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2024—2025学年度第二学期期末检测试卷
五 年 级 英 语
(本试卷共6页，满分100分，答卷时间：60分钟)
题号 听力部分 笔试部分 总分
1 11 Ⅲ IV v VI VII VIII IX x
得分
听力部分(共四大题，30分)
Ⅰ.听音，找出句子中含有的单词，将序号写在前面的括号内。 (每题1分，共8分)
( )1. A. fly B. cry C. tie
( )2. A. peach B. beach C. bench
( )3. A. bed B. bank C. back
( )4. A. cook B. look C. book
( )5. A. same B. game C. came
( )6. A. cut B. nut C. but
( )7. A. skating B. skiing C. swimming
( )8. A. wheels B. windows C. wings
Ⅱ.听音，标号。用数字标出图片的先后顺序。 (每题1分，共8分)
Ⅲ.听对话，选择问题的最佳答句。将正确答案的序号填在括号内。 (每题1分，共8分)
( )17. What does the boy's brother do
A. He's a teacher. B. He's a doctor. C. He's policeman.
( )18. What have they got in the library
A. The Harry Potter DVDs.B. The Harry Potter books. C. The Harry Potter Posters.
( )19. What did Daming think of the chocolate
A. It was delicious. B. It was amazing. C. It was broken.
( )20. What did Lingling do at Stonehenge
A. Had a picnic. B. Took a bike ride C. Took a helicopter ride.
( )21. Where are the man and woman
A. At a supermarket. B. At a cinema. C. At a library.
( )22. What are the women wearing today
A. Red shirts. B. Red skirts. C. Red coats.
( )23. When does the girl's father go to work every morning
A. At 5:30. B. At 6:00 C. At 6:30.
( )24. Who did the man meet on the way to school
A. His teacher. B. His brother. C. His friend.
Ⅳ.听短文，选择正确的选项，将序号写在前面的括号内。 (每题1分，共6分)
( )25. Lingling and Amy went to a last week.
A. children's theatre B. children's park C. children's playground
( )26. The men wore clothes.
A. men's B. women's C. workers'
( )27. The actors told lots of .
A. jokes B. secrets C. stories
( )28. The show was funny and made them a lot.
A. shout B. clap C. laugh
( )29. After that, they had in a restaurant.
A. fish and chips B. sausages and eggs C. hamburgers and chips
( )30. Lingling said the English food was .
A. amazing B. delicious C. different
笔试部分(共六大题，70分)
V.单项选择。将正确的序号填写在前面的括号里。 (每题1分，共10分)
( )31.下列单词划线部分与其它两项读音不同的选项是 。
A. how B. show C. slow
( )32.---Where did your grandpa work before, Betty ---He worked a farm.
A. at B. in C. on
( )33. Yesterday morning Lingling had English breakfast.
A. a B. an C.\(不填)
( )34. Sam likes playing with snow. Winter is favourite season.
A. my B. his C. her
( )35. It's a difficult question. We need to find the soon.
A. answer B. subject C. visit
( )36.--- I have some fish, please ---Sorry, you can't. We haven't got any.
A. Must B. Will C. Can
( )37. Taotao some books from the library. And he read them all.
A. took B. borrowed C. won
( )38. Paper-cutting is a Chinese culture(文化). It has a long history.
A. special B. interesting C. traditional
( )39.--- is the green bag ---It's 30 pounds.
A. How much B. How many C. How long
( )40.---Please give the books back in two weeks.--- . Thank you.
A. I can't wait B. It's too late C. I will
Ⅵ.词语运用(每题1分，共 15分)
A.用方框中所给单词或短语的适当形式填空。
41. - - - Are you these day - - - Yes. I'm getting ready for my trip to the US.
42. My grandpa was a driver before. He a truck(卡车) in a factory.
43. The children are sitting and playing a clapping game.
44. Yesterday we went to Mount Dahei. It took us an and a half to the top of it.
45. The eighth month of the year is . It's between July and September.
B.根据句意提示，写出单词的正确形式。
46. My uncle goes to work at 6 o’ clock every e . He’ s an actor in a theatre.
47. I think the film, Ne Zha 2, is very i . I want to see it again.
48. I had an art class yesterday afternoon. I d a picture for my mum.
49. Dunhuang is an amazing p in China. Thousands of travellers visit it every year.
50. The work was difficult. But we worked together and finished it in a s time.
C.从下面选项中选择正确的一项，使短文意思完整。
Libraries are important for everyone. You can do lots of 51 in libraries. You can 52 books, CDs and DVDs. You can read or do 53 homework. You can use computers to search for information(搜索信息). 54 there are some rules. You can't 55 your friends. You can't run or shout.
( )51. A. sports B. work C. things
( )52. A. write B. borrow C. take
( )53. A. our B. your C. their
( )54. A. But B. So C. Next
( )55. A. look at B. think about C. talk to
Ⅶ.句子理解。根据图文提示，完成句子。 (每题1分，共5分)
56.— What music did he play before —— He music.
57.--- for dinner
— She had fish and chips.
58.— What can you do in spring
59. The blue pens are new. .
60. - - - What's your favourite season Why do you like it (根据自己的实际回答)
Ⅷ.情景交际。根据对话内容，从方框中选择正确选项，将其序号写在横线上。(每题2分, 共10分)
A. I'm going to visit my cousin, Simon, in New York. B. I think so. C. I cut the paper with scissors. D. I made a kite for him. E. Are you ready for your trip to the US
Lingling and Daming are on the phone.
Lingling: Daming, what are you going to do this summer holiday
Daming:61.
Lingling:62.
Daming: Yes. Everything is ready now.
Lingling: Then have you got any presents for Simon
Daming: Yes, I have.63. It's a Chinese dragon.
Lingling: Was it difficult for you to make it
Daming: 64. But I asked Fangfang to help me.
Lingling: What did you do
Daming: 65. Fangfang put the sticks on it.
Lingling: Wow! The dragon kite must be very beautiful.
Daming: That's true. It will be a great present.
IX.阅读理解。 (每题2分, 共20分)
Passage 1
阅读下列短文，判断正误(正确的写T，错误的写F)。
In the UK, people usually have breakfast at 7 o’ clock. Lunch is usually at half past twelve. Dinner is usually at half past six.
Sundays are special in the UK. Families usually eat lunch together. They eat chicken,potatoes and other vegetables.
( )66. People in the UK usually have three meals(餐) a day.
( )67. In the UK, lunch time is usually at 11:30
( )68. Sundays are special because families usually eat lunch together.
( )69. On Sundays, they eat sandwiches and fish for lunch.
Passage 2
阅读短文，选择正确的选项。
Hi! I'm Melinda, a British primary school student. Last summer, my family and I went on an amazing trip to Beijing. We visited the National Museum of China and learned about China's long history. The next day, we went to the Summer Palace. The gardens(园林) were so pretty, and the Long Corridor(长廊) had lots of colorful paintings. We walked around Kunming Lake and took lots of photos. At night, we went to a famous restaurant and tried Beijing roast duck—— it was crispy and delicious! My dad also bought a Chinese fan and a silk scarf(丝巾) as presents for my grandparents. This trip made me fall in love with Chinese culture. I hope to visit it again soon!
( )70. Which place did Melinda NOT visit in Beijing
A. The National Museum of China. B. The Great Wall. C. The Summer Palace.
( )71. What did Melinda's family do at the Summer Palace
A. Walked around the lake.B. Painted some pictures. C. Bought some presents.
( )72. The underlined word“crispy” means in Chinese.
A.软嫩的 B.酥脆的 C.粘糯的
( )73. The passage is about .
A. the history of Beijing museums B. how Beijing roast duck tastes
C. Melinda's great trip to Beijing
Passage 3
阅读下列短文，并回答问题。
There is a city in China famous for its kites---it's Weifang(潍坊)in Shangdong. Kites in Weifang have a long history! About 2,400years ago, a clever craftman(工匠) named Lu Ban made a wooden bird and flew it in Weifang. People think this was the very first kite in China! Later, Weifang's kites became more and more beautiful. By the Ming and Qing Dynasties, Weifang became the kite capital of China!
Today, Weifang makes over 70% of the world's kites. Every year, there is anInternational Kite Festival. On these days, there are all kinds of amazing kites flying in the sky.
74. When did Lu Ban make the first kite in China
75. If (如果) you can make a kite, what kite will you make Why
I will make a kite. Because .
X.书面表达。 (本题共 10分)
同学们，你的书包是什么颜色的 它有什么特点 你是肩背还是手拿呢 你喜欢它吗 请你以“My schoolbag”为题，用英语介绍一下你的书包吧。
提示信息: 1. What colour is it (blue, pink, brown, gray...)
2. What is it like (old, new, light, heavy, clean, dirty...)
3. How do you carry it (back, shoulder, hand...)
4. Do you like it Why or why not
要求： (1)根据提示，完成内容，语言通顺，不少于40词；
(2)字迹工整、规范，注意大小写和标点符号。
My School Bag
2024—2025学年度第二学期期末检测试卷
五 年 级 英 语 答案
听力部分(共四大题，30分)
Ⅰ.听音，找出句子中含有的单词，将序号写在前面的括号内。 (每题1分，共8分)
1-8
A B C C B A C A
Ⅱ.听音，标号。用数字标出图片的先后顺序。 (每题1分，共8分)
9-16
G C F B H D A E
Ⅲ.听对话，选择问题的最佳答句。将正确答案的序号填在括号内。 (每题1分，共8分)
17.B 18. B 19.A 20.C 21.A 22.B 23.A 24.C
Ⅳ.听短文，选择正确的选项，将序号写在前面的括号内。 (每题1分，共6分)
25. A 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. B
笔试部分(共六大题，70分)
V.单项选择。将正确的序号填写在前面的括号里。 (每题1分，共10分)
31.A 32.C 33.B 34.B 35.A 36.C 37. B 38.C 39.A 40.C
Ⅵ.词语运用(每题1分，共 15分)
A.用方框中所给单词或短语的适当形式填空。
B.根据句意提示，写出单词的正确形式。
C.从下面选项中选择正确的一项，使短文意思完整。
51.C 52.B 53.B 54.A 55.C
Ⅶ.句子理解。根据图文提示，完成句子。 (每题1分，共5分)
Ⅷ.情景交际。根据对话内容，从方框中选择正确选项，将其序号写在横线上。(每题2分, 共10分)
61.A 62.E 63.D 64.B 65.C
IX.阅读理解。 (每题2分, 共20分)
Passage 2
阅读短文，选择正确的选项。
70.B 71. A 72. B 73.C
Passage 3
阅读下列短文，并回答问题。
X.书面表达。 (本题共 10分)

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