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2025-2026学年第一学期八年级期中测试卷
英语
(考试时间：100分钟 满分：100分)
一 、听力部分(共20分)
A 听句子选图画。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
看图听句子，选出与句子意思一致的图画。
A． B． C． D． E.
1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5._______
B.情景反应（本题共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
A．I went to Beijing. B．Yes, I did. C．Yes, I was.
A．It was exciting. B．I went there by plane. C．I bought some gifts.
A．On Sunday. B．One hour. C．Every day.
A．Yes, she is. B．No, she doesn’t. C．Tina is taller.
A．You are joking. B．Of course not. C．Thank you.
C.对话理解（本题共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听对话，回答两个小题。
11．Where did Aron go on his vacation
A．To a city. B．To the countryside. C．To a park.
12．What did he do there
A．Rode a bike. B．Fed some ducks. C．Milked a cow.
听对话，回答三个小题。
13．Where is Dumpling House
A．On the left of the school. B．On the right of the school. C．Far from Nancy’s home.
14．Which restaurant is the most expensive
A．Dumpling House. B．Shanxi Restaurant. C．Sichuan Food Restaurant.
15．Which restaurant has the best service
A．Dumpling House. B．Shanxi Restaurant. C．Sichuan Food Restaurant.
D.短文理解（本题共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
16．What does Laura like doing
A．Flying kites. B．Watching movies. C．Going shopping.
17．How often does Laura go to the cinema
A．Once a week. B．Twice a week. C．Twice a month.
18．What does Laura do when she feels sad
A．Watch a comedy. B．Watch a cartoon. C．Watch an action movie.
19．What does Laura think of soap operas
A．Interesting. B．Relaxing. C．Boring.
20．What does Laura want to watch with her friends sometimes
A．Scary movies. B．Comedies. C．Cartoons.
笔试部分(共80分)
二、完形填空。（本小题共10题，每题1分，共10分）
Last summer vacation, I went to my grandparents’ village with my family. The village was small but very beautiful. Every morning, I 21 up early to enjoy the fresh air. The birds always sang loudly in the trees.
One day, my grandpa took me to a small river near the village. We 22 fishing there. At first, I couldn’t catch any fish. I felt a little sad. But grandpa told me to be patient. After an hour, I finally caught a small fish. I was so 23 ! We cooked the fish for dinner that evening. It tasted really 24 .
On weekends, I often played games with the village kids. They taught me how to 25 kites. We ran on the grass and laughed a lot. Sometimes, we helped grandma feed the chickens. It was a 26 experience for me.
Before we left, I took many photos of the village. I wanted to 27 this great vacation forever. Now, when I look at those photos, I always 28 the happy days there. I hope I can go back to the village 29 summer. It was one of the most wonderful 30 in my life.
21．A．got B．asked C．stood
22．A．made B．did C．went
23．A．angry B．bored C．excited
24．A．delicious B．terrible C．expensive
25．A．fly B．buy C．sell
26．A．bad B．boring C．great
27．A．forget B．remember C．miss
28．A．think of B．look for C．talk about
29．A．last B．next C．this
30．A．stories B．books C．Trips
阅读理解。阅读并从所给选项中选出最佳选项（共15小题，每小题2分，共计30分〕
A
12th May Sunday
It’s Mother’s Day today. In the morning, my brother and I woke up early and cooked breakfast for Mum. This doesn’t happen often.
I only knew how to cook eggs. That was enough for breakfast! I cut up some bananas and apples, and then my brother put them together with eggs and bread in a dish. After that we made tea. Finally, we got the meal ready!
The tea was too sweet and the eggs were a little burned. The meal wasn’t perfect, but Mum ate all of it with a smile. My brother and I also made a card together. Mum read it and said, “ It’s beautiful. Thank you so much. I love you two!” “I love you, Mum.” we said. I felt warm and happy.
根据短文内容，判断句子正(T)、误(F)。
31．The writer and his brother cooked breakfast for Mum every day.
32．The meal included (包括) eggs, bread, bananas, apples and tea.
33．Although the meal wasn’t perfect, Mum still enjoyed it.
34．The writer made a card for Mum alone (单独) and she loved it very much.
35．It was a day full of love for them.
B
Last month, I went back to my hometown with my parents. My hometown is a small town in the north of China. I hadn’t been there for three years, so I was very excited.
We took a train to get there. The train ride was about 5 hours. When we arrived, my uncle came to meet us. He drove us to his house. His house is bigger than before — now it has a small garden. My aunt cooked a big dinner for us. We ate dumplings, fish and vegetables. All the food was my favorite.
The next day, we visited the town center. There are many new shops and restaurants now. I also went to my old primary school. It looked different too — there is a new playground and a library. I met my old teacher, Ms. Li. She still remembered my name, which made me very happy.
On the third day, we went to a park near the town. We walked by the lake and flew kites. The weather was sunny and warm. We took many photos there. Before we left, my uncle gave us some fresh fruit from his garden. I felt a little sad to say goodbye, but I know I will come back soon. This trip made me miss my hometown even more.
根据短文内容，选择最佳答案。
36．How did the writer go to his hometown
A．By car. B．By train. C．By bus. D．By plane.
37．How long had the writer not been to his hometown
A．For one year. B．For two years. C．For three years. D．For four years.
38．What did the writer’s aunt cook for dinner
A．Dumplings, fish and vegetables. B．Rice, chicken and noodles.
C．Bread, eggs and milk. D．Hamburgers and chips.
39．What’s new in the writer’s old primary school
A．A new house. B．A new garden.
C．A new playground and library. D．A new shop.
40．How did the writer feel when he left his hometown
A．Happy. B．Sad. C．Angry. D．Bored.
C
Vanilla is my best friend. She is a lovely girl with two big, beautiful eyes. But she always hides (隐藏) them behind a pair of black glasses.
One day, though, I nearly ended our friendship. I remember that day clearly. We were sitting in class. The teacher was giving us our results for a Chinese test. I did it badly. I felt so sad that I wouldn’t talk to anyone. At lunchtime, I even stayed in the classroom on my own. Suddenly, I heard a voice. It was Vanilla. “You look very unhappy.” she said. “What’s wrong ” I looked up at her, but said nothing. I knew Vanilla had got a good mark in the test. I thought she was teasing me. I said nothing, but Vanilla didn’t go away. She kept asking me questions, “Is it because of the exam Do you want me to show you the right answers ” I looked away from her. When I looked up again, Vanilla had gone. And so had my exam paper! I didn’t know what to do. I looked everywhere for my paper, but I couldn’t find it.
In the afternoon, Vanilla came up to my desk and gave me my exam paper back. I looked at it and got a big surprise. Vanilla wrote the right answer next to every one of my mistakes. My face went red. Vanilla tried to help me all along. How mean (刻薄的) I was to her when she was being so nice. I wanted to hug (拥抱) her, but all I did was to hold her hands and say, “Thank you.” That afternoon, Vanilla and I walked home together. I felt so happy that I had to thank her again. We were still best friends.
41．Why did the writer feel sad
A．Because she got a good mark. B．Because the teacher was angry with her.
C．Because she didn’t have a high mark. D．Because Vanilla had done better than her.
42．Why did Vanilla come to the writer
A．To help her. B．To make fun of her.
C．To show her the right answers. D．To find out what had happened to her.
43．Why did Vanilla leave the writer
A．Because she was angry with the writer.
B．Because she wanted to go home for lunch.
C．Because she didn’t know what to do to help the writer.
D．Because she wanted to write the right answers for the writer.
44．What does the underlined word “teasing” mean
A．Laughing at. B．Looking after. C．Saying “hello” to. D．Seeing sb off.
45．What’s the best title of the passage
A．A bad mark B．A true friend C．A sad day D．A warm hug
补全对话（本题共5小题，每题2分，共计 10分〕
从下面的方框中选择合适的句子，填到横线上，使对话意思完整。其中有一项是多余的。
A: Hi, Tina! Do you know Kate
B: Yes, I do. 46 She and Linda go to the same school, but they are in different classes.
A: 47
B: Very outgoing.
A: 48
B: Yes, and she’s also funnier than Linda.
A: You know a lot about her. 49
B: Two years ago. I met her at Linda’s party. Why do you ask about her
A: 50 So I want to know about her.
B: She is good at playing the guitar, the same as you.
A: Yeah! But I think she plays better than me.
A．Is she more outgoing than Linda
B．She is my friend.
C．Yesterday she joined our club.
D．What is she like
E．Is she as tall as Linda
F．When did you meet her
五、读写题。(共10分)
World Health Day is on the seventh of April every year. We have this day to help people pay attention to (关注) their bodies. It’s good to have a healthy body. Do you want to know how to be healthy Here are some good ways.
★ We need to have good eating habits. To be healthy, we must eat well and watch the food we eat. Is your food healthy Food in colors like red, green, orange, yellow and purple is good for us. To be healthy, we need to eat food in these colors.
★ We also need to do sports. It is good for us to play sports if we want to be healthy. So, to be healthy, we need to go out and play sports.
★ We need to be happy. Being happy can make us healthy, too. Let’s try our best to have a good time every day.
阅读短文，根据语篇内容，在方框内的缩写文章中，填入与短文意思最符合的单词，每空一词。（共6题，每小题1分，共6分）
1 about How to be Healthy.
★ Have good 2 habits We must eat well and eat food in 3 like red, green, orange, yellow and purple that is good for us.
★ Do 4 If you want to be 5 , you need to play sports and go out.
★ Be 6 We need to have fun every day.
第二节 阅读短文，根据语篇内容，回答下面2个问题。（共2题，每小题2分，共4分）
7. When is the World Health Day
8. How many ways does the writer mention (提及) in the passage
六、语法填空题。(共10分)
阅读下面短文，用括号内所给单词的适当形式填空。（共10题，每小题1分，共10分）
difference much club as prize loudly so come play stand
My name’s Bruce. I am outgoing, so I have a lot of friends. I always think they are important in my life.
Tony is one of my best friends. He is very outgoing, too. But I’m 1 outgoing than him. Sometimes we talk with each other happily. We make each other laugh 2 . He has the same hobbies 3 me. We both like 4 sports. After class we often play basketball for half an hour. I play basketball worse than him, 5 he often teaches me carefully. Now I'm better at basketball.
We also like music. We go to the music 6 twice a week. There we learn many music skills. Last month Tony got the first 7 in a singing competition(比赛).
Of course, we also have some 8 . For example, he does better in maths. But I think maths is too difficult. I can’t 9 it.
Last year, he often 10 to my home to help me with my maths. Finally I made great progress. He is my best friend, and he gives me something interesting in my life.
七、书面表达.(共10分)
你是李华，你们学校正在开展 “劳动之星” 的评选活动。参选者需要分享自己在假期里的劳动经历。现在请你结合自己的劳动情况写一篇英文稿件，介绍你的一次劳动经历及感受。
时间 上周日
劳动经历 上午：整理床铺，浇花，遛狗 中午：帮妈妈做饭，洗碗 下午：和爸爸一起扫地，洗衣服
感受 累但很快乐； 让家变得干净，整洁和舒适； 表达了对父母的爱
要求：
1. 必须包含以上内容提示，可适当增加细节；
2. 词数80左右。开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Hi, everyone, today I will share a labor experience I had during the vacation.
八年级英语 参考答案及赋分标准
听力部分(共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分)
1-5 DABCE 6-10 BACAC 11-15 BCBBC 16-20 BCBCA
二、完形填空。（本小题共10题，每题1分，共10分）
21-25 ACCAA 26-30．CBABC
三、阅读理解。（共15小题，每小题2分，共计30分〕
31-35 FTTFT 36-40 BCACB 41-45 CADAB
四、补全对话（本题共5小题，每题2分，共计 10分〕
46-50 BDAFC
读写题。(共10分)
第一节（共6题，每小题1分，共6分）（首字母大小写有误不得分）
Ways 2．eating 3．colors 4．sports/exercise 5．healthy 6．happy
第二节 （共2题，每小题2分，共4分）（首字母大小写有误扣1分）
On the seventh of April every year.
3/Three.
六、语法填空题。（共10题，每小题1分，共10分）
1．more 2．loudly 3．as 4．playing 5．so 6．club 7．prize 8．differences 9．stand 10．came
七、书面表达。(共10分)
例文：
Hi, everyone, today I will share with you a labor experience I had during the vacation. Last Sunday, I had a busy but meaningful day. In the morning, I made the bed. Then I watered the flowers. They looked more beautiful. After that, I walked my dog. At noon, I helped my mom cook delicious food. After lunch, I washed the dishes. In the afternoon, I swept the floor with my dad. Later, I also washed clothes. I felt tired but really happy. Through these chores, our home became clean, tidy and comfortable. What’s more, I showed my love to my parents by doing these things.
书面表达赋分标准：
评分原则

以“内容完整性、语言准确性、表达流畅度”为核心，按“基础达标-良好规范-优秀出彩”三个层级梯度赋分，既保证对题目要求的严格落实，也鼓励合理的细节拓展与语言亮点。

二、具体评分标准（按10分制划分）

（一）9-10分（优秀）

1. 内容（5分）：完整覆盖题目所有提示信息（上周日上午/中午/下午的劳动经历、3点核心感受），且增加的细节合理丰富（如“遛狗时带小狗去小区花园”“帮妈妈切菜、炒了番茄炒蛋”），内容逻辑清晰，与“劳动之星”参选主题高度契合。
2. 语言（3分）：语法、单词拼写、时态（以一般过去时为主）零错误；句式多样（包含简单句、并列句或基础复合句，如用“After that...”“While...”连接动作）；用词准确且有亮点（如用“tidy up the bed”替代“make the bed”，“express my love to”替代“show love to”）。
3. 规范（2分）：词数控制在75-80词，符合要求；严格使用给定开头，书写格式规范，无涂改痕迹。

（二）7-8分（良好）

1. 内容（4分）：包含题目所有提示信息，无遗漏；可增加1-2处简单细节（如“浇了阳台上的月季”“洗了全家人的衣服”），内容逻辑连贯，紧扣主题。
2. 语言（2分）：语法、拼写、时态仅有1-2处轻微错误（不影响理解，如名词单复数、动词过去式变形小失误）；以简单句为主，表达基本通顺，用词准确但无明显亮点。
3. 规范（2分）：词数在60-70词范围内；正确使用给定开头，格式规范。

（三）5-6分（合格）

1. 内容（3分）：基本包含题目提示信息，但存在1处关键信息缺失（如漏写“下午和爸爸扫地”或“表达对父母的爱”这一感受）；未增加细节，内容较单薄，逻辑基本清晰。
2. 语言（1分）：语法、拼写、时态错误较多（3-4处，如时态混用、主谓不一致），部分句子表达稍显生硬，但不影响整体理解；用词简单，句式单一。
3. 规范（1分）：词数偏离要求（50词以下）；正确使用给定开头，格式无明显问题。

（四）3-4分（待提高）

1. 内容（2分）：仅包含部分提示信息（如只写了上午和中午的劳动，漏写下午经历或2点以上感受）；内容零散，逻辑稍显混乱，与主题关联度一般。
2. 语言（1分）：语法、拼写错误多（5处及以上），部分句子表意模糊（如“Yesterday I do housework”）；用词错误较多，影响理解。
3. 规范（0-1分）：词数严重偏离要求；未使用给定开头或格式不规范（如段落混乱）。

（五）0-2分（不合格）

1. 内容（0-1分）：未提及题目核心提示信息（如未写具体劳动经历或感受）；内容与“劳动之星”主题无关（如写假期旅游经历）。
2. 语言（0分）：语法、拼写错误密集，句子基本无法理解；大量单词错误或使用中文表达。
注意：批阅作文前请仔细看完试卷上的阅读理解原文。学生抄阅读的最多给2分（抄的字数够，并且书写工整）只抄一半或者书写差的只给1分。

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