重庆市永川区2024-2025学年七年级下学期期末教学质量监测英语试题(含答案及听力音频,无听力原文)

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重庆市永川区2024-2025学年七年级下学期期末教学质量监测英语试题(含答案及听力音频,无听力原文)

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永川区2024—2025学年下期期末教学质量监测
七年级英语参考答案
Ⅰ. 听力测试(共30分)
第一节(每小题1.5分,共9分)
1―6. ACCCAB
第二节(每小题1.5分,共9分)
7―12. CCAACA
第三节(每小题1.5分,共6分)
13―16. CBAA
第四节(每小题1.5分,共6分)
17―20 . CCBA
II. 语法选择(每小题1分,共10分)
21―25. BAABB 26―30. CCCBC
Ⅲ.完形填空(每小题1.5分,共15分)
31―35. CBDBA 36―40. BABAD
IV.阅读理解(41-43小题,每小题1分,44-59小题,每小题2分,共35分)
41―43. BDA 44―47. DCCA 48―51. BABD
52―55. DCBB 56―59. BBCB
V.口语运用(每小题1分,共5分)
60―64. AGBEC
Ⅵ.任务型阅读(65-67小题,每小题2分,68小题3分,共9分)
65.Yes.
66.Oranges.
67.They helped villagers sell out the oranges and improved water and soil.
68.I can teach villagers how to sell oranges online. Also, I can sell orange juice or other orange products. (言之有理即可)。
Ⅶ.完成句子(69-72小题,每空1分,73小题2分,共10分)
69. aren’t doing 70.Where is 71.What’s like 72.put on
73.Wear the school uniform.
Ⅷ.短文填空(每空2分,共16分)
74. from 75. pick 76. market 77. went
78. teachers 79. They 80. friendly 81. and
Ⅸ.书面表达。(共20分)略永川区2024—2025学年下期期末教学质量监测
七年级英语试题
(全卷共九个大题,满分150分,考试时间120分钟)
注意事项:1.试题的答案书写在答题卡上,不得在试卷上直接作答。
2.作答前认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项。
3.考试结束,由监考人员将答题卡收回。
第I卷(共95分)
Ⅰ. 听力测试(共30分)
第一节(每小题1.5分,共9分)听一遍。根据你所听到的句子,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1. A. Good morning! B. Good afternoon! C. Nice to meet you.
2. A. Fine. B. Sorry. C. You’re welcome.
3. A. Yes, I can. B. Yes, I am. C. Yes, there is.
4. A. Yes, please. B. No, I can’t. C. Juice, please.
5. A. Sure. B. No. C. You too.
6. A. Jim. B. Jim’s. C. A kite.
第二节(每小题1.5分,共9分)听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7. A. [ɡet] B. [ɡe t] C. [ɡre t]
8. A. The fox. B. The wolf. C. The monkey.
9. A. Once a week. B. Once a month. C. Twice a week.
10. A. Because they are cute.
B. Because they are huge.
C. Because they are clever.
11. A. Sleeping. B. Exercising. C. Doing homework.
12. A. B. C.
第三节(每小题1.5分,共6分)听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料,回答13和14小题。
13. Where is the woman
A. In a park. B. In a library. C. In a restaurant.
14. What would the woman like to eat
A. Rice with soup. B. Noodles with soup. C. Dumplings with soup.
听第二段材料,回答15和16小题。
15. Who is in Chongqing
A. Jack. B. Anna. C. Jill.
16. What’s the weather like in Harbin
A. It’s cool. B. It’s hot. C. It’s cold.
第四节(每小题1.5分,共6分)听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17. When did the class go to Yan’an
A. Last year. B. Last week. C. Last month.
18. What did they visit there
A. A shop. B. A school. C. A museum.
19. How was the trip
A. Bad. B. Special. C. Boring.
20. What does the speaker want to do to have a better future
A. Study hard. B. Visit museums. C. Climb mountains.
II. 语法选择(每小题1分,共10分)
根据短文内容,从A、B、C、三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
My Favorite Fridge Magnets
I like collecting fridge magnets(收集冰箱贴) very much. When I travel to new
21 , I always buy one with my pocket money. Now 22 have magnets from Shanghai, Xi’an, Chengdu and Shenzhen. They help me remember my trips.
My best magnet 23 the big plate chicken (大盘鸡) one. I 24 it in Xinjiang two years ago. This dish has chicken, vegetables and 25 on a large plate. It tastes very good! It’s my most favorite food from Xinjiang.
These little magnets show me different foods 26 China. 27 big plate chicken tells about Xinjiang’s food culture. People there enjoy 28 big meals together. The food is always delicious and 29 everyone happy.
My magnets are special to me. They are not just for the fridge. Each one helps me think about the beautiful places 30 the fun times. I will keep collecting more!
21. A. place B. places C. place’s
22. A. I B. my C. me
23. A. is B. am C. are
24. A. get B. got C. am getting
25. A. noodle B. noodles C. noodle’s
26. A. at B. to C. in
27. A. A B. An C. The
28. A. eat B. to eat C. eating
29. A. made B. makes C. is making
30. A. or B. but C. and
Ⅲ. 完形填空(每小题1.5分,共15分)
根据短文内容,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
When you plan to take a trip on your holiday, you should prepare well for it. You should plan to travel with 31 . Friends can help keep you 32 and share the fun.
You should plan 33 you want to go. You should know something about the 34 there and take the right clothes. You should carry a 35 and decide what you want to visit.
You should be careful. Don’t go to 36 places.
37 your trip is in the summer, you should drink lots of safe water. You should put on a hat and a pair of sunglasses and you shouldn’t stay 38 the sun too long. If you like to 39 , remember you shouldn’t swim alone.
Enjoy 40 holiday trip!
A. family B. classmates C. friends D. teachers
A. sad B. safe C. unhappy D. bored
A. what B. how C. who D. where
A. way B. weather C. food D. money
A. map B. pen C. cup D. bag
A. quiet B. dangerous C. clean D. tidy
A. If B. Because C. So D. Or
A. at B. in C. to D. on
A. swim B. sleep C. sing D. dance
A. my B. her C. his D. your
IV. 阅读理解(41-43小题,每小题1分,44-59小题,每小题2分,共35分)
阅读下列材料,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
I’m Jenny, I live on a farm with my family. My father has many lovely animals. I like to spend time with them all. But my favourite animal is our horse Wendy. I love her so much.
Wendy is more than just an animal to me. She is my best friend. During holidays, I spend every day with her. I brush her tail as I talk to her. She likes carrots. When I bring her carrots, she runs over to me and makes happy sounds. When I need to check on our sheep, Wendy is always happy to give me a ride on her back.
I’m going to school next week, and I’ll miss her. It’s hard for me to be away from her. But when I come home, Wendy will be there for me.
41.Where does Jenny live
A. In a cinema. B. On a farm. C. In a school. D.In a tent.
42. What is Jenny’s favourite animal on the farm
A. A dog. B. A sheep. C. A cat. D. A horse.
43. What food does Wendy like
A. Carrots. B. Cookies. C. Sandwiches. D. Dumplings.
B
My sister and I had a party at our house last weekend. We invited some friends, and everyone enjoyed playing games and eating snacks. After the party, the house was in a big mess(一团糟). There were dirty dishes on the tables, and rubbish was all over the floor. Our parents felt really angry and made some new family rules.
First, there were a lot of dirty dishes left. From now on, we have to clean the kitchen after every party. We will wash the dishes. Second, some of our friends moved our dad’s books. He was sad because his study looked messy. So now, we mustn’t play in his study. We can only stay in the living room. Third, we played really loud music, and it made our neighbors angry. The new rules say we can’t make too much noise.
We’re really sorry. We promise to follow the new rules and try our best to follow them. We will also tell our friends to be more careful next time.
44.What did the friends enjoy at the party
A. Moving books. B. Cleaning dishes.
C. Listening to loud music. D. Playing games and eating snacks.
45.How did the parents feel after the party
A. Happy. B. Sorry. C. Angry. D. Funny.
46.What made the neighbors angry
A.The delicious snacks. B. The dirty dishes.
C. The loud music. D. The cute dogs.
47.What is paragraph 2 mainly about
A. Rules. B. Love. C. Friends. D. Parties.
C
Oliver ran to me excitedly in class. “Miss Emily! I can spell my mum’s name!” he said, jumping. He pointed to the letters on the wall: “M-U-M!”
Before I could praise him, Liam shouted: “That’s my mum’s name too!” He nearly knocked over his blocks.
The class were quiet. “Really ” I asked. Both boys nodded(点头). “But your mums’ real names are different, right ” I said.
The boys looked surprised. I explained “M-U-M” is what we call mothers, not their real names. Their mums were Sarah and Priya. The class laughed and clapped(拍手). Both boys got stars.
Though they were wrong at first, it became a fun lesson about words(单词) and names.
48. When did Oliver run to the teacher excitedly
A. At the party. B. In class. C. After class. D. After school.
49.Which letters were on the wall
A. M-U-M. B. D-A-D.
C. S-I-S-T-E-R. D. B-R-O-T-H-E-R.
50.What did the teacher give the boys at the end
A. Books. B. Stars. C. Names. D. Pens.
51.What did the children learn
A. Spelling is hard.
B. Teachers give stars easily.
C. All mums’ names are M-U-M.
D. “Mum” is different from real names.
D
Once upon a time, there was a kind girl named Little Red Riding Hood(小红帽). Her mother asked her to take some food to her grandmother who lived in a forest. Little Red put on her bright red hat and left for the forest.
On her way, Little Red heard a sound in the bushes(灌木丛). A big, bad wolf jumped out and asked, “Where are you going ” Little Red told him about her grandmother. The wolf said, “Go this way and I’ll see you later.”
The wolf ran to the grandmother’s house first. He ate the grandmother, put on her clothes, and waited in bed. When Little Red arrived, she was surprised. “Grandmother, your teeth and eyes look so big!” the wolf said, “That’s because I love you, my dear.”
Suddenly, a hunter heard the noise and came in. He saw the wolf and killed him. The wolf fell down, and the grandmother was saved. Little Red learned to always listen to her mother and stay safe.
Why did Little Red Riding Hood go to the forest
A. To pick flowers. B. To meet the friend.
C. To play with the wolf. D. To visit her grandmother.
53. Which order(顺序) is right
a. The wolf ate the grandmother. b. The wolf ran to grandmother’s house.
c. The wolf put on grandmother’s clothes. d. The wolf asked Little Red questions.
A. abcd B. bacd C. dbac D. dbca
54. What does the underlined word “He” refer to(指代)
A.The grandmother. B. The hunter.
C. The Friend. D. The grandfather.
55. What can we learn from the story
A. Never listen to your parents. B. Remember to be safe.
C. Wolves are big animals. D. Helping others is important.
E
A new study says about 630 million Chinese adults will be too heavy by 2050. That’s almost half of China! The government(政府) has a new plan to help people lose weight.
First, China will open special “weight clinics”. Doctors there will teach people how to eat healthy and exercise. Right now, over 400 million Chinese adults are overweight(超重). That’s more than in America and India together.
Being too heavy is unhealthy. It can make people sick with heart problems or high blood pressure. Big cities already have some weight clinics, but small towns need more help. Surprisingly, more people in villages put on weight since 2005.
Some bad ads sell “magic pills”(灵丹妙药) for losing weight fast. Doctors say these pills are dangerous. Now scientists are making safer pills to help people eat less.
________
● Hotels will put scales(体重秤) in rooms
● Schools will teach kids about healthy food
● Families should cook healthy meals
The government wants all Chinese people to be healthier together.
56. What will China do to help heavy people
A. Open more hospitals. B. Open weight clinics.
C. Build some parks. D. Build more schools.
57. How many Chinese adults are overweight now
A. Over 200 million. B. Over 400 million.
C. Over 500 million. D. Over 630 million.
58. Why are the “magic pills” bad
A. Because they are too big. B. Because they don’t work.
C. Because they are dangerous. D. Because they taste bad.
59. Which of the following sentence can be put in the ________ (下面哪个句子可以被放入 处?)
A. Weight clinics are important. B. Everyone can help with this plan.
C. There are many magic pills. D. More people put on weight.
V. 口语运用(每小题1分,共5分)
阅读下面对话,从方框内7个选项中选择5个恰当的句子完成此对话,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Mom: Li Xiang, 60
Li Xiang: I’m shopping for the school party.
Mom: What do you need to buy
Li Xiang: 61 What about this blue one
Mom: It’s great. 62
Li Xiang: It’s 65 yuan. 63
Mom: I don’t think you need it. You have some new shoes. Why not buy some snacks
Li Xiang: Good idea. But I don’t like the snacks in this online shop.
Mom: 64
(
what are you doing on the computer
How much is it
How about going to the shopping center this Sunday
Why do you buy it
Look at this pair of shoes.
Do you like it
I

m looking for a new T-shirt.
)Li Xiang: OK.
第Ⅱ卷(共55分)
Ⅵ. 任务型阅读(65-67小题,每小题2分,68小题3分,共9分)
阅读下文并回答问题。
Zhou Dong is a kind man in his hometown village. He was a worker in a big city. But, last year, he left his job and went back home to help villagers grow and sell oranges.
Many villagers in his hometown grew oranges. The oranges tasted good but didn’t sell well. Zhou wanted to help them. Last year, he went back with three of his friends and started an online shop. Zhou’s team worked hard to tell people about the delicious oranges, and shoppers could get the oranges in just one or two days through online shopping. People could buy them online and get them in one or two days. Soon, they sold out all the oranges.
But there was another problem for most orange gardens. Many orange farms lost too much water and good soil. Water and soil(土壤) are important to the taste of the oranges. To solve this problem, Zhou’s team helped change the water ways and improve the soil.
Zhou and his friends decided to stay and help bring more changes to their hometown.
65. Is Zhou Dong a kind man in his hometown village
66. What did many villagers grow in his hometown
67. What did Zhou Dong do to help the villagers
68. If you are Zhou Dong’s friend, what other things can you do to help the villagers
(at least 2 things)
Ⅶ. 完成句子(69-72小题,每空1分,73小题2分,共10分)
根据所给提示,完成句子.每空一词,含缩略词。
69. We are doing homework now.(改为否定句)
We ______ ______ homework now.
70. She is from China.(对划线部分提问)
______ ______ she from
71. How’s the weather(改为同义句)
______ the weather ______
72. 我长胖了。(完成译句)
I weight.
73. uniform, the, school, wear(连词成句)
______________________________.
Ⅷ. 选词填空(每空2分,共16分)
阅读短文,从方框中选择适当的词。(每空一词,每个单词限用一次)
(
went pick teachers
and
they friendly from market
)
Every Saturday afternoon, I go to the Farmer’s Market. It is at the back of the city park. Farmers come 74 the nearby farms . They 75 fresh fruit and vegetables early in the morning. They then drive them to the 76 and wait for people to shop.
Last Saturday I 77 to the Farmer’s Market again. It was very crowded. And it was like all the people in my community(社区) were there. I met some friends and 78 there. 79 all bought some fresh goods(商品). I bought some fruit and vegetables, too.
The farmers are busy and 80 . They provide us with fresh goods, 81 make the market a business center of our community.
Ⅸ. 书面表达。(共20分)
生活中总有一些特别的日子让我们成长。或许是一次有意义的志愿服务,或许是一次突破自我的尝试,又或许是一次感动人心的相遇。请以“My special day”为题,根据所给提示,写一篇英语短文,向校刊“Teenage Growth”栏目投稿。
要求:1. 80—120词;
2. 文中不能出现自己的姓名和所在学校的名称。
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