talent, and it made us feel really good that she had such confidence in our musical 51 .
Finally, I can say that Mrs Ide was the best teacher and she 52 cared about us. She helped everyone in her class to improve his 53 and be more self-confident. Also, she taught us skills, so that we were able to 54 at home alone. She was the person who encouraged me to study singing. I really 55 that there are other teachers like her, who are an inspiration for students and their future.
41.A.history B.music C.science D.language
42.A.direct B.visit C.join D.help
43.A.interesting B.serious C.useful D.difficult
44.A.excuses B.examples C.senses D.ideas
45.A.danced B.asked C.worked D.waited
46.A.finished B.tried C.kept D.practised
47.A.study B.films C.photos D.play
48.A.thought of B.believed in C.made use of D.made up for
49.A.hearing B.future C.plans D.voices
50.A.change B.improve C.find D.check
51.A.taste B.culture C.traditions D.abilities
52.A.hardly B.truly C.finally D.already
53.A.singing B.reading C.writing D.painting
54.A.train B.stay C.eat D.pay
55.A.realise B.promise C.hope D.suggest
(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
A 63-year-old Chinese grandpa’s 56 (tradition) carpentry (木工) skills are delighting tens of millions of viewers online as he creates woodwork without glue, screws or nails.
The Chinese master carpenter, Wang Dewen, well known as “Granpa Amu” on YouTube, has been called as the modern Lu Ban, 57 famous Chinese structural engineer during the Zhou Dynasty, thanks 58 his vast carpentry knowledge. His most popular video, 59 shows him making a fantastic wooden arch bridge, became popular on the platform, 60 (eventual) gaining more than 42 million views.
Grandpa Amu follows an ancient Chinese mortise and tenon (榫卯) technique, which 61 (mean) no nails or glue are involved in the entire process of building the arch bridge.
Grandpa Amu has also made several wooden toys for his grandson 62 (use) the same technique. He created a folding stool(凳子), which looked like the China pavilion (中国馆) from the 2010 Shanghai Expo. “A block of wood transforms into a stool. Genius,” a YouTube user named Rey Rey commented under the video.
Among all the 63 (item), a walking Peppa Pig and a bubble blowing toy are 64 (he) grandson’s favorites.
So far, the master carpenter 65 (attract) over 1.18 million fans on YouTube. Grandpa Amu insists that he is not an internet superstar but just an ordinary farmer.
写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
根据以下内容要点写一篇100词左右的短文。
假定你是李华,你的英国朋友Peter听说现在在中国人工智能已经进入人们日常生活的各个方面,包括旅游业。他来信询问你在十一假期期间是否有这方面的体验,请你给他回信,内容包括:
1.门票无现金(手机)支付;2.景区可以脸部识别人;3.邀请他来体验。
注意:1.词数100左右;2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;3.开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
参考词汇:手机支付 the mobile payment;人工智能artificial intelligence;脸部识别face recognition
Dear Peter,
I am glad to hear from you. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours truly,
Li Hua
第二节:读后续写(满分25分)
阅读下面短文,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It was a fine summer morning, perfect to be outdoors. Two sisters had been out mushroom picking, and were on their way home with heavy baskets full of mushrooms. They sang songs on the way, and played with each other.
Soon they reached a point where they had to cross a railway track. They did not think twice about crossing it since there was no train coming, and they could not hear any whistle. They slowly climbed the steep railway embankment, taking care not to drop the baskets. They were very near the track and the little sister Mary was about to cross it first when a train whistled in the distance.
Hearing the train coming, Rose the elder sister quickly ran down. She thought that the young one was following her. But as she turned back, she was shocked to see her little sister still up there crossing the track. “Come back here! Run back fast!” she shouted.
Mary seemed not to hear the whistle nor her sister’s cry as she was concentrating on stepping over the track with her little feet, and holding on to the basket. Then she tripped and fell on the track, scattering her mushrooms around.
The engine driver panicked on seeing a girl between the tracks who was on her hands and knees and he blew the horn with all his strength. Poor Mary, who was frightened by the coming danger, froze and didn’t know what to do. When Rose saw the scene, she screamed at the top of her voice for Mary’s attention. Mary noticed that her sister was not around and cried for help.
With the train drawing near, the engine driver grew extremely anxious. As hard as he could, he kept blowing the whistle and started reducing speed. Yet it was not possible for him to stop the heavy train within such a short distance.
注意:1. 续写词数应为150左右;2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Rose wouldn’t watch the tragedy happen before her eyes.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
The train rolled over and finally stopped. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第1页,共2页2025 年 6 月月考高一年级英语试卷
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 30分)第一节 (共 5小题;每小题 1 . 5分,满分 7. 5
分)听下面 5段对话 。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出
最佳选项。 听完每段对话后,你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每
段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is Sandra Parker’s flight number
A. 756. B. 576. C. 567.
2. How does the man feel now
A. Hungry. B. Angry. C. Sleepy.
3. What does the man probably think of the farm work
A. Boring. B. Tiring. C. Interesting.
4. How did the woman go to the theater
A. By car. B. On foot. C. By bike.
5. Where does the conversation take place
A. In a hospital. B. In a school. C. In a bank. 第二节 (共 15小题;每小题 1 . 5分,满
分 22. 5 分)听下面 5 段对话或独白 。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的
A、B、C三个选项 中选出最佳选项 。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,
每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各 小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间 。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料,回答第 6 、7 题。
6. At what time does the cycling class begin
A. 3 :00 pm. B. 4 :00 pm. C. 6 :00 pm.
7. Which is the man interested in
C. The swimming class.
A. The cycling class. B. The dance class.
听第 7 段材料,回答第 8 至 10题。
8. What did the woman buy a year ago
A. The skirt. B. The shoes. C. The trousers.
9. What will the man do today
A. Attend a fashion show. B. Do some shopping. C. Write a report.
10. Who is Mr. Reagan most probably
C. The man’s father. A. The man’s friend. B. The man’s boss.
听第 8 段材料,回答第 11 至 13 题。
11. Why does the woman make the phone call
C. To make an invitation. A. To ask for help. B. To check the time.
12. What will the man do for the woman
C. Pack things for her sister.
A. Carry the books. B. See her sister off.
13. How many boxes are there in the man’s home
C. Five.
A. Two. B. Three. 听第 9 段材料,回答
第 14 至 16 题。
14. Where do the speakers love to go
C. Golden Crab.
A. The Internet café. B. The park.
15. What is the relationship between Paul and the woman
C. Co-workers. A. Brother and sister. B. Husband and wife.
16. What does the man want to borrow
A. A book. B. A computer. C. A car.
听第 10段材料,回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. Which floor is the library on
A. The first. B. The second. C. The third.
18. What is a must for borrowing a DVD
A. Booking it in advance. B. Using it in the library. C. Paying $ 2.
19. What can you do on the second floor
A. Borrow grammar books. B. Enjoy food. C. See an old castle.
20. What is the school’s activity on Saturday
A. Sharing stories. B. Seeing a film. C. Having a trip.
第二部分阅读 (共两节,满分 50分) 第一节(共 15小题;每小题 2.5分,满分 37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Opera at Music Hall
It’s on 1243 Elm Street. The season runs June through August, with additional performances
in March and September. The opera honors enjoy the membership discounts.
Phone: 241-2742.
http://www..
Chamber Orchestra
The orchestra plays at Memorial Hall at 1406 Elm Street, which offers several concerts from
March through June.
Call 723-1182 for more information. http://www..
Symphony Orchestra
At Music Hall at Riverbend, the regular season runs September through May at Music Hall in
summer.
For ticket sales, call 381-3300.
http://www.symphony.org/home.asp.
College Conservatory of Music (CCM)
Performances are usually held at Patricia Cobbett Theater. CCM organizes a variety of events.
Students with their student ID cards can attend the events for free.
For more information, call 556-4183.
http://www.ccm.uc.edu/events/calendar.
Riverbend Music Theater
It’s on 6295 Kellogg Ave. It’s a large outdoor theater with the closest seats under cover and
big name shows all summer long!
Phone: 232-6220.
http://www.riverbendmusic.com.
21.Which number should you call if you want to see an opera
A.241-2742. B.723-1182. C.381-3300. D.232-6220.
22.When can you go to a concert by the chamber orchestra
A.In February. B.In May. C.In August. D.In November.
23.Where can students go for free performances with their student ID cards
A.To Music Hall. B.To Memorial Hall.
C.To Patricia Cobbett Theater. D.To Riverbend Music Theater.
B
There’s no doubt that football is the global sport. Though basketball, tennis, and other sports
are popular too, nothing comes close to football. Being played in every country in the world, football
provides dozens of superstars. The numbers are greater when compared to any other sport, and this
drives the popularity of football up. Have you ever wondered when the sport started and became
popular
Football has its origin (起源) in China and has a history of more than 2,000 years. However,
modern football originally appeared in Britain in the 19th century. Folk football matches had been
played before in many cities and towns, but never on a professional level.
Football became a winter sport game played in different schools. The rules were carried out
by each school, and this made it difficult for players to play an official game with each other. It all
changed in 1849 at the University of Cambridge that invented a set of standard rules known as the
Cambridge rules of football. From that moment, a new star sport was born.
By the early 20th century, football had spread all across Europe. In 1904, FIFA was set up.
There are seven original members, including France, Denmark and Spain, FIFA became the
governing body for many associations in Europe.
England’s international success improved the popularity of the sport in the country. The
league (联赛) in Britain was set up in 1992. From the 1990s, it became a truly impressive piece of
football organization, becoming the world’s top football league in the process.
Football is obviously the most popular sport in the world. It is impossible for any other sport
to take its place, especially with leagues spending billions of pounds every year to stay in the focus.
24.What is the author’s purpose of writing paragraph 1
A.To describe the level of football.
B.To introduce the topic of the text.
C.To debate the main idea of the text.
D.To introduce famous football leagues.
25.Where did modern football first start
A.In China. B.In France.
C.In Britain. D.In Spain.
26.Why was it difficult to play an official game before 1849
A.The rules always changed.
B.There were no common rules.
C.The season made players hard to win.
D.Officials made players misunderstand the rules.
27.How is the text mainly developed
A.By time order. B.By space order.
C.By listing numbers. D.By giving examples.
C
Smart watch, a new product, is changing our lifestyle. More and more people prefer to choose
a smart watch in their dally life. And there are also many different brands (品牌) to choose, such as
Apple, Huawei, Samsung and Xiaomi. Here are the reasons why people choose a smart
watch.
First of all, it can tell the time like a usual watch. But the most important difference is that a
smart watch can also be connected to (连接) the mobile phone. You are able to use it to answer the
phone, but a traditional watch can never do that. Besides, the smart watch looks fascinating. It’s
very popular among teenagers because it’s cool enough. Thirdly, now many people have known
the importance of health. They play sports every day to keep healthy. It’s helpful to know how far
they have run or how many steps they have gotten with a watch. The watch shows the results every
day and they’ll know whether they achieve their goal or not.
However, some parents still don’t want their children to use smart watches too much. In
their opinion, wearing smart watches for a long time may cause health problems. They think the
teenagers are under the radiation all the time. It’s harmful to teenagers.
Each coin (硬币) has two sides. Use it or not It’s up to you.
28.How many Chinese brands of the smart watch are mentioned in the passage
A.Four. B.Three. C.Two. D.One.
29.Which one is the same between a smart watch and a traditional one
A.Both can tell the time. B.Both look fascinating
C.Both can be connected to the mobile phone. D.Both can record steps and distance.
30.What is the writer’s opinion about using the smart watches
A.Using smart watches is very good.
B.Using smart watches may cause health problems.
C.Using smart watches is harmful to teenagers.
D.Whether using smart watches or not depends on yourself.
31.What does the underlined word “radiation” in the third paragraph mean
A.光能 B.辐射 C.热能 D.太阳能
D
Thousands of years ago, people didn't live in cold places because they didn't know how to keep
themselves warm. Later they learned to make clothes. When an animal was killed, they made use of
its skins to cover their bodies. The skins kept them warm. Nature is people's good friend. It once
helped people find fire, when lightning hit a forest and started a fire. People took some of this fire
to their homes. The fire kept them warm, and also frightened wild animals. Soon people found the
food cooked tasted much better, so they began to use the fire to cook food. But people still didn't
know how to make a fire. When they got a fire from the forest they tried to keep it burning. If it
went out, they had to wait for years. But later they found different ways to make fire. For example,
they made fire by burning wood or knocking two pieces of stones.
Today it's easy for people to make fire because they have matches, lighters and different kinds
of heaters. They can make fire at any time they need.
32.Why did people live only in hot places once
A.Because they didn't know how to kill animals.
B.Because they didn't know how to take fire from forest.
C.Because they didn't know how to keep themselves warm.
D.Because they didn't know how to make matches.
33.What did people use animal skins to do in those days
A.For food. B.To make fire.
C.For burning. D.To warm themselves.
34.People later learned how to use fire to ________.
A.cook food B.kill animals
C.cut off an animal's skin D.burn wood
35.How did people learn to make fire later
A.By burning stones. B.By burning wood.
C.By burning dry leaves. D.By burning animal skins.
第二节(共 5小题;每小题 2.5分,满分 12.5分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项
中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Within your family, are you the “boss”, the “peacemaker”, the “baby” or the “king” 36
Firstborn — The “Boss”
First-time parents often have very high expectations for their eldest children. 37 Firstborns
tend to be natural leaders who respect and trust authority. Many astronauts and engineers are
firstborn children.
Middle child — The “Peacemaker”
Typically, parents don’t give middle children as much attention as the firstborn or the youngest.
38 As a result, they are usually determined to achieve success in their own way. They don’t like
conflict and will try to avoid it. They are often realistic, independent, patient peacemakers and good
communicators.
Youngest child — The “Baby”
By the time the youngest family member is born, most parents have loosened their rules. 39
They often enjoy amusing others and being the center of attention. They are typically fun-loving,
creative people who aren’t afraid to question authority or take risks.
Only child — The “King of the Castle”
Life in the family of an only child often revolves around him or her. 40 An only child
enjoys learning from adults and is usually very clever for his or her age. Only children are creative
and intelligent and can easily communicate with adults. They are typically confident, independent
and very successful. What about you Does the birth order description match your personality
A.Thus, they tend to have more freedom.
B.That often causes them to feel they are ignored.
C.Early-born children experience a better social environment.
D.These kids don’t have to share their toys or their parents’ time.
E.Many researchers believe your position in the family influences your personality.
F.As a result, these kids are often responsible, organized, bossy, successful achievers.
G.The relationships between birth order, personality, and behavior confuse many researchers.
第一部分语言运用 (共两节,满分 30 分) 第一节
(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白
处的最佳选项。
One of my favourite high school teachers is Mrs Ide. She was my 41 teacher and the leader
of our choir (合唱团), in which I was a member during high school in France. It was Mrs Ide who
asked me to 42 the school choir. Mrs Ide was a great teacher and musical
genius.
First of all, Mrs Ide always had 43 topics for her music class. She had 44 to make us fun every
time. We 45 in groups in class. We studied musicals (like Cats, My Fair Lady) and
every one of us had a part to act and sing. When we 46 studying our
parts, we had a “creative evening”, where all our families, friends and teachers came and watched
our 47 .
Secondly, Mrs Ide 48 our musical talent. She taught us to be self-confident with our 49 and
how to use different skills to 50 our singing. She told us every
week that we all have great talent, and it made us feel really good that she had such confidence in
our musical 51 .
Finally, I can say that Mrs Ide was the best teacher and she 52 cared about us. She helped
everyone in her class to improve his and be more self-5co3n fident. Also, she taught us skills, so that
we were able to who encouraged me to study singing5. 4I really thaatt hthoemre arleo noeth. eSrh te awcahse rtsh eli kpee rhseorn,
who are an inspiration for students and their future. 55
41.A.history B.music C.science D.language
42.A.direct B.visit C.join D.help
43.A.interesting B.serious C.useful D.difficult
44.A.excuses B.examples C.senses D.ideas
45.A.danced B.asked C.worked D.waited
46.A.finished B.tried C.kept D.practised
47.A.study B.films C.photos D.play
48.A.thought of B.believed in C.made use of D.made up for
49.A.hearing B.future C.plans D.voices
50.A.change B.improve C.find D.check
51.A.taste B.culture C.traditions D.abilities
52.A.hardly B.truly C.finally D.already
53.A.singing B.reading C.writing D.painting
54.A.train B.stay C.eat D.pay
55.A.realise B.promise C.hope D.suggest
第二节(共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)阅读下面短
文,在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
A 63-year-old Chinese grandpa’s 56 (tradition) carpentry ( 木工 ) skills are
delighting tens of millions of viewers online as he creates woodwork without glue, screws or nails.
The Chinese master carpenter, Wang Dewen, well known as “Granpa Amu” on YouTube, has
been called as the modern Lu Ban, 57 famous Chinese structural engineer during the Zhou Dynasty,
thanks 58 his vast carpentry knowledge. His most popular video,
59 shows him making a fantastic wooden arch bridge, became popular on the platform,
60 (eventual) gaining more than 42 million views.
Grandpa Amu follows an ancient Chinese mortise and tenon ( 榫卯 ) technique, which
61 (mean) no nails or glue are involved in the entire process of building the arch bridge.
Grandpa Amu has also made several wooden toys for his grandson 62 (use) the same
technique. He created a folding stool(凳子), which looked like the China pavilion (中国馆) from
the 2010 Shanghai Expo. “A block of wood transforms into a stool. Genius,” a YouTube user named
Rey Rey commented under the video.
Among all the 63 (item), a walking Peppa Pig and a bubble blowing toy are
64 (he) grandson’s favorites.
So far, the master carpenter 65 (attract) over 1.18 million fans on YouTube.
Grandpa Amu insists that he is not an internet superstar but just an ordinary farmer.
写作(共两节,满分 40 分)
第一节(满分 15 分)
根据以下内容要点写一篇 100 词左右的短文。
假定你是李华,你的英国朋友 Peter 听说现在在中国人工智能已经进入人们日常生活的各
个方面,包括旅游业。他来信询问你在十一假期期间是否有这方面的体验,请你给他回
信,内容包括:
1.门票无现金(手机)支付;2.景区可以脸部识别人;3.邀请他来体验。
注意:1.词数 100 左右;2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;3.开头和结尾已给出,不计
入总词数。
参考词汇:手机支付 the mobile payment;人工智能 artificial intelligence;脸部识别 face
recognition
Dear Peter,
I am glad to hear from you.
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
Yours truly,
Li Hua
第二节:读后续写(满分 25 分)
阅读下面短文,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It was a fine summer morning, perfect to be outdoors. Two sisters had been out mushroom
picking, and were on their way home with heavy baskets full of mushrooms. They sang songs on
the way, and played with each other.
Soon they reached a point where they had to cross a railway track. They did not think twice
about crossing it since there was no train coming, and they could not hear any whistle. They slowly
climbed the steep railway embankment, taking care not to drop the baskets. They were very near
the track and the little sister Mary was about to cross it first when a train whistled in the
distance.
Hearing the train coming, Rose the elder sister quickly ran down. She thought that the young
one was following her. But as she turned back, she was shocked to see her little sister still up there
crossing the track. “Come back here! Run back fast!” she shouted.
Mary seemed not to hear the whistle nor her sister’s cry as she was concentrating on stepping
over the track with her little feet, and holding on to the basket. Then she tripped and fell on the track,
scattering her mushrooms around.
The engine driver panicked on seeing a girl between the tracks who was on her hands and
12 页
knees and he blew the horn with all his strength. Poor Mary, who was frightened by the coming
danger, froze and didn’t know what to do. When Rose saw the scene, she screamed at the top of
her voice for Mary’s attention. Mary noticed that her sister was not around and cried for help.
With the train drawing near, the engine driver grew extremely anxious. As hard as he could, he
kept blowing the whistle and started reducing speed. Yet it was not possible for him to stop the
heavy train within such a short distance.
注意:1. 续写词数应为 150 左右;2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Rose wouldn’t watch the tragedy happen before her eyes.
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
_
The train rolled over and finally stopped.
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
_
12 页高 一 英语答题卡
注意事项 :
1、 答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚,并认
真核准条形码上的准考证号,姓名及科目。 贴条形码区
2、 选择题部分必须使用 2B 铅笔填涂,非选择题部分必须使

0.5 毫米的黑色墨水签字笔书写,字体工整、笔迹清楚。
3、 请按照题号顺序在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出答题区
域书写的答案无效;在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。
4、 保持卡面清洁,不要折叠,不要弄破。
第一卷 (用 2B铅笔填涂)
1 [A] [B] [C] 6 [ A] [B] [C] 16 [A] [B] [B] [D] [E] [F] [G]
2 [A] [B] [C] 7 [ A] [B] [C] 17 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]
3 [A] [B] [C] 8 [ A] [B] [C] 18 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]
4 [A] [B] [C] 9 [ A] [B] [C] 19 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]
5 [A] [B] [C] 10 [ A] [B] [C] 20 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]
36 [A] [B] [C] 21 [A] [B] [C] [A] [B] [C] 26
37 [A] [B] [C] 22 [A] [B] [C] [A] [B] [C]27
38 [A] [B] [C] 23 [A] [B] [C] [A] [B] [C]28
39 [A] [B] [C] 24 [A] [B] [C] [A] [B] [C] 29 30
25 [A] [B] [C] [A] 40 [A] [B] [C] [B] [C]
46
41 [A] [B] [C] [A] [B] [C] 47
42 [A] [B] [C] [A] [B] [C] [A] [B] [C] 48 11
43 [A] [B] [C] [A] [B] [C] [A] [B] [C] 49 12
44 [A] [B] [C] [A] [B] [C] [A] [B] [C] 50 13
45 [A] [B] [C] [A] [B] [C] [A] [B] [C]
14
[A] [B] [C]
15
[A] [B] [C]
31
[A] [B] [C]
32
[A] [B] [C]
33
[A] [B] [C]
34
[A] [B] [C]
35
[A] [B] [C]
51
[A] [B] [C]
52
[A] [B] [C]
53
[A] [B] [C]
54 55
[A] [B] [C]
[D] [D] [D]
[D] [D] [D]
[D] [D] [D]
[D] [D] [D]
[D] [D] [D]
[D] [D] [D]
[D] [D] [D]
[D] [D] [D]
[D] [D] [D]
[D] [D] [D]
{#{QQABYQQ1xwiQgAQACQ76VUEaCEkQkIAQJaoOAVCSKAQryQFAFAA=}#}
{#{QQABYQQ1xwiQgAQACQ76VUEaCEkQkIAQJaoOAVCSKAQryQFAFAA=}#}写作评分细则
第一节(满分 15 分)
(一) 评分原则
1.本题总分为 15 分,按 5 个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最
后给分。
3.词数少于 60 或多于 100 的,从总分中减去 2 分。
4.评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇
用法均可接受。
6.若书写较差以致影响交际,酌情扣分。
(二) 各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(13~15 分)
——完全完成试题规定的任务。
——覆盖所有内容要点。
——应用较多的语法结构和词汇。
——语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能
力。
——有效地使用语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
——完全达到预期的写作目的。
第四档(10~12 分)
——完成试题规定的任务。
——虽漏掉 1~2 个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致。
——使用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
——达到预期的写作目的。
第三档(7~9 分)
——基本完成试题规定的任务。
——虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
——使用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
——整体而言,基本达到预期的写作目的。
第二档(4~6 分)
——未适当完成试题规定的任务。
——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
——语法结构单调,词汇有限。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,且影响对写作内容的理解。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺乏连贯性。
——信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档(1~3 分)
——未完成试题规定的任务。
——明显漏掉主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题的要求。
——语法结构单调,词汇有限。
——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,且影响对写作内容的理解。
——缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
——信息未能传达给读者。
{#{QQABaQSQggigABAAAQhCUQVqCEMQkAGACaoOREAcIAAByAFABAA=}#}
0 分
——未能传达给读者任何信息;白卷、内容太少,无法评判。
——所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
第二节(满分 25 分)
(一) 评分原则
1.本题总分为 25 分,按 5 个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档
次,最后给分。
3.词数少于 120 的,酌情扣分;只写一段的原则上不超过 10 分。
4.评分时,应主要从以下四个方面考虑:
(1) 与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度;
(2) 内容的丰富性和关键信息的利用情况;
(3) 应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性;
(4) 上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及
词汇用法均可接受。
6.若书写较差以致影响交际,酌情扣分。
(二) 各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(21~25 分)
——与所给短文融洽度高,与所提供的各段落开头语衔接合理。
——内容丰富,利用了文中的关键信息。
——所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达。
——有效地使用语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档(16~20 分)
——与所给短文融洽度较高,与所提供的各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
——内容比较丰富,基本利用了文中的关键信息。
——所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但不影响意义表达。
——比较有效地使用语句间的连接成分,使所续写的短文结构紧凑。
第三档(11~15 分)
——与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
——写出了若干有关内容,部分利用了文中的关键信息。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,虽有一些错误,但不影响意义表达。
——使用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
第二档(6~10 分)
——与所给短文有一定的关系,与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
——写出了一些有关内容,较少利用文中的关键信息。
——语法结构单调,词汇有限,有语法结构和词汇方面的错误,且影响了意义的表达。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档(1~5 分)
——与所给短文和所提供的各段落开头语的衔接较差。
——写出的内容较少,很少利用文中的关键信息。
——语法结构单调,词汇很有限,有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误,严重影响了意义的表达。
——缺乏语句间的连接成分,全文内容不连贯。
0 分
——未能传达给读者任何信息;白卷、内容太少,无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
{#{QQABaQSQggigABAAAQhCUQVqCEMQkAGACaoOREAcIAAByAFABAA=}#}

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