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沙湾区2025年下期期中学生学业水平测试
七年级英语
2025年 11月
本试卷分第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题），共 10 页。考生作答时，须将答案答
在答题卡上，在本试题卷上答题无效。满分 150 分，考试时间 120 分钟。考试结束后,只收答题卡。
第Ⅰ卷（选择题，共 100 分）
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分 30 分）
做题时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个问题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个正确的选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。每段对话读两遍。
( ) 1. What does Lucy’s sister look like
A．She has long hair. B．She is tall and thin. C．She has short hair.
( ) 2. What subject does Betty like
A．History. B．Geography. C．Maths.
( ) 3. How many lessons does Daniel have every day
A．Four. B．Three. C．Seven.
( ) 4. Where are the two speakers probably
A．In the library. B．In the classroom. C．In the playground.
( ) 5. Why does Eric get to school late
A．Because he goes to bed late. B．Because he gets up late.
C．Because he is sad.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分 22.5分)
听下面4段对话和1段独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答6至7题。
( ) 6. Who is Ms. Brown
A．Peter’s maths teacher. B．Peter’s mother. C．Peter’s English teacher.
( ) 7. What’s in Peter’s schoolbag
A．A maths book, a pen and a big apple.
B．A maths book, a pencil box and a big apple.
C．A maths book, a pencil and a big apple.
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
( ) 8. How is this school
A．It is very old. B．It is very big. C．It is very beautiful.
( ) 9. What are the two buildings
A．The library and the lab building.
B．The teaching building and the library.
C．The teaching building and the lab building.
( ) 10. What do they usually do after school
A．Going to the clubs. B．Going shopping. C．Visiting friends.
听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。
( ) 11. Why does Wang Bin want to write a post
A．To welcome a new student. B．To learn English. C．To make friends.
( ) 12. Who is Wang Ying
A．Wang Bin’s classmate. B．Wang Bin’s sister. C．Wang Bin’s cousin.
( ) 13. What are Wang Bin’s hobbies
A．Swimming and drawing. B．Skating and music. C．Drawing and singing.
听第9段材料,回答第14至16题。
( ) 14. What’s David calling to say to Kate
A．Happy birthday! B．Happy New Year! C．Merry Christmas!
( ) 15. How’s the weather in Moscow
A．It’s cool and rainy. B．It’s warm and sunny. C．It’s cold and snowy.
( ) 16. What will Kate do tomorrow
A．Go swimming. B．Go skating. C．Go shopping.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
( ) 17. What is the name of the club
A．Happy Bookers. B．Book Spirit. C．Book It.
( ) 18. Why do the club members meet on Fridays
A．To watch films. B．To write stories. C．To share books.
( ) 19. What is the first club rule
A．Be quiet. B．Listen to others. C．Read before the meeting.
( ) 20. How does the speaker like the club
A．Relaxing. B．Useful. C．Fun.
第二部分：英语知识运用（共 2 节，满分 30 分）
第一节 语法知识（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从以下各题的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
( ) 21. There is ________ art festival every autumn in my school. I want to play ______piano.
A．an; a B．an; the C．the; a D．the; the
( ) 22．—Ms. Huang, what would you like, tea ________ coffee
—Just a cup of coffee ________ any sugar or milk.
A．or; without B．to; without C．for; with D．to; with
( ) 23．There are _________ floors in this building. And I live on the _______ floor．
A．twelve; three B．twelfth; third
C．twelfth; three D．twelve; third
( ) 24.—Bob, is this Mia’s dictionary
—Yes, it’s _______. Look! You can see _______ name in the dictionary.
A．hers; her B．her; her C．his; her D．hers; his
( ) 25. Look! These______ doctors are under the______ trees．
A．woman; apple B．women; apples
C．women; apple D. woman; apples
( ) 26. I hope everything ________ well with your new life here.
A．goes B．to go C．go D．going
( ) 27. My mom usually _______ the milk for me in the morning, so I can drink it without _______ cold.
A．warm; feel B．warms; feeling
C．warming; feel D．warms; feel
( ) 28. I remember ________ this song before. It’s very popular.
A．sing B．singing C．to sing D．sings
( ) 29. The information is very important. You should_______.
A. write it down B. write them down
C. write down it D．write down them
( )30．—Mom, I did all the housework this morning.
—________! You’re so nice.
A．That’s not right B．It will be fun
C．Well done D．Good idea
第二节：完形填空（共15小题；A篇5小题，每小题2分；B篇10小题，每小题1分；满分20分）阅读下面两篇短文，根据短文内容，从各题所给的三个或四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
Mr. Black works in a 31 . He is a great doctor. He comes from Canada. He likes 32 very much. He hopes to go around the world.
Mr. Black is also interested in traditional Chinese medicine (中医). He came to China last year. He is learning Chinese now. He wants to work in China in the future and learn more 33 Chinese medicine.
He 34 Chinese very hard, and he has Chinese lessons in an evening school. He has a lot of friends in China and they often help him learn Chinese. He likes to talk with 35 , and he can speak Chinese well.
( )31.A．factory B．hospital C．school
( )32.A．travelling B．singing C．reading
( )33.A．for B．with C．about
( )34.A．study B．studies C．studied
( )35.A．they B．their C．them
B
Good afternoon, boys and girls. This is my new school. Let me show you 36 .Here is our 37 building — Zhenzhi Building. It’s just near the school gate. We have lessons here every day and it’s very beautiful. There are tall trees and lovely flowers around it. The flowers are colourful — they are yellow, 38 , blue and white. They make me 39 and enjoy my time here in this building.
Inside the building, my classroom is on the second floor. We meet our teachers and classmates here every day. We learn together, talk together and have a good time here. They are all my 40 . My classroom is big and clean. There are fifty-five desks and chairs for 41 . Thirty-five for boys and twenty for girls.
Look! Here 42 some things in the classroom. This is a cup. It is green. I think it is Alice’s 43 Alice likes green very much. This is a Math book. I can 44 the letter L on the book. I think it is Ling Ling’s because L is the first letter of Ling. This is a 45 . I think it is Xiao Hong’s because Xiao Hong loves Geography very much.
I love my school and my life here!
( )36.A．for B．around C．on D．to
( )37.A．classroom B．science C．art D．teachers’
( )38.A．red B．big C．old D．new
( )39.A．fine B．sad C．happy D．nice
( )40.A．teachers B．friends C．students D．classmates
( )41.A．us B．them C．you D．me
( )42.A．be B．am C．is D．are
( )43.A．although B．so C．because D．but
( )44.A．see B．write C．say D．thank
( )45.A．pencil B．map C．cup D．ruler
第三部分：阅读理解（共两节，满分 40 分）
第一节（共 15 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 30 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的几个选项中，选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Welcome to Big Tree Art School. Here are some classes for our school students. Let’s have a look.
Class: Story writing Teacher: Alice King Time:10:00 am—12:00 pm In the writing class, the teacher will teach you some writing skills (技巧). You will learn how to make your stories more interesting. Class: Electric guitar Teacher: Tony Smith Time: 6:30 pm—8:00 pm In our electric guitar class, you can learn about the history of the electric guitar. Mr. Smith will help you practice playing the electric guitar. You will learn a lot.
Class: Paper-cutting Teacher: Amy Black Time: 5:00 pm—6:00 pm This class can help you learn about traditional Chinese arts. With the teacher’s help, it will not be difficult for you to make your artworks. It’s e and join us! Class: Street dance Teacher: Andy Brown Time: 3:00 pm—4:30 pm Do you want to keep healthy in a cool way Then come to our street dance class. Dancing can make you happy and you can meet new friends, too.
( )46．Which class is in the morning
A．The story writing class. B．The street dance class.
C．The paper-cutting class. D．The electric guitar class.
( )47．Who teaches the electric guitar
A．Alice King B．Amy Black. C．Tony Smith. D．Andy Brown.
( )48．What does Amy Black think of the paper-cutting class
A．difficult B．interesting. C．boring. D．easy.
( )49．What is one benefit (好处) of taking the street dance class
A．Making some new friends. B．Getting some singing skills.
C．Watching different dance shows. D．Taking photos with great dancers.
( )50．Who are these posters for
A．Teachers. B．Parents. C．Doctors. D．Students.
B
My uncle lives with my grandparents and he has a big farm. There are many animals on the farm. They are cows, chickens, ducks, sheep, pigs and three dogs. Every morning, my uncle goes to give the animals some food first. They eat different food and he has to be careful (仔细的).
The farm is far from the city. It’s very nice and quiet. I love the beautiful countryside (乡村). I like to live there. But I have to go to school in the city. So on the weekend I often go there to help my uncle. I often help him feed cows, pigs and chickens. All the animals on the farm are friendly to me. The dogs like to run around me and I like to play with them. The ducks like to swim in the river. The pigs like to sleep. When they are hungry, they eat a lot. When I grow up (长大), I am going to have my own farm. I will live in the beautiful countryside with animals.
( )51. There are no ________ on the farm.
A．cows B．geese C．pigs D．chickens
( )52. What does the writer’s uncle do first every morning
A．He cleans the animals. B．He gets the animals to work.
C．He gives the animals some food. D．He goes to buy food for the animals.
( )53. Why does the writer go to the farm
A．To eat nice food. B．To play with his grandparents.
C．To help his uncle. D．To learn about animals.
( )54. What does the underlined word “own” in Paragraph 2 mean
A.漂亮的 B.舒适的 C. 现代的 D. 自己的
( )55. What is the best title (标题) for the text
A．My Uncle’s Farm B．My Favourite Animals
C．Farm Animals D．I Love My Uncle
C
Here are some of Alan’s favorite photos.
Look at the first one. It’s in summer. Alan is wearing a blue T-shirt and playing soccer with his friends. The boy with short black hair is Tom. The thin boy in a green T-shirt is Jerry. And the boy with short yellow hair is David. He is their captain (队长).
The second one is a photo of his family. The woman with long hair is his mother. A girl is sitting on the sled (雪橇). She is Alan’s sister. Does she look like Alan’s mother Another girl in the photo is Alan’s cousin. She looks very happy.
Do you know the girl in the third photo She is a pop singer.
In the last one, the girl in front of Alan is his best friend, Lisa. She is an American girl, but now she is in Australia. The girl with long hair is Sonia. She comes from China.
( )56. What does the captain of the soccer team look like
A．He has long brown hair. B．He has short yellow hair.
C．He has short brown hair. D．He has short black hair.
( )57. Who is sitting on the sled in the second photo
A．Alan. B．Alan’s mother. C．Alan’s sister. D．Alan’s cousin.
( )58. What does the girl do in the third photo
A．A singer. B．An actress. C．A teacher. D．A guide.
( )59. Where is Alan’s best friend now
A．In China. B．In America. C．In Canada. D．In Australia.
( )60. Which is TRUE
A．Jerry is wearing a blue T-shirt in the first photo.
B．There are five people in Alan’s family.
C．Sonia is an American girl.
D．Tom has short black hair.
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
根据短文内容，从短文前方框内的A-F共6个选项中选出5个适当的选项补全短文，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A．Is your hobby healthy B．Here are some advice to help you. C．But these hobbies are good for them. D．Do you hope to make your skills better E．He can try something like camping, fishing and so on. F．You can also ask your parents or friends for help when choosing a hobby.
Everyone should have a hobby. But how can you choose the right hobby 61
What are your interests What do you want to try For example, Tom likes spending time outdoors. 62 What do you like doing for fun Think about it.
Do you have targets (目标) for your hobby Do you just look for something to spend your time or do you want it to become your job one day 63 Or do you try to make new friends Think about what you want to get from your hobby.
64 Hobbies like playing video games or watching soap operas (肥皂剧) are not very healthy. You need to sit in one place for a long time and always look at the screen (屏幕). That’s just bad for your body. So please choose healthy hobbies!
Many students have hobbies, such as cooking, paper-cutting and growing vegetables. Some hobbies can take them much time. 65 They can learn new skills and become a better person.
第Ⅱ卷 非选择题（共 50 分）
第四部分：写作（共三节，满分 50 分）
第一节 短文填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从方框中选择适当的词填空，使短文意思完整，并将答案填写在答题卡对应的横线上。注意形式变化，每个单词限用一次，每空一词。
same and like play he classmate on but spend an this other
Many people in the USA love sports. Some people like playing sports, but some people always want to watch them 66 TV.
At school, students play sports with their 67 . They always have a good time.
Mike likes playing volleyball, 68 he doesn’t like running. In 69 free (空闲的) time, he usually 70 volleyball with Andy. And Andy is Mike’s classmate, too. So they’re in the 71 class.
Millie and Sandy like playing baseball. They 72 a lot of time on it. They also help each 73 at school. Millie’s best friend, Lily, is a good ping-pong player. She thinks ping-pong is 74 easy game. She is happy to play with her friends. She will be a ping-pong player 75 many great players in China.
第二节：语法填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，根据句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯意思，在空格处填入一个恰当的英语单词或者括号内所给单词的正确形式。
Hello, my name is Peter. First, Let me 76 (introduce) my family. My grandparents, my parents, and I live together. My grandparents are old but healthy. They like 77 (swim). Sometimes, they go out for a walk.
My parents are both teachers. They are 78 (friend) to their students. So their students love 79 (they) very much. They like playing sport. They often play tennis and they can play it very 80 (good). So they are very healthy.
I also have two good friends—Sam and Julia. We do many things together.
Sam lives near my house. He 81 (be) fifteen years old and he’s tall and thin. He 82 (have) blond hair and blue eyes. He’s very clever. He’s very good at Maths, and sometimes he helps me with my homework.
Our friend Julia doesn’t go to our school. She’s tall 83 slim. And she has straight brown hair and brown eyes. She’s a little bit shy. We all have kung fu (功夫) 84 (lesson) every Tuesday and Friday. We love them. Julia is really good at kung fu. We call her the “kung fu kid”. She sometimes plays basketball 85 us too. We always have great fun together.
第三节：书面表达（满分 25 分)
假如你是Lucy, 刚升入初中。在这里，你遇见新的老师，结识新的朋友，也发现了一个更好的自己。请你用英语写一篇自我介绍，向老师和同学展现一个真实又闪亮的“你”。
要求：
1. 80 词左右；
2.需涵盖所有要点，可适当发挥；
3.文中不得出现自己的真实姓名和信息。
My Shining Self
Hello,everyone!_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________2025年下期期中学生学业水平测试参考答案
听力部分：（每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1~5 CACCB 6~10 ABCBA 11~15 CBABC 16 ~20 BBACC
单项填空：(每小题1分，满分10分)
21~25 BADAC 26~30 ABBAC 31~35 BACBC
完型填空：(共15小题；A篇5小题，每小题2分；B篇10小题，每小题1分；满分20分)
36~ 40 BAACB 41~45 ADCAB 46~50 ACBAD
第三部分：阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分, 满分40分）
51~55 BCCDA 56~60 BCADD 61~65 BEDAC
第四部分：
第一节 短文填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
on 67. classmates 68. but 69. his 70. plays
71. same 72. spend 73. other 74.an 75. like
语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
76. introduce 77. swimming 78. friendly 79. them 80. well
is 82. has 83. and 84. lessons 85. with
书面表达（满分25分）
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为25分，按5档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法的准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
4.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程序予以考虑。
5.如书写较差，以至影响辨认，将分数降低一个档次。
二、内容要点
1.姓名 （2.5分） 6.爱好 （2.5分）
2.年龄 （2.5分） 7.原因 （2.5分）
3.最喜欢的科目 （2.5分） 8. 能力 （2.5分）
4.外貌 （2.5分） 9.梦想 （2.5分）
5.性格 （2.5分） 10.感受 （2.5分）
三、要点认定（核心原则：语篇范畴内，关注重心性-语篇意义重点部分的要点，是否充分阐述；单个要点内，关注合理性-描写内容是否符合实情或匹配逻辑。）
1.考生必须有较完整的句子表达出要点。如只有关键词而无主谓结构，不可视为要点写出。
2.在表达要点的句子中，如果主谓结构有严重的语言错误（如语态、时态。缺少动词或动词形式不正确或者只写出情态动词），可视为半个要点。
3.围绕要点的发挥，如有语言错误，则扣语言分。
四、档次划分
档次 得分 要点数 语言情况
五 21-25 10 语言基本无误，行文连贯，表达清楚。
四 16-20 8 语言有少量错误，行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚。
三 11-15 6 语言有一些错误，尚能达意。
二 6-10 4 语言错误很多，影响表达。
一 1-5 2 只能写出与所要求内容有关的一些单词。
注意：
1.原则上应按照考生所表达的要点数归档。如语言错误多，可降一档，如语言表达较好，可打该档最高分或上升一档。
2.在同一档次内，根据语言错误的多少确定五个分值。
1-2个错误，取该档次分值的高线。
3-4个错误，取该档次分值的中线。
5个错误，取该档次分值的低线。
6个以上降下档，10个左右错误取其降档后的低线。
One Possible Version:
My Shining Self
Hello, everyone! My name is Lucy. I am 12 years old and my favourite subject is English. I am so happy to be your new classmate.
I have long hair and I like to smile. I am a friendly and helpful person. I am good at speaking English and I can sing many English songs. In my free time, I love reading because it takes me to different worlds. I also enjoy playing basketball with my friends as it makes me feel energetic.
My dream is to become an English teacher one day. I will work hard for it.
I feel nervous but I also feel excited. Let’s be good friends and have a wonderful time together.

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