资源简介

2025 学年第一学期八年级期中学情调研
听力材料：
第一节，听下面 5 段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试题的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. W: Hey, Eric. You are so early today. You usually get to school at 7:50 a. m., right
M: Yes, Minnie. I took my father's car to school this morning, so I arrived 15 minutes earlier than usual.
2.W: Can you stop playing on your phone, John
M: Wait a minute, Mum. The video is so funny. I' ll do my homework after I finish watching this one.
3. W: Peter, I've never been to the science museum. Can you go with me this weekend
M: Sorry, Linda. I have been there four times. Why not go to the art museum
4. M: Many animals are in danger now.
W: Right, especially South China tigers. People can only see them in zoos.
5. M: What do you like about your best friend
W: She enjoys telling jokes, and always makes me laugh.
第二节，听下面 3 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题 ，从 题中所给的 A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题,现在你有 10 秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题，对话读两遍。
W: Hey, Li Hua. What are you thinking about
M: Hi, Alice. This Friday is my mother's birthday. But I have no idea what the best present is for her.
W: I think you could buy some flowers and make a birthday cake for her.
M: Sounds great! She'll like these.
W: But the day after tomorrow is Friday. Do you have time to prepare for these
M: Yes, I'm going to the supermarket this afternoon. I'd like to buy some eggs to make the cake.
W: That's great. So how do you and your family usually celebrate the birthday
M: Well, we usually have a big dinner at home.
听下面一段对话，回答第 8至第 10三个小题。现在，你有 15 秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。对话读两遍。
W: Mike, who's your best friend in school
M: Peter. I met him 6 years ago. We are old friends.
W: What does he look like
M: He's tall and handsome.
W: Why do you like him
M: He's outgoing, and we're both good at football.
W: Are you different from him
M: I always get better grades than Peter does. He plays football better than me.
W: OK, I see....
听下面一段独白，回答第 11至第 15 四个小题。现在，你有 20 秒钟的时间阅读这五个小题。
Hi, I'm Judy from Russia. I had a great summer vacation in America. I went on a two-week camp in the forest. Every
day was different in the camp. In the mornings, we did different things like horse riding or hiking. The weather stayed
fine in the afternoons, so we swam in the lake and slept in the sun a lot. I love the evenings, because all the people at the
camp ate a meal together. I really loved the chicken sandwich for dinner. We laughed and talked about the day's fun
things. Sometimes we had a campfire and sang songs. Although I felt tired, I really enjoyed my life there. It seemed to be the best summer of my life.
参考答案
第一部分 听力
第一节(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分) 1-5 BBBAB
第二节(共5小题,每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 6-7AC 8-10 CBA
第三节(共5小题,每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 11-15 CBACC
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
16-18 CDB 19-22 CBAC 23-26 BDCC 27-30 BABA
第二节(共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
31-34 EBDC
35. Drawing is my hobby.(1’)/ I like drawing.
I choose it because I can express my feelings through colours and pictures. (1’)
（符合字数和内容要求即可，注意语法正确，语法错误或是单词拼错或是超字数都是错一处扣一分）
第三部分英语知识运用(共两节，满分25分)
第一节：完形填空(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
36-40 ABCBD 41-45 CABBD 46-50 ACDBC
第四部分写作(共两节，满分25分)
第一节：词汇运用
A：选词填空(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
51. buildings 52. lives 53. killing 54. importance 55. action
B：阅读填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
56.percent 57. different 58. expect 59. surprised fortable 61. reminds
62. familiar 63. imagine 64. believe 65. touch
第二节：语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
66.best 67. Although/Though 68. Actually 69. an 70.speeches
71. herself 72. became 73.to get 74. people’s 75. more beautiful
第三节：书面表达(共1小题，满分20分)
Possible version:
My Best Friend and an Unforgettable Trip
I would like to share a story about my best friend, Lin Tao. He is a calm and reliable boy, and I truly saw these qualities during an unforgettable trip.
Last autumn, we went hiking in a beautiful mountain. However, I accidentally sprained my ankle and could not walk well. I felt scared and helpless. At that moment, Lin Tao quickly came to help. He let me lean on his shoulder and patiently helped me walk down the path step by step.
This experience taught me a valuable lesson about friendship. I realized that a true friend is not just someone you have fun with, but someone who stays by your side and helps you through difficulties. Our trust in each other grew stronger after that day.
书面表达评分标准
第五档(18-20分)
很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少，书写规范。
第四档(14-17分)
较好地完成了规定的写作任务:基本上包含所有内容要点，结构较为完整，语句完整，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少，格式基本正确，书写较为规范。
第三档(10-13分)
基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点，结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多、格式基本正确，书写基本规范。
第二档(6-9分)未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点，结构不完整，多数语句欠完整，意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多、影响理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。
第一档(0-5分)未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点，结构不完整，多数语句不完整或意思不明，语法和词汇错误较多，书写不规范
《My Best Friend and an Unforgettable Trip》书面表达评分标准（满分20分）
评分维度 分值 评分细则
内容要点 (Content) 8分 覆盖所有写作要点，内容充实、具体，情节合理。 好友介绍 (2分): 有点名，性格描述具体（至少1-2个形容词）。 经历叙述 (4分): 事件背景（时间/地点）、遇到的困难、朋友的具体行动均叙述清晰。 感悟升华 (2分): 能围绕“友谊”写出具体、合理的感悟。
语言质量 (Language) 8分 语法结构准确，词汇运用丰富、恰当，拼写与标点正确。 词汇 (3分): 能准确使用与主题相关的词汇（如性格、旅行、困难、帮助等）。尝试使用较高级词汇。 语法 (3分): 句式结构基本正确，能尝试使用复合句（如宾语从句、状语从句等）。 流利度 (2分): 语言表达基本流畅，无明显中式英语。拼写和标点错误较少。
逻辑结构 (Structure) 4分 全文结构清晰，段落分明，衔接自然。 段落划分 (2分): 三段式结构完整，段落分工明确。 衔接连贯 (2分): 能使用适当的连接词（如 However, At that moment, After that 等）使文章逻辑流畅。2025 学年第一学期八年级期中学情调研
英语调研卷
考生须知:
1.本试卷分试题卷和答题卷共两部分，满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2.答题前，必须在答题卷的密封区内填写校名、班级、学号、姓名、试场号、座位号。
3.所有答案都必须做在答题卷上标定的位置，务必注意试题序号和答题序号相对应。
4.考试结束后，只需上交答题卷。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分20分)
第一节，听下面 5 段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试题的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. When did Eric arrive at school this morning
A.At 7:15 a.m. B. At 7:35 a. m. C. At 7:50 a. m.
2. What is John doing now
A. Talking on his phone. B. Watching a video. C. Doing his homework.
3. Where does Linda want to go this weekend
A．To the history museum. B．To the science museum. C．To the art museum.
4. Which animal are the speakers talking about
A．Tigers. B．Snakes. C．Elephants.
5. Why does the woman like her best friend
A．Her friend likes laughing.
B．Her friend can make her laugh.
C．Her friend enjoys reading.
第二节，听下面 3 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题 ，从 题中所给的 A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题,现在你有 10 秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题，对话读两遍。
6.What day is it today
A．It's Wednesday. B．It's Thursday. C．It's Friday.
7.Where will Li Hua go this afternoon
A．To the shopping centre. B．To the cake shop. C．To the supermarket.
听下面一段对话，回答第 8至第 10三个小题。现在，你有 15 秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。对话读两遍。
8．How long does Mike know Peter
A．For four years. B．For five years. C．For six years.
9．What does Peter look like
A．Thin and short. B．Tall and handsome. C．Thin and tall.
10．What is Peter better at
A．Football. B．Baseball. C．Ping-pong.
听下面一段独白，回答第 11至第 15 五个小题。现在，你有 20 秒钟的时间阅读这五个小题。
11. Where did Judy go for her summer vacation
A. China. B. Russia. C. America.
12. How long did Judy stay in the camp
A. For one week. B. For two weeks. C. For three weeks.
13. How was the weather in the afternoons
A. Sunny. B. Cloudy. C. Rainy.
14. What food did Judy like for dinner
A. Beef sandwiches. B. Russian soup. C. Chicken sandwiches.
15. How did Judy feel about her summer camp
A. Bored and sad. B.Worried but excited. C.Tired but happy.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分40分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C和D) 中选出最佳选项。
A
Sign in BUSINESSTRAVELCULTURE SPORTSLIFESTYLEABOUT US
You are here: Home > China> Culture The 24 solar terms (节气) were created by farmers in ancient China to guide the farming activities. They played important roles in their daily lives, and they are still important nowadays.
Rain Water Time: February 18th,2025 What it means: The cold winter in most parts of China has passed.The temperature rises and the ice and snow melt(融化). Activity: Farmers would make preparations for spring planting.
White Dew Time: September 7th,2025 What it means: The difference in temperature between day and night is becoming larger. We can often see dew appear on the grass. Activities: People often eat warm sweet potatoes, drink white dew tea and make white dew wine.
Beginning of Winter Time: November 7th,2025 What it means: With the temperature continuously(连续不断地) dropping, the weather is no longer suitable for farming. Activities: In ancient times, farmers often had a break on this day,which is different now. People today still keep the custom of eating delicious food like dumplings on the Beginning of Winter.
16. How long is White Dew earlier than the Beginning of Winter in 2025
A. Twenty days. B. A month.
C. Two months. D. Three months.
17. What does the text suggest（建议） about the custom of the “Beginning of Winter"
A. Modern people no longer follow any traditions on this day.
B. Modern people still carry on the old tradition where farmers take a break from work.
C. The tradition of farmers taking a break on this day is popular around the world.
D. The custom of eating delicious food on this day has been around for a long time.
18. Where may we find the text
A.In a novel. B.On a website.
C.In a student's diary. D.In a history book.
B
One rainy Saturday afternoon, Li Ming visited the city museum. Walking through quiet halls,
he found an old worker carefully putting together broken clay（陶土）bowls with something.
“These bowls are over 1,000 years old,” the worker explained, noticing Li Ming watching.“
Farmers found them under their fields（田地）last spring. Broken, but still precious（珍贵的）.”
“Why spend time fixing broken things ” Li Ming asked.
The worker handed him a small fragment （碎片）.
“See these bright yellow lines ” he said when he pointed to where the pieces joined.“This is
real gold. Long ago, people believed broken things could become even more beautiful.”
For the next hour, Li Ming helped clean the clay pieces. His hands shook as he tried to fit them
together. The pieces kept falling apart.“This is too hard” he said after many tries.
The worker smiled kindly.“Wait, and try slowly,” he said, guiding Li Ming's hands.“The breaks show their history. We don't hide them— we make them special.”
Slowly, piece by piece, they fixed a small bowl.“Remember,” the worker said as Li Ming left,“
nothing stays broken forever if we work with care.”
On his way home, Li Ming thought about his mother's old blue coat. She made it more colorful than before. He finally understood— some things become better when we give them love and time. The next day, Li Ming took out his broken schoolbag. He found colorful stickers（贴纸 ）to cover the holes. Each sticker reminded him that broken places can turn into something
wonderful.
19. What were the bowls like
A. Useless and heavy. B. Beautiful but useless.
C. Old, broken but precious. D. Modern, useful and important.
20. How did Li Ming use the lesson in his own life
A. He bought a new schoolbag quickly.
B. He used stickers to creatively repair his schoolbag.
C. He helped to make his mother's old coat more colorful.
D. He made the broken clay bowls in his home become useful again.
21. What's the correct order of the following events according to the text
①Li Ming understood something important.
②The worker passed a small fragment to Li Ming.
③Farmers found broken clay bowls under their fields.
④The worker showed Li Ming gold lines on the bowl.
⑤Li Ming fixed a small bowl with the help of the worker.
A.③→②→④→⑤→① B.④→①→②→③→⑤
C.③→④→②→①→⑤ D.①→④→②→⑤→③
22. What can we learn from the text
A. It is easy to find broken things. B. Old things are always precious.
C. Care and love can make things better. D. Museums are interesting places to visit.
c
It is widely known that China has the best high-speed railway network（网络）in the world. Now, the country is breaking its own speed record with CR450.
CR450 can travel at 400 kilometers per hour on average,with a top speed hitting 453km/h. Before this, the fastest high-speed train operating in a rail network in the world is China’s CR400,which runs at 350 km/h on average. Once put into use, for example,the CR450 will shorten the travel time from Beijing to Shanghai to just about two and a half hours which takes at least four and a half hours at the moment.
“The key is not to make the train run fast but to have it brake(刹车) accurately (精准地) and steadily(平稳地),” Zhao Hongwei of the China Academy of Railway Sciences told CCTV News.The standard is that the CR450 should have the same brake distance（距离） as the CR400,which is 6,500 meters,even though it travels a lot faster.It can also start braking more quickly, taking just 1.7 seconds compared to the 2.3 seconds needed for the CR400.
The engineers did lots of tests with the brakes to make the system better. In the tests, the brake disc (制动盘) got really hot, reaching temperatures of up to 700℃ . Its color changed from black to red. The changes were then recorded. All the data were saved in a smart system to make a digital model of the brake system for calculations (计算).
Besides having a better braking system, the CR450 has the same noise level as the CR400. Moreover, it is12 percent lighter and 20 percent less energy-consuming (耗能的), according to CCTV News. With all its advantages, people are getting excited about the train’s debut (首次亮相), which is planned to be within this year.
23.Linlin will leave Beijing for Shanghai by CR450 at 7:00am.When can she arrive
A.9:00am. B. 9:30am.
C. 11:00am. D. 11:30am.
24.According to Zhao Hongwei, what is “the key" to CR450
A. Increasing the train's speed.
B.Having shorter braking distance
C.Starting to brake in a shorter time
D.Making it brake accurately and steadily
25. What is Paragraph 4 mainly about
A. How a digital model was used for calculations.
B. How engineers cooled down the brake disc in a test.
C. What engineers found in the test of the brake system.
D. What differences the CR400 and CR450 have in their brake systems.
26. Why does the writer write this passage
A. To tell the advantages of CR450.
B. To advise people to take CR450.
C. To introduce a new train called CR450.
D. To show the difficulties of developing CR450.
D
Everybody enjoys acts of kindness. But can you explain why Some people think kindness is something out of love and care, while others believe it is just a tool that we use to become more popular. But research shows that being kind can activate (激活) an area of the brain called Striatum. Research also shows that kindness improves people’s mood (情绪). But why and how does it happen Here are a number of different ways.
Being kind can make someone smile. If you see yourself smile in a situation, people around may be smiling, too. This is specially true for your close friends and family. A kind act makes someone who is sad feel better. It can also make ourselves feel good. So why not set off that chain (链条) of good feelings to people around
Secondly, being kind starts or develops a social connection with others. Kind acts like buying someone a present make friendships stronger. Research has shown that spending money on others may help you get a stronger feeling of happiness than spending it on yourself. Similarly, charities (慈善) also open up new circles of people to connect with someone on the other side of the world.
In another recent research, even children in their first year of secondary school know how being kind makes them feel happy. If one person is kind, he or she makes others in the group kind. It also lifts everyone’s spirits.For example, you make cakes for the office and it makes others do it each month. Then you’re getting cakes a lot more days than providing them.
All in all, being kind may improve your mood, but research has also shown that if you’re in a good mood, you can act much more kindly. This makes it a wonderful two-way relationship, doesn’t it
27．The writer leads in the topic by ________.
A．telling a story B．asking questions
C．giving examples D．making a survey
28．The underlined word “it” in paragraph 2 refer to___________.
A．The situation B．The family
C. The kind act D. That chain
29．Which of the following statement is NOT mentioned in this article
A．Being kind could improve your mood.
B．Being kind can help you get good grades.
C．A kind act can make people around happy.
D．A kind act can lift everyone’s spirits in a group.
30．Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage
A． B． C． D．
第二节(共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面信息，请从以下选项（A、B、C、D和E）中选出符合意思的选项（其中有一项是多余选项），将其序号填入31-34题，并且回答第35题（请注意小题后的词数要求）。
Why do you need hobbies Some studies have found that people are more positive when they take part in a relaxing activity. 31 Scientists also think they might be good for your brain.
How do you choose the right hobby Start with what you enjoyed in the past. Did you once play football 32___ If you find it isn’t for you, stop and turn to something new. Maybe joining a class or a team will give you a chance to meet other people.
Which relaxing activities are good for physical health It’s clear that exercise is going to be good for your body. A review of 94 studies found that dancing three times a week improved balance (平衡) in older people. Getting out in nature is helpful, whether you’re bike riding or doing something less active.
Which hobbies keep your mind active 33 Playing the piano or listening to your favorite band can help you make it. Researches have found reading is also good for your brain.
34 So let’s take up great hobbies.
A．Walking in nature is wonderful exercise.
B．Take it up again or start something else.
C． Hobbies let you forget your worries and have fun.
D．Learning an instrument and reading are the best choices.
E. Other studies have shown that hobbies can give you a sense of achievement.
35. What is your hobby Why do you choose it as your hobby (No more than 20 words)
____________________________________________________________________
第三部分 英语知识运用 (共两节，满分25分)
第一节：完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下列短文，掌握大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
In a quiet town with lots of big trees, there lived a cheerful girl named Emily. She loved 36 outside and going on little adventures. One of her favorite things to do was fly kites. She had many kites in bright 37 , but the red one was her favorite. Her grandfather had given 38 to her, and it was very special.
One sunny afternoon, Emily went to the park with her red 39 . The wind was strong, and the kite flew high into the sky. It 40 with the wind like a bird. Emily smiled as she held the string and watched the kite dance in the air. She felt 41 and free.
Then, 42 , a strong wind pulled hard on the string. Emily couldn’t hold it, and the kite flew away. She watched in shock as it got smaller and smaller, disappearing（消失）into the blue 43 . She spent hours 44 her lost kite, but it was nowhere to be found. Emily felt very sad. Her eyes filled with tears, and she didn’t understand 45 this had to happen.
Days passed, and Emily still missed her kite. But slowly, she began to understand something 46 . Her connection to the kite wasn’t just about the physical object . It was about the memories she had 47 while flying it with her grandfather. So instead of feeling sad, she chose to spend more time with her grandfather, listening to his stories and learning new things. Their love grew 48 every day.
One warm afternoon, Emily and her grandfather sat under a big tree. The wind 49 through the leaves, and Emily smiled. She thought the wind was like the connection between her and her grandfather — 50 there, even if you can’t see it. Emily’s story showed that love and memories are more important than any object we can lose.
36. A. playing B.hunting C. counting D. breathing
37. A. suits B. colors C. sunshine D. uniforms
38. A. you B. me C. it D. them
39. A. umbrella B. kite C. hat D. robot
40. A. rushed B. pushed C. marked D. moved
41. A. strong B.disappointed C. happy D. strange
42. A. suddenly B. heavily C. secondly D. easily
43. A. yard B. sky C. lake D. forest
44. A. looking up B. looking for C. clearing out D. walking into
45. A. when B. what C. where D. why
46. A. important B.unhappy C. careful D. honest
47. A. did B. solve C. created D. stopped
48. A. slower B. sicker C. older D. stronger
49. A. heated B. blew C. folded D. lifted
50. A. hardly B. perhaps C. always D. seldom
写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节 词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
A.阅读下面的短文，从方框中选取恰当的单词或短语并用其适当形式填空。选取的单词或短语限用一次，选项中有一项为多余选项。
Animals are our friends, but many people don't treat them as friends.Some people kill them for their fur,for food and even for fun.Some cut down forests to make more space for 51 and roads.This makes many animals lose their 52 and homes,They may die out one day if people don't stop 53 them.
Animals are of great 54 _in the ecosystem,People should take 55 _to protect them. If more people start to care about animals,I do believe there will be much better future for animals.
B.阅读下面短文，然后根据括号内所给汉语意思写出单词的正确形式（每空限填一词）。
The New Smartwatch
A survey says that about twenty 56 (百分之……) of students in my class wear smartwatches now. I just got one for my birthday, and it's 57 (不同的) from any gift I've ever received.
At first, I didn't 58 (期待) much. I thought it was just for telling time. But I was 59 (惊讶的) by its many functions. Its design is much slimmer than my old watch, making it very 60 舒适的） to wear. Every time I look at it, it 61 (提醒) me to stay active.
The watch face shows a picture of the ocean. It's a 62 (熟悉的) view from my last holiday. It helps me 63 (想象) I am standing by the sea when I feel stressed. I am starting to 64 (相信) that technology can be warm and personal. It's amazing how this small watch can 65 (触动) my heart in such a quiet way.
第二节 语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面的材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。
When Sally decided to improve her health，taking up running was the 66 (good) choice. She found running was enjoyable, with beautiful sights in her town.
67 Sally quickly fell in love with running, something started to trouble her—the beaches she ran along were covered with rubbish. 68 (actual), she was always doing a little litter-picking. However, 69 American runner really changed her, When she saw him giving 70 _(speech)about plogging(拾荒慢跑）online, she was very excited. She wanted to try it for 71 (her). Plogging started in“running while picking up rubbish in Sweden.
Sally joined a litter-picking group and soon 72 (become)an important member of the group. There was still rubbish being dropped, but Sally and some other litter-pickers chose 73 (get) out and to get plog.
“The thought of keeping other 74 (people) spirits up and seeing their actions spread to more people keeps me going. Together, we can make the world cleaner and 75 (beautiful)!” Sally said.
第二节 书面表达 （共1小题，满分20 分）
My Best Friend and an Unforgettable Trip
假设你是李华，你校英文报《Friendship》专栏正在征稿，请你写一篇短文。
介绍你的好朋友。
重点讲述一次你们在旅行中共同经历的一件事。
说明这次经历让你对友谊有什么新的认识。
要求：
1. 词数80-100词。
2. 文中不得出现真实的人名和校名。
3. 内容连贯，结构完整，书写工整。
My Best Friend and an Unforgettable Trip

展开更多......

收起↑