资源简介

2025年10月高三联考
英语
本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. What does “L” stand for in the form
A. Late. B. Left. C. Lost.
2. What feature does the new computer have
A. Cheaper price. B. Faster CD-ROM speed. C. Larger storage capacity.
3. What is the man currently interested in
A. Colorful habitats. B. Dry environments. C. Marine ecosystems.
4. Why does the woman refuse to eat at 2:00 p.m.
A. She has a meeting. B. It’s too late for lunch. C. She dislikes sandwiches.
5. What was the student’s main problem in the homework
A. Tense mistakes. B. Vocabulary errors. C. Poor sentence structures.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
6. What problem does the man face in his presentation
A. Lack of time. B. Outdated data. C. Unclear structure.
7. What suggestion does the woman give about laws
A. Ignore their relevance.
B. Criticize their limitations.
C. Mention their impact on air quality.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
8. What is the main activity of the cultural exchange club
A. Organizing trips to foreign countries.
B. Focusing mainly on learning foreign languages.
C. Hosting events for students to share traditions and discuss global issues.
9. Which club event is the woman’s favorite
A. The cultural nights. B. The guest speaker series. C. The international food fair.
10. Why is the club valuable for the woman
A. It fits her career goal. B. It will improve her grades. C. It can broaden her mind.
下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
11. Why is Rachel upset
A. She lost her job. B. She had an accident. C. She failed an exam.
12. What was Rachel’s previous job
A. A lawyer. B. A teacher. C. A doctor.
13. How might the man help Rachel
A. Lend her money. B. Contact his friend. C. Offer legal advice.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
14. What is the man’s favorite holiday
A. The summer festival. B. Easter. C. Christmas.
15. How do the woman’s family celebrate holidays
A. By buying expensive gifts.
B. By making handmade gifts.
C. By avoiding celebrations.
16. What is the man’s favorite part of the summer festival
A. The barbecue party. B. Swimming in the pool. C. Watching the parade.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。
17. What did the woman do when her son was eight weeks old
A. She flew to Florida to see her best friend.
B. She stayed in Boston to care for her baby.
C. She drove to New York for a career meeting.
18. Why was the trip to Florida mentioned
A. To prove traveling with a child hard.
B. To show unexpected support from strangers.
C. To show the greater challenges she faced there.
19. How did the woman manage her meeting in New York
A. She left her son at home with relatives.
B. She asked a college friend to watch her son.
C. She brought her son into the meeting room.
20. What conclusion did the woman draw from her experiences
A. Strangers are ready to help.
B. Traveling with a baby is easy.
C. Mothers with a child should not travel.
二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
The end of summer is near, and the transition of seasons brings cooler temperatures, colorful leaves and cozy atmospheres. Every fall, travelers flock to natural landscapes around the country to immerse themselves in the warm, vibrant colors of the leaves—a popular activity known as leaf peeping. Here are some of the best domestic destinations for leaf peeping.
Hudson Valley, New York
Just a quick escape from New York City, Hudson Valley is ranked as the top destination for leaf peeping in 2025. Travelers can explore numerous parks and preserves to take in the shades of autumn, from Croton Gorge Park to Walkway Over the Hudson State Historic Park.
Boulder, Colorado
Boulder’s natural landscapes draw in travelers from all over the country, and one of the most famous leaf peeping activities is to drive on the Peak to Peak Scenic Byway (偏僻小路) for 55 miles (1mile≈l.6 km) of colors.
Snoqualmie Valley, Washington
Leaf peeping in Snoqualmie Valley is abundant, with scenic hiking and biking trails, like those on Mount Rainier. People can also make a day trip out of a scenic drive, such as exploring the Olympic Peninsula. Throughout the year, Snoqualmie Valley is stunning, but the forests become truly vibrant in the fall. Travelers can hike to waterfalls or go on romantic horseback rides to experience the fall colors.
Bucks County, Pennsylvania
Last year, Bucks County earned the top spot on the leaf peeping list. About an hour away from Philadelphia, Bucks County offers hot air balloon rides and drives over picturesque historic bridges. It is a hiker’s heaven, with trails winding through the famous Tyler State Park. In the fall, these colors come even more alive.
21. What is special about Hudson Valley
A. It offers balloon rides. B. It has trails to waterfalls.
C. It owns beautiful historic bridges. D. It has many parks and preserves.
22. How can visitors enjoy the fall in Snoqualmie Valley
A. By taking a balloon ride. B. By driving on a scenic small path.
C. By riding horses through forests. D. By exploring the Tyler State Park.
23. Why is Bucks County attractive for leaf peeping
A. It ranks first again this year.
B. It is located near Mount Rainier.
C. It is the closest spot to New York City.
D. It combines hiking trails with colorful views.
B
Silver Spring, Maryland, is home to many people who have moved there from other countries. A retired local resident named Manuel Vera wanted to do something helpful for his neighbors. He first offered to repair bicycles for free, asking only to be paid back for any new part he needed. Soon, he realized that many families had extra bikes sitting unused in their garages. Vera began collecting these bikes and fixing them in his small but well-equipped backyard shed.
This came at a time when many new families were arriving in Silver Spring and needed inexpensive ways to travel around the community. Vera started bringing the repaired bikes to parks, community centers, and apartment complexes. With a sign reading “Free Bikes”, he matched people with the perfect ride. At his very first giveaway, six bikes were taken in less than 30 minutes.
Word quickly spread. Neighbors now call him the “Bike Dude” and regularly donate bikes, helmets, and locks. Local markets and online community groups also help gather supplies, keeping Vera busy.
Vera works closely with community organizations that support new families. These groups give him details like a person’s height and age so he can deliver a bike that fits. Vera, who moved to the United States from Peru when he was 14, understands how hard it can be to start over in a new place. He remembers one man who needed a way to get to his night job, so Vera provided a bike, a helmet, lights, and safety gear.
Community organizer Manizha Azizi spoke highly of Vera’s efforts: “Many people want to help, but Manuel takes care of everything.” So far, more than 700 people in Silver Spring have received free bikes, giving them transportation, independence, and happiness. Vera’s kindness has turned unused bikes into valuable tools for building new lives, showing how one person’s generosity can keep an entire community moving forward.
24. Which is closest in meaning to the underlined word “shed” in paragraph 1
A. A small room inside a house for guests.
B. A large shop that sells bicycles and gear.
C. A place where people gather to ride bikes.
D. A small building used for storage or work.
25. What did Vera do at his very first free bike event
A. He bought six new bikes from a local market.
B. He sold six bikes to raise money for safety gear.
C. He taught six neighbors how to repair their bikes.
D. He gave away six bikes in less than half an hour.
26. Why does Vera ask for riders’ height and age before delivering a bike
A. To make sure each bike fits the rider well.
B. To test if riders already know how to ride a bike.
C. To keep a record of people who receive free bikes.
D. To decide how much money to charge for each bike.
27. Which of the following could be the best title for the passage
A. A Hobby Just for Kids’ Fun B. Helping Newcomers Start Over
C. Free Bikes, a Stronger Community D. Ending All Transportation Problems
C
It may sound surprising, but doing short bursts of exercise several times a day can greatly benefit your health. These short activities are known as “exercise snacks”. An exercise snack can last from just 30 seconds to five or ten minutes and includes almost any kind of movement — such as climbing stairs, walking, doing sit-ups, or even dancing.
Studies have shown that doing exercise snacks three times a day, each lasting 15 to 30 seconds, can improve heart and lung functions in people who usually don’t exercise. Inactive adults who added just 3.4 to 3.6 minutes of intense physical activity per day saw a 17% to 18% drop in their risk of cancer. Exercise also benefits the brain. Doing even a small amount of moderate to intense activity every day, or adding a bit more to your routine, can reduce the risk of dementia—especially for those who were previously inactive.
The key to building this healthy habit is to connect it to a daily routine. For example, if you brush your teeth first thing in the morning, you can do a few jumping jacks (开合跳) or push-ups right afterward. “When you build exercise snacks into a habit, they start to become deep-seated, and you’ll begin to see their lifelong benefits,” experts say.
Walking is one of the easiest exercise snacks. But don’t just rely on walking. Wall push-ups can help build arm strength, while jumping jacks can strengthen your legs. Want to climb stairs without getting tired Try walking up and down the stairs a bit faster than usual.
There’s an exercise snack for every part of your body. And when a movement becomes easy, you can make it harder. For example, wall push-ups can lead to floor push-ups, and jumping jacks can turn into burpees (波比跳). A slow walk can become a light jog. The possibilities are simple, and the results can be powerful.
28. What is the main purpose of the first paragraph
A. To show how to make exercise a daily routine.
B. To prove that exercise snacks can prevent dementia.
C. To define exercise snacks and give simple examples.
D. To explain that exercise snacks are long workouts done in the gym.
29. What do studies mainly show about exercise snacks
A. Intense bursts boost health and cut the risk of disease.
B. Walking every day can fully prevent cancer.
C. Exercise snacks will harm the brain if people are inactive.
D. Exercise snacks need to last at least half an hour to work.
30. How can people successfully make exercise snacks a habit
A. By exercising when they feel tired.
B. By linking them to regular daily actions.
C. By doing them once a week after dinner.
D. By replacing brushing teeth with workouts.
31. What do the last two paragraphs mainly emphasize
A. Exercise snacks are useful for arm strength.
B. Walking is an effective form of exercise snack.
C. Easy movements can become harder ones over time.
D. Jumping jacks and push-ups should never be changed.
D
Did you know that long ago, Singapore was full of wetlands, lakes, and small villages Even today, animals like wild pigs, monkeys, and snakes sometimes enter cities looking for food and shelter. This can be dangerous for them, especially on busy roads.
Singapore wants to become a “City in Nature” by 2030. The city is finding ways to protect natural spaces. Scientists are creating solutions to help wildlife live safely alongside people. STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics) is key to these ideas.
Animals often cross highways and risk being hit by cars. Experts use technology like cameras and sound devices to study animal movement and decide where to build safe crossings. In 2019, the Mandai Wildlife Group (MWG) built a 140-meter-long bridge over a highway just for animals. Cameras showed that over 100 species used it. MWG also built fences to guide animals and rope bridges to help those living in trees move safely.
Singapore is also teaching communities how to keep animals safe. The Animal Concerns Research and Education Society (ACRES) receives over 1000 calls each month to rescue wild animals in cities. “Often, we teach people how to handle the situation themselves,” said Karina Lim from ACRES. “This helps them feel more confident and respect animals more.” Wildlife expert Kiran Sujanani added, “Wild animals are usually shy and scared. If we give them space, they will often leave on their own.”
To live together peacefully, people need to understand why animals come near them and how they behave. Animal welfare groups advise people to do their part to avoid attracting wildlife to their homes. This includes not carrying visible plastic bags in areas with monkeys and storing waste properly. Education is the first step toward change. As one expert said, “Harmony begins with respect.” By learning about animals and respecting their homes, everyone can help protect them. Singapore’s journey shows that with community effort and STEM, people and wildlife can share spaces peacefully.
32. How is STEM primarily used to protect wildlife in Singapore
A. By building more roads and bridges.
B. By planning more natural parks for animals.
C. By using cameras and devices to frighten animals.
D. By researching animals and creating secure passages.
33. What can be inferred about ACRES’s work from the text
A. It wants to move all wild animals out of the city.
B. It encourages people to keep wild animals as pets.
C. It mainly focuses on finding new homes for wild animals.
D. It believes people should learn to deal with wildlife properly.
34. What is one suggested way to avoid attracting wildlife to residential areas
A. Making loud noises to scare animals away.
B. Feeding animals regularly to keep them calm.
C. Storing waste properly and keeping plastic bags out of sight.
D. Building higher fences and setting barriers around homes.
35. What is the main purpose of the passage
A. To discuss the dangers wild animals face in cities.
B. To explain how STEM helps humans and wildlife coexist.
C. To encourage readers to visit the natural parks in Singapore.
D. To introduce the history of wildlife conservation in Singapore.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Conflict is healthy and normal. There’s no need to avoid it. However, many of us have never learned how to manage it well. ____36____.
Listen: ____37____. This involves actively listening to someone and then repeating back in your own words what you heard. When both parties feel heard, healing can happen without each side needing to agree with the other.
Balance the positive and the negative: When you have an issue with someone, you don’t only want to talk about the negative. ____38____. It’s like saying: I love this, this, this and this about you, but when you do this, it really hurts me. Speaking this way not only makes it easier for the listener to take criticism, but also encourages the speaker to communicate their position in a healthy and loving way.
____39____: Even when everyone involved has an open mind and the best intentions, conflict is challenging, and it’s easy to get overwhelmed. If this happens, it’s a good idea to take a break. If you start to feel yourself getting overwhelmed, ask for a timeout. And when you do, make sure to signal to the other person that you’re still invested in the conversation.
You don’t have to be perfect: The challenge with healthy conflict is that it often shifts between being healthy and unhealthy. ____40____. Did your disagreement bring you closer to your partner Did it help your team at work make a decision about a project That is more important than whether both parties always remain calm.
The benefits of conflict come from how you repair the damage after it happened. It’s processing the conflict and understanding why it happened that help you resolve it.
A. Pause if things get too heated
B. Share your feelings with your teammates
C. Ideally, one should offer four positives for every negative
D. Here are some techniques experts use to deal with conflict
E. One of the tools used in therapy a lot is empathic reflecting
F. The first thing to know about conflict is why it should not be avoided
G. Whether a conflict is healthy depends on whether it can help the team reach its goals
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A young man has recently completed seven marathons in seven weeks in loving memory of his mom. Brandon, 26, spent more than 21 hours ____41____ a total of 182 miles (1 mile≈1.6 km), traveling from his hometown in Shropshire, England, to ____42____ two European marathons too. He was inspired to turn his ____43____ into purpose when his mom Nicola, 46, was diagnosed with stage 4 lung cancer in October 2022 and passed away the following April.
Brandon said, “I feel ____44____ to be able to move my body. It was an honor to support my mom at the end of her life. I feel good about it; I am finally at peace with her ____45____ The number is a ____46____, as I realized that I had run seven marathons in seven weeks, just as my mom had spent seven months fighting cancer. I was overcome by so much grief every time I wiped her tears, ____47____ her hand, and watched her go through great pain and her darkest days.”
After losing his mother, he ____48____ tried to deal with the pain through drinking alcohol, but then he ____49____ therapy (心理治疗) for six months. He then turned his focus to running again. “It has given me a _____50_____, letting me know exactly what I want. My mom didn’t have much, but she always found a way to ____51____. She wanted me to _____52_____ all of her clothes to charity,” he told Newsweek.
Since deciding on his journey at the start of October 2024, Brandon has trained tirelessly and _____53_____ over $11,500 for the charity that helped care for his mom. He _____54_____ his challenge on March 16 in Barcelona and has since run marathons in Paris and Brighton, and two local marathons, along with 105 laps of a sports track. “I am so happy that I’m fortunate enough to do this, raise money, and _____55_____ awareness for my mom. I am proud of myself.”
41. A. walking B. running C. swimming D. cycling
42. A. organize B. watch C. complete D. describe
43. A. pain B. joy C. fear D. energy
44. A. lucky B. excited C. ashamed D. bored
45. A. illness B. life C. death D. decision
46. A. plan B. coincidence C. mistake D. secret
47. A. observed B. rubbed C. threw D. held
48. A. slowly B. suddenly C. immediately D. initially
49. A. sought B. avoided C. offered D. delayed
50. A. job B. purpose C. problem D. salary
51. A. give in B. make up C. give back D. break down
52. A. design B. sell C. keep D. donate
53. A. raised B. spent C. borrowed D. lost
54. A. canceled B. launched C. discussed D. forgot
55. A. ignore B. hide C. spread D. create
第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
For the first time, more than 500 humanoid robots from five continents competed in their own global games. Under the slogan “Racing Toward a Shared Intelligent Future”, the 2025 World Humanoid Robot Games (WHRG), ____56____ (hold) from Aug 14 to 17 in Beijing, brought together around 280 teams from 16 countries to compete in 26 events.
According to the official WHRG website, the four-day games drew moderate inspiration from human sports competitions, including track and field events and gymnastics, to showcase the ____57____ (late) advancements in robot technology. Each running, jumping, ____58____ competing humanoid robot represented a vivid display of human creativity and technological skill.
Beyond these human-inspired ____59____ (competition), the games also featured practical, skill-based challenges such as moving materials, sorting medicines, and ____60____ (clean) in varied conditions, showing robots’ real-world applications.
The games proved popular on the Internet, with the official topic gaining 150 million views on social media. One of the most exciting events was the 5v5 humanoid robot soccer match, ____61____ was entirely controlled by AI without any human intervention. In the thrilling final on Aug 17, Tsinghua University ____62____ (defeat) a team from Germany and won the gold medal.
“When our robots play ____63____ (independent) on the field, they rely on an integrated system that includes observation, decision-making, and motion control,” said Chen Penghui, leader of the Tsinghua team. Chen explained that observation involves using the cameras of the robots ____64____ (gather) visual information. Based on this feedback, the robots decide on actions, automatically chase the ball, and perform defensive moves _____65_____ blocking — all without human input.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
66. 假定你是李华，新学期伊始，你所在的班级计划举办一次以“备战高三”为主题的英语学习经验交流会。请你给外教Chris写一封邮件，邀请他参加并提供指导。内容包括：
1. 说明活动目的；
2. 希望他提供的帮助。
注意：
1. 写作词数应为80个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Chris,
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Leo had always been a true city boy, more familiar with the constant noise of traffic than the songs of birds. When his parents announced their move to a small house near the edge of a steadily shrinking forest, he felt astonished and angry. The silence of the countryside felt upsetting rather than peaceful. During his first week, he spent most of his time indoors, glued to his screens, until his mother insisted that he get some fresh air.
Reluctantly, Leo ventured into the woods behind their property. After walking for about ten minutes, he stumbled upon a clearing that broke his heart. Instead of natural beauty, he found a dumping ground — plastic bottles glittered in the sun, discarded packaging tangled in the undergrowth, and a faint sour smell hung in the air. In the center stood a lone, young oak tree, its leaves looking dusty and tired, struggling to survive amidst the pollution. Something about this determined tree, fighting for life in such unwelcoming surroundings, stirred a strange sense of protectiveness in him. He felt a connection he hadn’t expected.
The following weekend, Leo returned armed with a large garbage bag and a pair of gardening gloves. As he carefully collected the waste, his eyes caught sight of a delicate bird’s nest lying on the ground near the base of the oak tree. Inside rested a single, perfect egg, unbroken but vulnerable. His heart sank with worry. Remembering a nature documentary, he used his gloved hands to gently place the nest back in the lower branches, hoping the parents would return. He started visiting the clearing daily, quietly observing from a distance. Soon, he realized his well-intentioned presence often scared away a curious fox that liked to dig near the tree. He began to understand he was still an outsider here, a well-meaning but disruptive force in this delicate ecosystem. His initial excitement turned into frustration; he wanted to help but feared his efforts were insufficient or even harmful.
注意：1. 续写词数应为150个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
One morning, Leo found the nest on the ground again, but this time the egg was sadly cracked.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Weeks later, watching from his window, Leo saw a movement near the oak tree that made him smile.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
答案版
2025年10月高三联考
英语
本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. What does “L” stand for in the form
A. Late. B. Left. C. Lost.
【答案】C
【原文】W: Excuse me. How should I fill in this blank What does “L” stand for
M: It stands for “Lost”, so just write in what you have lost.
2. What feature does the new computer have
A. Cheaper price. B. Faster CD-ROM speed. C. Larger storage capacity.
【答案】B
【原文】M: I’ve just ordered the computer with the 32× CD-ROM drive that we both like.
W: That’s great.
M: It’s twice the speed of what we are using at home.
3. What is the man currently interested in
A. Colorful habitats. B. Dry environments. C. Marine ecosystems.
【答案】B
【原文】W: Reading about different types of habitats has been a real learning experience.
M: Right, it’s so interesting. For a long time, I have been curious about natural environments known for their colorful and rich plant and animal life. But now, I’m more curious about dry places.
4. Why does the woman refuse to eat at 2:00 p.m.
A. She has a meeting. B. It’s too late for lunch. C. She dislikes sandwiches.
【答案】B
【原文】W: Are you going out for a sandwich
M: No. I am too busy right now. Please give me an hour, OK
W: I can’t eat at 2:00 p.m. That’s too late for lunch!
5. What was the student’s main problem in the homework
A. Tense mistakes. B. Vocabulary errors. C. Poor sentence structures.
【答案】A
【原文】M: Ms. Brown, do you have a second to go over my last homework assignment
I think I struggled a bit with the grammar.
W: Sure. Your sentence structures and word choices were all very good, but you did sometimes switch between the past and present tense.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
6. What problem does the man face in his presentation
A. Lack of time. B. Outdated data. C. Unclear structure.
7. What suggestion does the woman give about laws
A. Ignore their relevance.
B. Criticize their limitations.
C. Mention their impact on air quality.
【答案】6. B 7. C
【原文】W: Have you finished preparing your presentation for tomorrow’s environmental science class
M: Almost, but I’m having trouble finding the latest data on air quality improvements in cities. I know there have been important improvements. I just don’t know how to show them.
W: Have you looked at the National Environment Agency’s website They updated their numbers last month, and they usually include reports and charts that could be very helpful.
M: Thanks, that could really help me show some data more clearly and give me some useful facts to support my points about reducing pollution.
W: Also, consider talking about the new laws. They have led to better air in several big cities.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
8. What is the main activity of the cultural exchange club
A. Organizing trips to foreign countries.
B. Focusing mainly on learning foreign languages.
C. Hosting events for students to share traditions and discuss global issues.
9. Which club event is the woman’s favorite
A. The cultural nights. B. The guest speaker series. C. The international food fair.
10. Why is the club valuable for the woman
A. It fits her career goal. B. It will improve her grades. C. It can broaden her mind.
【答案】8. C 9. C 10. C
【原文】W: I’m thinking of joining the new cultural exchange club at school. It seems like a good way to learn about other countries.
M: That’s a great idea! They mainly organize events where students share their traditions and talk about world issues, right It’s a great way to learn more.
W: Exactly. It sounds fun to learn and appreciate different views through direct student interactions. They learn how to play games from different countries. They also have guest speakers and cultural nights where you can participate in different traditions. And everybody loves the international food fair. That one might be my favorite.
M: Joining could really make your school life more interesting. Plus, you’ll likely make new friends from around the world.
W: That’s what I’m hoping for. I think it will help me see the world differently. That’s something I really want in my school life, considering the small town I grew up in.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
11. Why is Rachel upset
A. She lost her job. B. She had an accident. C. She failed an exam.
12. What was Rachel’s previous job
A. A lawyer. B. A teacher. C. A doctor.
13. How might the man help Rachel
A. Lend her money. B. Contact his friend. C. Offer legal advice.
【答案】11. A 12. A 13. B
【原文】M: This food smells delicious!
W: Thanks. But it’s not for us to eat. I’m taking dinner to Rachel tonight. She’s been having a hard time, and I thought it would make her feel better.
M: I’m sorry to hear she’s been having a difficult time. What happened
W: Well, she lost her job last week.
M: What happened Did she get fired
W: Not exactly, but she was asked to leave. She had been working at a law firm, but the firm hadn’t been getting many cases, so they had to let some of their staff go.
M: Will she get unemployment benefits
W: I think so, but she will be embarrassed about living on those. Besides, she loves being a lawyer, and she’d rather work than sit at home.
M: I understand. But at least she’ll have a little money to pay her rent while she looks for another job.
W: Yeah. But actually, I am hoping you could help her find a job. Isn’t your friend Theodore a lawyer Is his office hiring
M: They might be. I’ll give him a call tomorrow and let you know.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
14. What is the man’s favorite holiday
A. The summer festival. B. Easter. C. Christmas.
15. How do the woman’s family celebrate holidays
A. By buying expensive gifts.
B. By making handmade gifts.
C. By avoiding celebrations.
16. What is the man’s favorite part of the summer festival
A. The barbecue party. B. Swimming in the pool. C. Watching the parade.
【答案】14. A 15. B 16. A
【原文】M: I don’t think I appreciate traditional festivals like Christmas and Easter as much as my family.
W: What do you mean
M: I’m just not that into them. Christmas and Easter have many extra parts involved. I like to celebrate with the people I love in a comfortable environment. I like the summer festival more than any other holiday.
W: Is it because of our tradition to swim in my pool every year before the parade
M: No, though that is fun. It’s because after the parade we go to my parents’ giant barbecue with all their friends. Everyone brings a dish of food or drinks and then we talk and tell stories until the stars come out.
W: People do that on Christmas and Easter too, you know! I think it just depends on your family’s traditions.
M: For some reason, I just feel that most people feel the need to buy expensive things that are unnecessary during Christmas and Easter. There is no expectation of getting or giving gifts. It feels like you are forced into being nice, because of a date.
W: Yes, but you don’t have to do any of that to celebrate. My family make gifts for one another or we make promises saying we will help each other with projects or housework.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。
17. What did the woman do when her son was eight weeks old
A. She flew to Florida to see her best friend.
B. She stayed in Boston to care for her baby.
C. She drove to New York for a career meeting.
18. Why was the trip to Florida mentioned
A. To prove traveling with a child hard.
B. To show unexpected support from strangers.
C. To show the greater challenges she faced there.
19. How did the woman manage her meeting in New York
A. She left her son at home with relatives.
B. She asked a college friend to watch her son.
C. She brought her son into the meeting room.
20. What conclusion did the woman draw from her experiences
A. Strangers are ready to help.
B. Traveling with a baby is easy.
C. Mothers with a child should not travel.
【答案】17. C 18. B 19. B 20. A
【原文】W: Since having my son, I have found that I am always lucky enough to be surrounded by people willing to help. When he was eight weeks old, I had an opportunity to meet with a TV producer in New York to talk about my career. Could I, a young mother with a newborn baby, drive from my home outside Boston to meet him on Wednesday It was a rare chance. So I said yes. Honestly, it was tough. My son hated being in the car seat and ate very frequently during the long ride. When we arrived in New York, I handed my son over to my friend from college. A dad himself, he looked after my son in a coffee shop during my meeting. Everything went fine thanks to his help. When my son was four months old, my best friend was going through a difficult time. So I decided to fly to Florida to comfort her. But I figured it couldn’t be worse than driving to New York. Amazingly, people I met on our trip were endlessly helpful. The airline worker got me an extra seat. Taxi drivers helped me fasten the child seat. If you want an opportunity to see the good in people, try taking a baby on a trip. In my experience, when face-to-face, most people sincerely want to take care of each other.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
The end of summer is near, and the transition of seasons brings cooler temperatures, colorful leaves and cozy atmospheres. Every fall, travelers flock to natural landscapes around the country to immerse themselves in the warm, vibrant colors of the leaves—a popular activity known as leaf peeping. Here are some of the best domestic destinations for leaf peeping.
Hudson Valley, New York
Just a quick escape from New York City, Hudson Valley is ranked as the top destination for leaf peeping in 2025. Travelers can explore numerous parks and preserves to take in the shades of autumn, from Croton Gorge Park to Walkway Over the Hudson State Historic Park.
Boulder, Colorado
Boulder’s natural landscapes draw in travelers from all over the country, and one of the most famous leaf peeping activities is to drive on the Peak to Peak Scenic Byway (偏僻小路) for 55 miles (1mile≈l.6 km) of colors.
Snoqualmie Valley, Washington
Leaf peeping in Snoqualmie Valley is abundant, with scenic hiking and biking trails, like those on Mount Rainier. People can also make a day trip out of a scenic drive, such as exploring the Olympic Peninsula. Throughout the year, Snoqualmie Valley is stunning, but the forests become truly vibrant in the fall. Travelers can hike to waterfalls or go on romantic horseback rides to experience the fall colors.
Bucks County, Pennsylvania
Last year, Bucks County earned the top spot on the leaf peeping list. About an hour away from Philadelphia, Bucks County offers hot air balloon rides and drives over picturesque historic bridges. It is a hiker’s heaven, with trails winding through the famous Tyler State Park. In the fall, these colors come even more alive.
21. What is special about Hudson Valley
A. It offers balloon rides. B. It has trails to waterfalls.
C. It owns beautiful historic bridges. D. It has many parks and preserves.
22. How can visitors enjoy the fall in Snoqualmie Valley
A. By taking a balloon ride. B. By driving on a scenic small path.
C. By riding horses through forests. D. By exploring the Tyler State Park.
23. Why is Bucks County attractive for leaf peeping
A. It ranks first again this year.
B. It is located near Mount Rainier.
C. It is the closest spot to New York City.
D. It combines hiking trails with colorful views.
【答案】21. D 22. C 23. D
B
Silver Spring, Maryland, is home to many people who have moved there from other countries. A retired local resident named Manuel Vera wanted to do something helpful for his neighbors. He first offered to repair bicycles for free, asking only to be paid back for any new part he needed. Soon, he realized that many families had extra bikes sitting unused in their garages. Vera began collecting these bikes and fixing them in his small but well-equipped backyard shed.
This came at a time when many new families were arriving in Silver Spring and needed inexpensive ways to travel around the community. Vera started bringing the repaired bikes to parks, community centers, and apartment complexes. With a sign reading “Free Bikes”, he matched people with the perfect ride. At his very first giveaway, six bikes were taken in less than 30 minutes.
Word quickly spread. Neighbors now call him the “Bike Dude” and regularly donate bikes, helmets, and locks. Local markets and online community groups also help gather supplies, keeping Vera busy.
Vera works closely with community organizations that support new families. These groups give him details like a person’s height and age so he can deliver a bike that fits. Vera, who moved to the United States from Peru when he was 14, understands how hard it can be to start over in a new place. He remembers one man who needed a way to get to his night job, so Vera provided a bike, a helmet, lights, and safety gear.
Community organizer Manizha Azizi spoke highly of Vera’s efforts: “Many people want to help, but Manuel takes care of everything.” So far, more than 700 people in Silver Spring have received free bikes, giving them transportation, independence, and happiness. Vera’s kindness has turned unused bikes into valuable tools for building new lives, showing how one person’s generosity can keep an entire community moving forward.
24. Which is closest in meaning to the underlined word “shed” in paragraph 1
A. A small room inside a house for guests.
B. A large shop that sells bicycles and gear.
C. A place where people gather to ride bikes.
D. A small building used for storage or work.
25. What did Vera do at his very first free bike event
A. He bought six new bikes from a local market.
B. He sold six bikes to raise money for safety gear.
C. He taught six neighbors how to repair their bikes.
D. He gave away six bikes in less than half an hour.
26. Why does Vera ask for riders’ height and age before delivering a bike
A. To make sure each bike fits the rider well.
B. To test if riders already know how to ride a bike.
C. To keep a record of people who receive free bikes.
D. To decide how much money to charge for each bike.
27. Which of the following could be the best title for the passage
A. A Hobby Just for Kids’ Fun B. Helping Newcomers Start Over
C. Free Bikes, a Stronger Community D. Ending All Transportation Problems
【答案】24. D 25. D 26. A 27. C
C
It may sound surprising, but doing short bursts of exercise several times a day can greatly benefit your health. These short activities are known as “exercise snacks”. An exercise snack can last from just 30 seconds to five or ten minutes and includes almost any kind of movement — such as climbing stairs, walking, doing sit-ups, or even dancing.
Studies have shown that doing exercise snacks three times a day, each lasting 15 to 30 seconds, can improve heart and lung functions in people who usually don’t exercise. Inactive adults who added just 3.4 to 3.6 minutes of intense physical activity per day saw a 17% to 18% drop in their risk of cancer. Exercise also benefits the brain. Doing even a small amount of moderate to intense activity every day, or adding a bit more to your routine, can reduce the risk of dementia—especially for those who were previously inactive.
The key to building this healthy habit is to connect it to a daily routine. For example, if you brush your teeth first thing in the morning, you can do a few jumping jacks (开合跳) or push-ups right afterward. “When you build exercise snacks into a habit, they start to become deep-seated, and you’ll begin to see their lifelong benefits,” experts say.
Walking is one of the easiest exercise snacks. But don’t just rely on walking. Wall push-ups can help build arm strength, while jumping jacks can strengthen your legs. Want to climb stairs without getting tired Try walking up and down the stairs a bit faster than usual.
There’s an exercise snack for every part of your body. And when a movement becomes easy, you can make it harder. For example, wall push-ups can lead to floor push-ups, and jumping jacks can turn into burpees (波比跳). A slow walk can become a light jog. The possibilities are simple, and the results can be powerful.
28. What is the main purpose of the first paragraph
A. To show how to make exercise a daily routine.
B. To prove that exercise snacks can prevent dementia.
C. To define exercise snacks and give simple examples.
D. To explain that exercise snacks are long workouts done in the gym.
29. What do studies mainly show about exercise snacks
A. Intense bursts boost health and cut the risk of disease.
B. Walking every day can fully prevent cancer.
C. Exercise snacks will harm the brain if people are inactive.
D. Exercise snacks need to last at least half an hour to work.
30. How can people successfully make exercise snacks a habit
A. By exercising when they feel tired.
B. By linking them to regular daily actions.
C. By doing them once a week after dinner.
D. By replacing brushing teeth with workouts.
31. What do the last two paragraphs mainly emphasize
A. Exercise snacks are useful for arm strength.
B. Walking is an effective form of exercise snack.
C. Easy movements can become harder ones over time.
D. Jumping jacks and push-ups should never be changed.
【答案】28. C 29. A 30. B 31. C
D
Did you know that long ago, Singapore was full of wetlands, lakes, and small villages Even today, animals like wild pigs, monkeys, and snakes sometimes enter cities looking for food and shelter. This can be dangerous for them, especially on busy roads.
Singapore wants to become a “City in Nature” by 2030. The city is finding ways to protect natural spaces. Scientists are creating solutions to help wildlife live safely alongside people. STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics) is key to these ideas.
Animals often cross highways and risk being hit by cars. Experts use technology like cameras and sound devices to study animal movement and decide where to build safe crossings. In 2019, the Mandai Wildlife Group (MWG) built a 140-meter-long bridge over a highway just for animals. Cameras showed that over 100 species used it. MWG also built fences to guide animals and rope bridges to help those living in trees move safely.
Singapore is also teaching communities how to keep animals safe. The Animal Concerns Research and Education Society (ACRES) receives over 1000 calls each month to rescue wild animals in cities. “Often, we teach people how to handle the situation themselves,” said Karina Lim from ACRES. “This helps them feel more confident and respect animals more.” Wildlife expert Kiran Sujanani added, “Wild animals are usually shy and scared. If we give them space, they will often leave on their own.”
To live together peacefully, people need to understand why animals come near them and how they behave. Animal welfare groups advise people to do their part to avoid attracting wildlife to their homes. This includes not carrying visible plastic bags in areas with monkeys and storing waste properly. Education is the first step toward change. As one expert said, “Harmony begins with respect.” By learning about animals and respecting their homes, everyone can help protect them. Singapore’s journey shows that with community effort and STEM, people and wildlife can share spaces peacefully.
32. How is STEM primarily used to protect wildlife in Singapore
A. By building more roads and bridges.
B. By planning more natural parks for animals.
C. By using cameras and devices to frighten animals.
D. By researching animals and creating secure passages.
33. What can be inferred about ACRES’s work from the text
A. It wants to move all wild animals out of the city.
B. It encourages people to keep wild animals as pets.
C. It mainly focuses on finding new homes for wild animals.
D. It believes people should learn to deal with wildlife properly.
34. What is one suggested way to avoid attracting wildlife to residential areas
A. Making loud noises to scare animals away.
B. Feeding animals regularly to keep them calm.
C. Storing waste properly and keeping plastic bags out of sight.
D. Building higher fences and setting barriers around homes.
35. What is the main purpose of the passage
A. To discuss the dangers wild animals face in cities.
B. To explain how STEM helps humans and wildlife coexist.
C. To encourage readers to visit the natural parks in Singapore.
D. To introduce the history of wildlife conservation in Singapore.
【答案】32. D 33. D 34. C 35. B
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Conflict is healthy and normal. There’s no need to avoid it. However, many of us have never learned how to manage it well. ____36____.
Listen: ____37____. This involves actively listening to someone and then repeating back in your own words what you heard. When both parties feel heard, healing can happen without each side needing to agree with the other.
Balance the positive and the negative: When you have an issue with someone, you don’t only want to talk about the negative. ____38____. It’s like saying: I love this, this, this and this about you, but when you do this, it really hurts me. Speaking this way not only makes it easier for the listener to take criticism, but also encourages the speaker to communicate their position in a healthy and loving way.
____39____: Even when everyone involved has an open mind and the best intentions, conflict is challenging, and it’s easy to get overwhelmed. If this happens, it’s a good idea to take a break. If you start to feel yourself getting overwhelmed, ask for a timeout. And when you do, make sure to signal to the other person that you’re still invested in the conversation.
You don’t have to be perfect: The challenge with healthy conflict is that it often shifts between being healthy and unhealthy. ____40____. Did your disagreement bring you closer to your partner Did it help your team at work make a decision about a project That is more important than whether both parties always remain calm.
The benefits of conflict come from how you repair the damage after it happened. It’s processing the conflict and understanding why it happened that help you resolve it.
A. Pause if things get too heated
B. Share your feelings with your teammates
C. Ideally, one should offer four positives for every negative
D. Here are some techniques experts use to deal with conflict
E. One of the tools used in therapy a lot is empathic reflecting
F. The first thing to know about conflict is why it should not be avoided
G. Whether a conflict is healthy depends on whether it can help the team reach its goals
【答案】36. D 37. E 38. C 39. A 40. G
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A young man has recently completed seven marathons in seven weeks in loving memory of his mom. Brandon, 26, spent more than 21 hours ____41____ a total of 182 miles (1 mile≈1.6 km), traveling from his hometown in Shropshire, England, to ____42____ two European marathons too. He was inspired to turn his ____43____ into purpose when his mom Nicola, 46, was diagnosed with stage 4 lung cancer in October 2022 and passed away the following April.
Brandon said, “I feel ____44____ to be able to move my body. It was an honor to support my mom at the end of her life. I feel good about it; I am finally at peace with her ____45____ The number is a ____46____, as I realized that I had run seven marathons in seven weeks, just as my mom had spent seven months fighting cancer. I was overcome by so much grief every time I wiped her tears, ____47____ her hand, and watched her go through great pain and her darkest days.”
After losing his mother, he ____48____ tried to deal with the pain through drinking alcohol, but then he ____49____ therapy (心理治疗) for six months. He then turned his focus to running again. “It has given me a _____50_____, letting me know exactly what I want. My mom didn’t have much, but she always found a way to ____51____. She wanted me to _____52_____ all of her clothes to charity,” he told Newsweek.
Since deciding on his journey at the start of October 2024, Brandon has trained tirelessly and _____53_____ over $11,500 for the charity that helped care for his mom. He _____54_____ his challenge on March 16 in Barcelona and has since run marathons in Paris and Brighton, and two local marathons, along with 105 laps of a sports track. “I am so happy that I’m fortunate enough to do this, raise money, and _____55_____ awareness for my mom. I am proud of myself.”
41. A. walking B. running C. swimming D. cycling
42. A. organize B. watch C. complete D. describe
43. A. pain B. joy C. fear D. energy
44. A. lucky B. excited C. ashamed D. bored
45. A. illness B. life C. death D. decision
46. A. plan B. coincidence C. mistake D. secret
47. A. observed B. rubbed C. threw D. held
48. A. slowly B. suddenly C. immediately D. initially
49. A. sought B. avoided C. offered D. delayed
50. A. job B. purpose C. problem D. salary
51. A. give in B. make up C. give back D. break down
52. A. design B. sell C. keep D. donate
53. A. raised B. spent C. borrowed D. lost
54. A. canceled B. launched C. discussed D. forgot
55. A. ignore B. hide C. spread D. create
【答案】41. B 42. C 43. A 44. A 45. C 46. B 47. D 48. D 49. A 50. B 51. C 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. C
第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
For the first time, more than 500 humanoid robots from five continents competed in their own global games. Under the slogan “Racing Toward a Shared Intelligent Future”, the 2025 World Humanoid Robot Games (WHRG), ____56____ (hold) from Aug 14 to 17 in Beijing, brought together around 280 teams from 16 countries to compete in 26 events.
According to the official WHRG website, the four-day games drew moderate inspiration from human sports competitions, including track and field events and gymnastics, to showcase the ____57____ (late) advancements in robot technology. Each running, jumping, ____58____ competing humanoid robot represented a vivid display of human creativity and technological skill.
Beyond these human-inspired ____59____ (competition), the games also featured practical, skill-based challenges such as moving materials, sorting medicines, and ____60____ (clean) in varied conditions, showing robots’ real-world applications.
The games proved popular on the Internet, with the official topic gaining 150 million views on social media. One of the most exciting events was the 5v5 humanoid robot soccer match, ____61____ was entirely controlled by AI without any human intervention. In the thrilling final on Aug 17, Tsinghua University ____62____ (defeat) a team from Germany and won the gold medal.
“When our robots play ____63____ (independent) on the field, they rely on an integrated system that includes observation, decision-making, and motion control,” said Chen Penghui, leader of the Tsinghua team. Chen explained that observation involves using the cameras of the robots ____64____ (gather) visual information. Based on this feedback, the robots decide on actions, automatically chase the ball, and perform defensive moves _____65_____ blocking — all without human input.
【答案】56. held
57. latest 58. and
petitions
60. cleaning
61. which 62. defeated
63. independently
64. to gather
65. like
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
66. 假定你是李华，新学期伊始，你所在的班级计划举办一次以“备战高三”为主题的英语学习经验交流会。请你给外教Chris写一封邮件，邀请他参加并提供指导。内容包括：
1. 说明活动目的；
2. 希望他提供的帮助。
注意：
1. 写作词数应为80个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Chris,
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
【答案】Dear Chris,
I’m writing to sincerely invite you to our “Prepare and Fight for Senior Three” English learning experience sharing session, which will be held in our classroom next Friday afternoon. Aiming to boost our confidence and efficiency, this event is what we truly need at the beginning of the final year.
It would be greatly appreciated if you could share some practical learning strategies and offer guidance on improving oral expression. Not only would your participation inspire us, but your professional advice is also crucial in helping us build a solid foundation.
We genuinely hope you can join us. It is your involvement that will make this session more meaningful and rewarding.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Leo had always been a true city boy, more familiar with the constant noise of traffic than the songs of birds. When his parents announced their move to a small house near the edge of a steadily shrinking forest, he felt astonished and angry. The silence of the countryside felt upsetting rather than peaceful. During his first week, he spent most of his time indoors, glued to his screens, until his mother insisted that he get some fresh air.
Reluctantly, Leo ventured into the woods behind their property. After walking for about ten minutes, he stumbled upon a clearing that broke his heart. Instead of natural beauty, he found a dumping ground — plastic bottles glittered in the sun, discarded packaging tangled in the undergrowth, and a faint sour smell hung in the air. In the center stood a lone, young oak tree, its leaves looking dusty and tired, struggling to survive amidst the pollution. Something about this determined tree, fighting for life in such unwelcoming surroundings, stirred a strange sense of protectiveness in him. He felt a connection he hadn’t expected.
The following weekend, Leo returned armed with a large garbage bag and a pair of gardening gloves. As he carefully collected the waste, his eyes caught sight of a delicate bird’s nest lying on the ground near the base of the oak tree. Inside rested a single, perfect egg, unbroken but vulnerable. His heart sank with worry. Remembering a nature documentary, he used his gloved hands to gently place the nest back in the lower branches, hoping the parents would return. He started visiting the clearing daily, quietly observing from a distance. Soon, he realized his well-intentioned presence often scared away a curious fox that liked to dig near the tree. He began to understand he was still an outsider here, a well-meaning but disruptive force in this delicate ecosystem. His initial excitement turned into frustration; he wanted to help but feared his efforts were insufficient or even harmful.
注意：1. 续写词数应为150个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
One morning, Leo found the nest on the ground again, but this time the egg was sadly cracked.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Weeks later, watching from his window, Leo saw a movement near the oak tree that made him smile.
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【答案】
One morning, Leo found the nest on the ground again, but this time the egg was sadly cracked. A deep sadness washed over him, followed by fierce determination to do better. Realizing that his interference, however well-meant, might have caused the tragedy, he decided to seek proper knowledge. Not only did he spend hours researching online, but he also visited the local library to read books on local wildlife conservation. Learning that many animals are highly sensitive to the human scent and frequent disturbance, he finally understood his mistake. With a renewed sense of purpose, he built a simple, elevated platform using recycled materials and carefully placed the nest securely upon it, this time handling it only with sticks instead of his hands.
Weeks later, watching from his window, Leo saw a movement near the oak tree that made him smile. A pair of bright finches were diligently feeding their chirping chick in the very nest that he had secured. The clearing, which he had continued to clean with respect, was now visibly greener and alive with butterflies and other insects. Leo learned that helping nature didn’t mean imposing his will or quick fixes, but offering support with patience, respect, and humble learning. He continued his small, thoughtful acts, proving that true ecological harmony begins with understanding, perseverance, and a truly willing heart.

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