资源简介

2024-2025学年第二学期期末教学质量监测
七年级英语
注意事项：
1.本试卷共8页，总分120分，考试时间120分钟。
2.答卷前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。
3.所有答案均在答题卡上作答，在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前，请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”，按照“注意事项”的规定答题。
4.答选择题时，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。
5.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分）
第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语（共5题；每题1分，满分5分）
1. A. Yes, I did. B. No, thanks. C. No, I will.
2 A. I like it. B. I’m OK. C. I’m riding.
3. A. By watching TV. B. By doing exercise. C. By doing homework.
4. A. He hurt his arm. B. He is happy. C. He is awful.
5. A. OK. Thanks. B. No, I don’t. C. It doesn’t matter.
第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共13题；每题1分，满分13分）
6. How did the boy go to Beijing
A. B. C.
7. What does the girl’s brother like doing after school
A. B. C.
8. What is Tony’s first plan for the weekend
A. Seeing a movie. B. Visiting Disneyland. C. Watching a show.
9. When will Jenny sing on the stage
A. On Saturday morning. B. On Saturday afternoon. C. On Sunday evening.
10. Why was Tom late for school
A. Because he was ill. B. Because he got up late. C. Because he missed the early bus.
11. What did Tom worry about
A. His lesson. B. His clock. C. His bus,
12. Who is Bob
A. Li Ming’s cousin. B. Li Ming’s friend. C. Li Ming’s classmate.
13. What class is the girl’s sister in
A. Class 4, Grade 7. B. Class 5, Grade 7. C. Class 6, Grade 7.
14. What are the boy and the girl
A. Teachers. B. Students. C. Cousins.
15. What does Linda usually do on Saturday afternoon
A. She usually does her homework.
B. She usually plays the guitar.
C. She usually goes to the Center Zoo.
16. Why does Linda like the koala
A. Because it’s funny. B. Because it’s cute. C. Because it’s smart.
17. What can we get from the conversation
A. Mike likes the panda and the lion.
B. Mike likes the panda and the tiger.
C. Mike likes the panda but doesn’t like the lion.
18. How many kinds of animals are mentioned
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7题；每题1分，满分7分）
19. When does the restaurant have a special
A. On Tuesdays and Thursdays.
B. On Tuesdays and Fridays.
C. On Thursdays and Fridays.
20. Where is the sports hall
A. On North Road. B. On Long Street. C. Next to the police station.
21. What game can people watch in the sports hall on the 15th of this month
A. A baseball game. B. A football game. C. A basketball game.
22. When will they hold the sports meeting
A. On October 7. B. On October 11. C. On October 17.
23. What is David good at
A. Running. B. Jumping. C. Swimming.
24. When will the the boys’ 400-metre relay race start
A. At 8:30 on Friday. B. At 9:30 on Friday. C. At 9:30 on Saturday.
25. What will David take
A.A cup of tea. B. A bottle of water. C. Some apples.
第四节听短文填空（共5题；每题1分，满分5分）
Information Form
Activity a fire practice Day this 26.________
Start at 27.________ o’ clock
Get up from your 28.________
Must 29________ out of the building
Meet at the 30.________ behind the building
第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
You may think there is nothing but sand in the desert of the world. It’s not ___1___. In the ___2___ we can find small stones or even big ones. We can see hills, too. As there is ___3___ rain in the desert, most plants there need water. ___4___ we see some plant life there.
There is some water in some places in the desert. We ___5___ these places oases (绿洲). Sometimes the ___6___ comes from under the ground or the rivers running through the desert. In the oases, there are villages and towns. People ___7___ all kinds of crops (庄稼) in the fields there.
People also ___8___ outside the oases, but these people are not farmers. ___9___ have camels (骆驼), sheep, and other animals. The ___10___ eat the plants there and do not need much water.
1. A. bad B. true C. safe D. fair
2. A. sea B. river C. desert D. air
3. A. much B. more C. a few D. a little
4. A. Still B. Just C. Only D. However
5. A. make B. call C. know D. feel
6. A. rain B. water C. life D. plant
7. A. grow B. sell C. send D. find
8. A. sleep B. play C. live D. walk
9. A. We B. You C. They D. It
10. A. sheep B. camels C. farmers D. animals
第二节 短文填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。
Tom lives in the countryside. He ____11____ (have) a son and a daughter. ____12____ (he) son’s name is Bob and his daughter’s name is May. Tom has a big farm. There ____13____ (be) many apple trees on his farm. Tom has many apples. He often ____14____ (give) the apples to his ____15____ (neighbour). They are kind. They often help each ____16____. They are happy. Bob and May are in ____17____ same school. The school isn’t far away ____18____ their house. They always go to school on foot.
Later, some of his neighbours ____19____ (move) to the cities. There are banks, bookstores and schools there. They have much work ____20____ (do). ____21____ (they) lives are good. They have a ____22____ (color) life there. ____23____ the cost of living is high. And they can only ____24____ (live) in small apartments.
Tom doesn’t want ____25____ (move) to the city. He likes the fresh air and the quiet life in the countryside.
第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读A、B、C、D、四篇材料，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
After-school Activities
Are you interested in ball games Teacher: Mr. Brown Place: In the playground Time: Monday, 16:00-18:00 Age: Over 10 years old Would you like to be a dancer Teacher: Miss Miller Place: In the gym Time: Friday, 19:00-21:00 Age: Over 5 years old
Are you good at painting Teacher: Mr. Green Place: In the art room Time: Sunday, 8:00-10:00 Age: Over 4 years old, under 14 Do you enjoy playing chess Teacher: Mrs. Smith Place: In the library Time: Saturday, 15:30-18:00 Age: Over 6 years old, under 10
26. Cindy is interested in drawing pictures, so she can go to the________ on Sundays.
A. library B. art room C. gym D. playground
27. David is 11 years old and he likes playing tennis. Who can teach him
A Mr. Brown. B. Miss Miller. C. Mr. Green. D. Mrs. Smith.
28. Which of the following activities is NOT mentioned in the passage
A. Dancing. B. Singing. C. Painting. D. Ball games.
B
Dear Daniel,
Thank you very much for your gift. You are so sweet to remember my big day! I almost forgot it before your gift arrived. I can’t believe you made it yourself. It looks like something from a shop. With such a nice scarf, I won’t mind getting another year older. I feel very lucky to have you as my friend.
You say you want to know much about my life in China. Life here is wonderful. Chinese teachers and students are nice and friendly. They often help me with my study. Now my maths and Chinese are better. We have four classes in the morning from 8:00 to 11:30, and then we all go back home for lunch. There are three classes in the afternoon from 2:00 to 4:30. We can play games after school.
My dear friend, I miss you very much. Is everything OK Is there anything interesting
All the best!
Yours,
Anna
29. What is the gift for
A. For Anna’s birthday. B. For the life in America.
C. For the life in China. D. For Daniel’s birthday.
30. How long do students in China stay in school on weekdays
A. For six hours. B. For seven hours. C. For eight hours. D. For nine hours.
31. What can we know from the passage
A. Daniel bought the gift from a shop. B. Anna is studying in America now.
C. Anna feels lonely now. D. Anna’s teachers and classmates often help her.
C
We all have friends. Friends are just people we like to be with. It’s good to have a friend to talk and do things with. They don’t need to be the same as us, but they know us well. Sometimes, they even know what we think.
Friends are very important in our life. They can make our life interesting, give us advice (建议) and help us in difficult times. If we don’t have any friends, our life will be very boring.
In different times and places we need different kinds of friends. When we want to play sports we may need a friend to play with. When we’re not happy, we may need a friend to listen to our story. Someone says that people with friends live longer. Why It may be because they’re happier. Being happy helps them to have a good life.
A good way to make new friends is to go outside to do some activities with others. There we can learn new things, meet new people and then make new friends. But we shouldn’t forget our old friends! We can ask them to our birthday party every year.
32. How do people feel when they have friends to talk and do things with
A. Strong. B. Young. C. Busy. D. Happy.
33 How can we make new friends according to the passage
A. By doing some activities outside. B. By having birthday parties.
C. By forgetting old friends. D. By talking with others on the phone.
34. Which sentence can tell us the writer’s purpose (目的)
A. Old friends are the best. B. People need friends.
C. Try to make more friends. D. We need new friends, too.
35. Where is this passage probably from
A. A storybook. B. A book about travel. C. A book about life. D. A history book.
D
The situation of the endangered animals is a growing worry for the world. One such animal that is in danger is pandas. This black and white animal is the favourite of many people all over the world. However, there are fewer than 2,000 in the wild now.
The primary reason for the population of pandas getting smaller is the loss of their natural homes. With the increase (增加) of population, people use more and more pandas’ natural homes. This has resulted in the breaking up of the pandas’ homes. Another important danger to pandas is hunting. Some people continue to hunt them for their body parts.
To protect pandas, it is important to take action quickly. The government and protection groups must work together to protect the few homes of pandas. The government should also make stricter rules to stop hunting. As for us, we can also do something to help protect pandas. For example, we can help protect pandas by joining groups to keep them safe.
All in all, pandas are in danger now, so we should try our best to keep this kind of beautiful animal thriving in the wild. I hope that we can see more and more pandas in the future.
36. How does the writer start the passage
A. By telling a story. B. By giving an example. C. By asking a question. D. By showing a fact.
37. What is Paragraph 2 mainly about
A. Dangerous situations of pandas. B. Living habits of pandas.
C. Reasons for the losing of panda population. D. Meaning of protecting pandas.
38. According to the passage, what are the ways to protect pandas
① protecting their living places ② making stricter rules
③ joining animal protection groups ④ hunting animals
A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ①③④ D. ②③④
39. What does the underlined word “thriving” in the last paragraph mean
A. Appearing. B. Growing. C. Staying. D. Climbing.
40. Where can you most probably read the passage
A. In a notice board. B. In a health book. C. In a nature magazine. D. In a planting guide.
第二节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，简略回答问题。
Paper Cutting
Paper cutting is one of China’s most popular traditional folk arts. Chinese paper cutting has a history of more than 1500 years.
It was widespread particularly during the Ming and Qing dynasties. People often beautify (美化) their homes with paper cuttings when they celebrate something happy, especially for the Spring Festival. More and more people are interested in it.
However, many traditional arts are losing nowadays, because some of them have been replaced by new machines and specific products.
I feel so sorry about the losing arts. In my opinion, they are so classic and their charm will never fade away. Take my grandma for example.
She is good at paper cutting which was inherited from her mother. But when it comes to my mother’s generation, paper cutting seems to be kicked out. Fewer people need it, so my mother doesn’t learn this skill. The paper cutting is losing in my family.
When I found my grandma had this skill, I was so surprised and curious about it. I asked my grandma to teach me this skill.
During the progress, I found this art was so great. I was attracted by it. I think some traditional arts like paper cutting should be kept.
41. When was paper cutting widespread
__________________________________________________________________
42. How do people often celebrate happy things with paper cuttings
__________________________________________________________________
43. What are many traditional arts replaced by nowadays
__________________________________________________________________
44. Why doesn’t the writer’s mother learn paper cutting
__________________________________________________________________
45. (开放题) Do you think paper cutting should be kept Why or why not
__________________________________________________________________
第四部分 情景交际（满分10分）
补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据下面的对话情景，在空白处填入一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Hi, Mike. _______46_______
B: Oh, I’m writing something about my last weekend trip.
A: Your last weekend trip _______47_______
B: I went to Henan Museum. I learned a lot about Henan.
A: That must be interesting. _______48_______
B: It was sunny. We had a great fun.
A: Well, we are going to the old people’s home this afternoon. _______49_______
B: Sure, I’d love to. How can we get there
A: _______50_______.
B: OK. See you then.
A: See you.
第五部分 写作（满分15分）
书面表达
51. 在我们的日常生活中，养成健康的饮食习惯是非常重要的。某英文网站正在开展以“健康饮食”为主题的征文活动。假如你是李华，请用英语写一篇短文投稿，谈谈你的饮食习惯，你对于健康饮食的看法以及养成健康饮食习惯的方法。
提示问题：
What do you think of healthy eating
What do you usually eat Why
How can we have a healthy eating habit
写作要求：
(1)文中不得出现考生的真实姓名和学校名称；
(2)词数80左右(开头已给出，不计入总词数)。
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024-2025学年第二学期期末教学质量监测
七年级英语
注意事项：
1.本试卷共8页，总分120分，考试时间120分钟。
2.答卷前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。
3.所有答案均在答题卡上作答，在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前，请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”，按照“注意事项”的规定答题。
4.答选择题时，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。
5.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分）
第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语（共5题；每题1分，满分5分）
1. A. Yes, I did. B. No, thanks. C. No, I will.
2. A. I like it. B. I’m OK. C. I’m riding.
3. A. By watching TV. B. By doing exercise. C. By doing homework.
4. A. He hurt his arm. B. He is happy. C. He is awful.
5. A. OK. Thanks. B. No, I don’t. C. It doesn’t matter.
第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共13题；每题1分，满分13分）
6. How did the boy go to Beijing
A. B. C.
7. What does the girl’s brother like doing after school
A. B. C.
8. What is Tony’s first plan for the weekend
A. Seeing a movie. B. Visiting Disneyland. C. Watching a show.
9. When will Jenny sing on the stage
A. On Saturday morning. B. On Saturday afternoon. C. On Sunday evening.
10. Why was Tom late for school
A. Because he was ill. B. Because he got up late. C. Because he missed the early bus.
11. What did Tom worry about
A. His lesson. B. His clock. C. His bus,
12. Who is Bob
A. Li Ming’s cousin. B. Li Ming’s friend. C. Li Ming’s classmate.
13. What class is the girl’s sister in
A. Class 4, Grade 7. B. Class 5, Grade 7. C. Class 6, Grade 7.
14. What are the boy and the girl
A. Teachers. B. Students. C. Cousins.
15. What does Linda usually do on Saturday afternoon
A. She usually does her homework.
B. She usually plays the guitar.
C. She usually goes to the Center Zoo.
16. Why does Linda like the koala
A. Because it’s funny. B. Because it’s cute. C. Because it’s smart.
17. What can we get from the conversation
A. Mike likes the panda and the lion.
B. Mike likes the panda and the tiger.
C. Mike likes the panda but doesn’t like the lion.
18. How many kinds of animals are mentioned
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7题；每题1分，满分7分）
19. When does the restaurant have a special
A. On Tuesdays and Thursdays.
B. On Tuesdays and Fridays.
C. On Thursdays and Fridays.
20. Where is the sports hall
A. On North Road. B. On Long Street. C. Next to the police station.
21. What game can people watch in the sports hall on the 15th of this month
A A baseball game. B. A football game. C. A basketball game.
22. When will they hold the sports meeting
A. On October 7. B. On October 11. C. On October 17.
23. What is David good at
A. Running. B. Jumping. C. Swimming.
24. When will the the boys’ 400-metre relay race start
A. At 8:30 on Friday. B. At 9:30 on Friday. C. At 9:30 on Saturday.
25. What will David take
A.A cup of tea. B. A bottle of water. C. Some apples.
第四节听短文填空（共5题；每题1分，满分5分）
Information Form
Activity a fire practice Day this 26.________
Start at 27.________ o’ clock
Get up from your 28.________
Must 29.________ out of the building
Meet at the 30.________ behind the building
第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
【1~10题答案】
【答案】1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. D
第二节 短文填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
【11~25题答案】
【答案】11. has
12. His 13. are
14. gives 15. neighbours
16. other 17. the
18. from 19. move
20. to do 21. Their
22. colorful
23. But 24. live
25. to move
第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读A、B、C、D、四篇材料，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【26~28题答案】
【答案】26. B 27. A 28. B
B
【29~31题答案】
【答案】29. A 30. A 31. D
C
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32. D 33. A 34. B 35. C
D
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. D 37. C 38. A 39. B 40. C
第二节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
【41~45题答案】
【答案】41. During the Ming and Qing dynasties.
42. By beautifying their homes with paper cuttings.
43. New machines and specific products.
44. Because fewer people need it.
45. Yes, because paper cuttings can beautify our homes. /No, because fewer people need it now. (答案合理即可)
第四部分 情景交际（满分10分）
补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
【46~50题答案】
【答案】46. What are you doing
47. Where did you go/ Which place did you visit
48. What was the weather like (there)/ How was the weather (there)
49. Would you like to go with us/ Would you like to join us
50. We can go there by bus/ We can take a bus there/ By bus (合理交通方式均可)
第五部分 写作（满分15分）
书面表达
【51题答案】
【答案】例文
Healthy eating habits are important for our daily life. I think healthy eating means choosing different kinds of food to give us energy and keep us strong.
I usually eat vegetables, fruits, fish and rice. Vegetables and fruits provide vitamins, while fish offers protein. I avoid junk food because it’s unhealthy.
To form healthy eating habits, we should eat more fresh food and less sugar. Drinking enough water and having meals on time are also important. Let’s start today!

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