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2024-2025学年度第二学期期末教学质量测评
七年级英语试卷
（时间：100分钟；满分100分）
第一部分 听力部分（共四大题，满分15分）
Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What animal are they talking about
A. B. C.
2. What is Tony’s hometown famous for
A. B. C.
3. Which floor is Peter’s study on
A. The first floor. B. The second floor. C. The third floor.
4. What does Alex think of the story
A. Special. B. Perfect. C. Wonderful.
5. What time is it
A. 7:15. B. 7:30. C. 7:45.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共2小题；每小题1分，满分2分）
你将听到一段对话，对话后有两个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。对话读两遍。
6. How often can people enjoy a free film
A. Once a day. B. Once a week. C. Once a month.
7. What’s wrong with the girl’s mother
A. She has a sore throat. B. She has a headache. C. She has a fever.
Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一段短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
8. Why is Suzy unhappy
A. She fought with her neighbours.
B. She cannot sleep because of the noise.
C. She lost her job.
9. What does the baby usually do
A. He talks and makes loud noises. B. He cries loudly at night. C. He runs inside the room.
10. What is Betty’s suggestion
A. Tell the problem to the police.
B. Dealing with the problem by herself.
C. Playing louder music.
11. What is Suzy like
A. Unfriendly. B. Noisy. C. Quiet.
12. When will Suzy go to the police station
A. Tonight. B. Tomorrow morning. C. This Sunday
Ⅳ. 信息转换（共3小题；每小题1分，共3分）
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容在下面表格的空白处填入一个单词，短文读两遍。
Visit to Mauritius (毛里求斯)
Country Mauritius is an island country with sea around it.
Sports Beach volleyball, 13 and swimming.
The most beautiful moment With its white beaches, beautiful 14 and clear sea, it is really a good place for visitors.
Languages 15 types of language
第二部分 英语知识运用（共两大题，满分30分）
Ⅴ. 单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
1. —How is Tom in his new school
—He is doing well. There is ________ to worry about.
A. something B. everything C. nothing D. anything
2. Amazing! ________ fantastic match Sun Yingsha played!
A. What B. What a C. How D. How a
3. ________ a good habit of reading can not only open my eyes but also help me relax. I love reading!
A. Raising B. Forming C. Organizing D. Producing
4. The wasteland in the past is now a wetland park and it’s a perfect place to go bird watching because the living ________ are far better than before.
A. conditions B. information C. tradition D. collections
5. —Jim I feel worried. I failed in the Maths test.
— ________ ! It’s not a big deal. Just believe yourself and you will make it next time.
A. Put up B. Give up C. Pick up D. Cheer up
6. My grandma lives ________, but she doesn’t feel ________ with many hobbies.
A. alone; lonely B. alone; alone C. lonely; alone D. lonely; lonely
7. —The personalities of the twins are too different.
—Exactly. Tom is interested in science ________ his brother is crazy about music.
A. when B. as C. while D. because
8 —Oops! This is not the way to the museum.
—Maybe we ________ the wrong turning just now.
A. take B. took C. is taking D. will take
9. Which can be put in ________ to show the rhyme of the poem
I see When ________, Flowers grow in the sun. When half the world is bright, The other half is night.
A. bees dance one by one B. birds fly in a line
C the cloud is still alone D. the weather is so fine
10. —Shall we be volunteers in the library during the summer holiday
—________ I can’t wait to.
A. That’s all right. B. Why not C. Yes, please. D. Good luck.
Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
A
Yesterday, my family and I had a wonderful adventure. We went ____11____ on a beautiful mountain! We ____12____ in the early morning.
When we arrived at the foot of the mountain, I was surprised ____13____ the nice landscape. It looked like a huge picture coming out of a storybook.
Then we started climbing. As we climbed higher, it became cooler. I could feel my heart beating (跳动) fast and my legs getting weak, ____14____ I kept going on little by little. My parents supported me and told me how ____15____ they were of me for being so brave.
Two hours ____16____, we reached the top. We ____17____ fresh air and enjoyed the amazing views. I felt like I was standing on the top of the world. At ____18____, we had many snacks under a big tree. It was such a great time.
When we got back home at about 2 p. m., we were tired but ____19____. It was a valuable ____20____ and I will never forget it.
11. A. skiing B. camping C. hiking D. running
12. A. put off B. set off C. get off D. show off
13. A. at B. with C. in D. about
14. A. and B. or C. for D. but
15. A. correct B. worried C. proud D. fantastic
16. A. later B. before C. after D. ago
17. A. tasted B. smelled C. breathed D. collected
18. A. breakfast B. noon C. supper D. night
19. A. down B. nervous C. sad D. cheerful
20. A. end B. experience C. treasure D. trick
B
Inner painting (内画) is a kind of traditional Chinese art. The artists traditionally paint on the inner ____21____ of small glass bottles. There are four ____22____ schools (流派) of it in China: Beijing, Hebei, Shandong, and Guangdong.
When we take a close look at a work of the inner painting, we will ____23____ its beauty. These paintings often ____24____ people’s wishes for good luck. The most popular ones are about ____25____, like flowers and birds.
Making inner painting is ____26____ because it needs high precision (精确). And the painting is reversed (反向). During painting, there is no ____27____ to correct. The bottle is so small that they need to finish it at one time. These artists can’t create great pieces ____28____ practising for years.
Today’s artists are trying to make inner painting more about our lives. Some artists are teaching the ____29____ online.
Looking ahead to the future, these artists hope more people know about the art. They also ____30____ schools should set up inner painting lessons for young students.
21. A. cover B. back C. surface D. top
22. A. local B. main C. folk D. ancient
23. A. pass B. wonder C. respect D. enjoy
24. A. express B. touch C. post D. fill
25. A. characters B. activities C. nature D. buildings
26. A. difficult B. easy C. modern D. simple
27. A. time B. money C. room D. energy
28. A. after B. through C. with D. without
29. A. skills B. tasks C. objects D. tools
30. A. allow B. recommend C. invite D. ask
第三部分 阅读理解（共两大题，满分35分）
Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
A: We will have a picnic this Sunday. I’m so excited.
B: ____31____ It will be a great day.
A: ____32____
B: We can fly kites there.
A: Lovely! Can we take a boat trip too
B: ____33____ It’s not safe to row a boat in the lake without adults.
A: I see. Remember to prepare some food, Amy.
B: ____34____
A: By the way, don’t forger to take some plastic bags (塑料袋). ____35____
B: OK. Now everything is ready. See you on Sunday.
A: See you then.
A. What can we do there, Amy
B. We can’t leave rubbish everywhere.
C. Me too.
D. I’ll take my camera.
E. No, I’m afraid not.
F. What’s the weather like
G. I’ll ask my mum to make some sandwiches.
Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
A
Which animal has the stripes (条纹) of a zebra, the body of a horse and the head of a giraffe An okapi (霍加彼)! They mostly live in the east of Africa. Hidden (隐藏的) animals Okapis’ special stripes make them hard to be seen by other animals and people in the forest. No two okapis have the same stripes. People didn’t know they were real until 1901. Special sounds Okapis talk to each other in a way people can’t hear, called infrasound (次声波). That’s another reason why it’s difficult to find them in the forest. Endangered animals There are only about 30,000 okapis left in the world. People are cutting down trees and hurting them. To protect them, we should call on more people to join in protection activities.
36. Where do okapis mostly live
A. In the south of Africa. B. In the east of Africa. C. In the south of Asia. D. In the east of Asia.
37. Why is it difficult to find okapis in the forest
①Because they talk in a special way. ②Because they are not real.
③Because they only come out a night. ④Because they have special stripes.
A. ①② B. ②③ C. ①④ D. ②④
38. What does the underlined word “Endangered” probably mean
A. 濒临灭绝的 B. 有趣的 C. 可爱的 D. 聪明的
39. How does the writer start the passage
A. By showing a fact. B. By asking a question.
C. By giving an example. D. By telling a story.
B
Do you know what “the lungs (肺) of the earth” are
The huge forest in South America is in the Amazon area. The Amazon rainforest is across eight countries and it covers an area of 7,000,000 square kilometres. It can produce about 20% of the world’s oxygen. That’s why the Amazon rainforest is called “the lungs of the earth”.
The Amazon rainforest has the richest kinds of living things in the world. It’s home to millions of species (物种) of plants and animals, so it is also known as “the animal and plant kingdom of the world”.
However, this rainforest is in great danger because people cut down trees to sell. This act not only harms (破坏) the rainforest, but also makes the plants and animals there lose their homes.
Lucid waters and lush mountains are invaluable assets. We must work together to protect the rainforest.
40. How many countries does the Amazon rainforest cross
A. Five. B. Six. C. Seven. D. Eight.
41. What can we know from Paragraph 3
A. The Amazon rainforest has less than one hundred insects.
B. The Amazon rainforest is home to many animals and plants.
C. The Amazon rainforest produces about 20% of the world’s oxygen.
D. The Amazon rainforest covers an area of seven million square kilometres.
42. What does the underlined sentence probably mean in Chinese
A. 绿色出行，低碳生活。 B. 绿水青山就是金山银山。
C. 垃圾分类我先行。 D. 保护环境，从我做起。
43. What is the writer’s purpose of writing the passage
A. To ask people to protect the rainforest. B. To ask for help to save wild animals.
C. To show some animals in the rainforest. D. To share a travel experience.
C
①On February 27th, Chengdu showed the torch (火炬) for the 2025 World Games (世运会), named “Bamboo Dream”. This is the first torch made for the event. People kept it in a beautiful Shu Brocade (蜀锦) box.
②The name “Bamboo Dream” means “chasing dreams.” The 72-centimeter-tall torch mixes the shape of bamboo and the Sanxingdui bronze statue (铜像), a famous ancient artwork. At the top, two bamboo shoots (竹笋) look like open arms to welcome the world.
③The torch uses green and silver colors. Green stands for Chengdu’s parks and green life. Silver means technology and energy. Together, they show China’s focus on nature and new ideas.
④Special designs cover the torch. The center has the Games’ mascots (吉祥物), “Shu Bao” and “Jin Zai”, and its logo. The fire outlet (出口) is like a sun crown from the Jinsha Site, and the base uses phoenix patterns (底座使用凤凰图案) from Sanxingdui. These details join ancient Chinese history and sports spirit together.
⑤The World Games is for sports not in the Olympics. Chengdu will host it from August 7th to 17th, 2025. The torch’s theme “Join the Games, Light the Dream,” invites everyone to share the joy of sports and friendship.
44. What is the height of the torch
A. 0.7 metre. B. 0.72 metre. C. 0.75 metre. D. 0.8 metre.
45. What does the silver color of the torch mean
A. Peace and health. B. History and culture. C. Nature and health. D. Technology and energy.
46. What is the best title of this passage
A. The 2025 World Games in Chengdu.
B. The Mascots of the 2025 World Games.
C. “Bamboo Dream”: The Torch for the 2025 World Games.
D. The History of the World Games.
47. Which of the following shows the structure (结构) of the text
A. B. C. D.
D
A long time ago, there was an apple tree. A little boy loved to play around the tree.
As time went by, the boy grew up. He was six years old. One day, he walked to the tree and said, “I want to play with toys, but I need money to buy them.” “You can pick my apples and sell them,” the tree said. Then the boy took all the apples, but he disappeared (消失) for a long time.
At the age of 22, the boy came back and the tree was very excited. “Come and play,” the tree said. “I don’t have time to play. I have to work for my family. We need a house,” the boy replied (回复). “You can cut my branches (树枝) to build a house,” said the tree. So the boy cut all the branches off and left happily. But the tree didn’t hear from the boy for a long time and was sad again.
After many years, the boy came back again. The tree said, “Sorry, I don’t have anything for you now.” “I am tired. I just need a place to rest,” the boy replied. “Good! Old tree roots (根) are the best place to rest,” said the tree. The boy sat down and the tree was glad and smiled with tears.
48. What did the boy need at the age of six (不超过5个词)
____________________________________________
49. Why did the tree feel sad again (不超过15个词)
____________________________________________
50. What do you think of the tree (不超过15个词)
____________________________________________
第四部分 写（共两大题，满分20分）
Ⅸ. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
51. My brother was careless because he f________ (掉落) off a tree yesterday.
52. People strongly believe that Chinese m________ (医学) can deal with many illnesses.
53. “East or west, Guilin landscape is the best.” Guilin is well w________ (值得) a visit.
54. Remember to c________ (检查) your answers carefully before handing in your papers.
55. Life is like riding a bicycle. To keep your b________ (平衡), you must keep moving.
Ⅹ. 书面表达（共1小题，满分15分）
56. 一年时光，如诗如歌。美好的七年级校园生活即将结束，学校正在评选七年级“校园之星（the Campus Star）”。假如你是Linda，你想推荐你的同学Simon。请你仔细阅读下面的提示，为他写一封推荐信。
·有爱心，喜欢小动物，是社区志愿者；
·亲近自然，喜欢户外活动；
·经常阅读；
·…
要求：
1. 所写内容必须包括提示的所有要点，可适当发挥；
2. 词数80左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数；
3. 不得使用真实姓名、校名和地名等。
Dear sir/ madam,
I would like to recommend my classmate Simon to be the Campus Star.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours faithfully,
Linda
2024-2025学年度第二学期期末教学质量测评
七年级英语试卷
（时间：100分钟；满分100分）
第一部分 听力部分（共四大题，满分15分）
Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What animal are they talking about
A. B. C.
2. What is Tony’s hometown famous for
A. B. C.
3. Which floor is Peter’s study on
A. The first floor. B. The second floor. C. The third floor.
4. What does Alex think of the story
A Special. B. Perfect. C. Wonderful.
5. What time is it
A. 7:15. B. 7:30. C. 7:45.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共2小题；每小题1分，满分2分）
你将听到一段对话，对话后有两个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。对话读两遍。
6. How often can people enjoy a free film
A. Once a day. B. Once a week. C. Once a month.
7. What’s wrong with the girl’s mother
A. She has a sore throat. B. She has a headache. C. She has a fever.
Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一段短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
8. Why is Suzy unhappy
A. She fought with her neighbours.
B. She cannot sleep because of the noise.
C. She lost her job.
9. What does the baby usually do
A. He talks and makes loud noises. B. He cries loudly at night. C. He runs inside the room.
10. What is Betty’s suggestion
A. Tell the problem to the police.
B. Dealing with the problem by herself.
C. Playing louder music.
11. What is Suzy like
A. Unfriendly. B. Noisy. C. Quiet.
12. When will Suzy go to the police station
A. Tonight. B. Tomorrow morning. C. This Sunday
Ⅳ. 信息转换（共3小题；每小题1分，共3分）
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容在下面表格的空白处填入一个单词，短文读两遍。
Visit to Mauritius (毛里求斯)
Country Mauritius is an island country with sea around it.
Sports Beach volleyball 13 and swimming.
The most beautiful moment With its white beaches, beautiful 14 and clear sea, it is really a good place for visitors.
Languages 15 types of language
第二部分 英语知识运用（共两大题，满分30分）
Ⅴ. 单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
【1题答案】
【答案】C
【2题答案】
【答案】B
【3题答案】
【答案】B
【4题答案】
【答案】A
【5题答案】
【答案】D
【6题答案】
【答案】A
【7题答案】
【答案】C
【8题答案】
【答案】B
【9题答案】
【答案】A
【10题答案】
【答案】B
Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
A
【11~20题答案】
【答案】11. C 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. B
B
【21~30题答案】
【答案】21. C 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. C 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. B
第三部分 阅读理解（共两大题，满分35分）
Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
【31~35题答案】
【答案】31. C 32. A 33. E 34. G 35. B
Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
A
【36~39题答案】
【答案】36. B 37. C 38. A 39. B
B
【40~43题答案】
【答案】40. D 41. B 42. B 43. A
C
【44~47题答案】
【答案】44. B 45. D 46. C 47. B
D
【48~50题答案】
【答案】48. He needed money.
49. Because it didn’t hear from the boy for a long time.
50. It is selfless and generous.
第四部分 写（共两大题，满分20分）
Ⅸ. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
【51题答案】
【答案】(f)ell
【52题答案】
【答案】(m)edicine
【53题答案】
【答案】(w)orth
【54题答案】
【答案】(c)heck
【55题答案】
【答案】(b)alance
Ⅹ. 书面表达（共1小题，满分15分）
【56题答案】
【答案】
Dear sir/ madam,
I would like to recommend my classmate Simon to be the Campus Star.
Simon is a caring boy who loves small animals. He is also a volunteer in the community, often helping take care of homeless animals and organizing activities to raise awareness about animal protection. He is close to nature and enjoys outdoor activities. He often goes hiking or camping with his friends to enjoy the beauty of nature and relax himself. What’s more, he is an avid reader and spends a lot of time reading books in the school library. He believes reading can broaden his horizons and enrich his knowledge. Besides, he is always ready to help others. He often tutors students in their studies and helps teachers with their work.
All in all, I think Simon is the most suitable person to be the Campus Star. I hope you canconsider my recommendation.
Yours faithfully,
Linda

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