资源简介

2025~2026学年度高二年级11月质量检测英语
(试卷满分：150分，考试时间：120分钟)
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号;回答非选择题时，用0.5mm的黑色字迹签字笔将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，请将答题卡上交。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What does the woman offer
A. A phone number. B. A laptop. C. An address.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
How will the woman get home today
A. By taxi. B. By bus. C. By car.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What will the weather be like this afternoon according to the woman
A. Rainy. B. Windy. C. Sunny.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What does the woman mean in the end
A. Jenny stayed up to study. B. Jenny was sick. C. Jenny told a lie.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What are the speakers looking at
A. A plate. B. A cup. C. A bowl.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
6. Where does the conversation probably take place
A In a shoe store. B. On the street. C. In a car.
7. What does the woman advise the man to do
A. Be careful when driving.
B. Walk across the street quickly.
C. Cross the street at the corner.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
8. Where was the man born
A. In America. B. In Argentina. C. In Britain.
9. What are the speakers probably doing
A. Having a job interview. B. Discussing their dreams. C. Talking about travel experiences.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
10. What did the woman think lacked freshness
A. The rolls. B. The fish. C. The soup.
11. What was the problem with the tofu
A. It was not fresh. B. It turned black. C. It had a strange taste.
12. What are the speakers going to do later
A. Have some dessert (甜点).
B. Go to their usual restaurant.
C. Go back to the company.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
13. Why will Tom like the tour in the man’s opinion
A. He wants to enjoy the scenery.
B. He has an interest in sea animals.
C. He expects to dive in the sea.
14. Which is included in the tour
A. A sandwich lunch. B. A one-way bus ticket. C. A toy animal.
15. What is the cost of the tour for a 14-year-old child
A. $146. B. $125. C. $120.
16. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Neighbours. B. Husband and wife. C. Father and daughter.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
17. What is the speaker mainly talking about
A. Environmental protection. B. Education investment. C. Valuable companies.
18. When did Jeff Bezos become the richest person in the world
A. In 2010. B. In 2020. C. In 2017.
19. What is the best thing Bill Gates has been doing to help others
A. Supporting education. B. Fighting disease. C. Protecting the environment.
20. What does the speaker believe about business
A. Brilliant and motivated (有上进心的) people can succeed in business.
B. Good companies must support students regularly.
C. Online marketplaces will be more popular than physical stores.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Military works Author Introduction
The Art of War Sun Tzu (about 544-496 BC) Sun Tzu, a well-known military strategist in ancient China, lived during the Spring and Autumn Period. It was in such a complex and war-torn environment that Sun Tzu, with his rich military experience and deep insights, penned it. It is the oldest military work in the world, covering 13 short chapters that explain how wars work, how to win battles, and how leaders should think. One famous idea is “to win without fighting”.
On War Carl von Clausewitz (1780-1831) He was a German military thinker. His book says war is a way to force an enemy to do what you want. It also says war is closely linked to politics. It deeply explores the differences between tactics (战术) and strategy, and is of great significance to military professionals and political theorists.
The History of the Peloponnesian War Thucydides (about 460-400 BC) It records the details of the war between the Peloponnesian League led by Sparta and the Athenian Empire. This book is of high historical value objectively and comprehensively presenting the process and impact of the war, and is an important work for studying ancient Greek history.
The Art of War Niccolò Machiavelli (1469-1527) He was an Italian writer from the Renaissance. His book talks about how to build and train an army, how to arrange soldiers in battle, and how governments should organize defenses. Many ideas were new for his time.
Naval Strategy Alfred Thayer Mahan (1840-1914) He was an American naval (海军的) officer. His book was the first to study naval strategy. He argued that a strong navy is key to a country’s power, because controlling the seas helps protect trade and win wars.
21. Which book is significant for the research on ancient Greek history
A. On War. B. Naval Strategy.
C. The Art of War by Sun Tzu. D. The History of the Peloponnesian War.
22. What do these two books with the same name have in common
A. They both have 13 chapters. B. Both authors are experienced generals.
C. They were written around the same time period. D. Both books offer a unique understanding of war.
23. What is the key point of Mahan’s Naval Strategy
A. War relies on complex politics. B. Navies should only protect coastlines.
C. A strong navy is necessary to a country. D. Trade is more important than military power.
B
In the 1986 America’s Cup sailing race, a tough competition unfolded between the United States team and the Australian team.
The Australian team had won the race multiple times before. Determined to take back the trophy(奖杯), the US team gathered plentiful capital and top sailors. They even designed a high-speed sailboat, making their goal of winning clear. When the race started, the US team took the lead right away. By the time they were just four nautical miles (海里) from the finish line, they were already three nautical miles ahead of the Australian team. It seemed victory was within their grasp.
However, the wind direction at sea suddenly changed at this critical moment. The US team was now faced with a tough choice: should they adjust (调整) the sail angle You see, there are two types of wind at sea — gusts and cyclones. If it was a gust, adjusting the sail would be the right move. But if it was a cyclone, any adjustment would be useless, as cyclones change direction constantly. Relying on his years of experience, the US team’s old captain decided it was a gust and ordered the crew to adjust the sail.
Sadly, his judgment was wrong. It turned out to be a gust-like cyclone. The US sailboat spun (转动) around in place, wasting valuable time. Meanwhile, the Australian team chose not to adjust their sail and quickly caught up. In the end, the Australian team overtook the US team when they were just one nautical mile from the finish line and won the championship.
After the race, most media blamed the old captain for the US loss. But a game theory expert had a different view. He said that in an uncertain situation, the US team shouldn’t have tried to judge the wind direction accurately. Instead, they should have watched the Australian team’s actions. If the Australians didn’t adjust their sail, the US team shouldn’t have either. That way, they could have kept their lead.
24. Why might the US team take the lead at the start
A. They had good funds, sailors and a good boat. B. They practiced sailing every single day.
C. Australian team made a slow start. D. The wind helped the US team a lot.
25. What can we know about the Australian team
A. They wanted the US to win. B. They did not trust their captain.
C They made no sail adjustment. D. They knew the wind would change again.
26. What advice did the expert give
A. Better later than never. B. Copy the competitor’s move.
C. It is never too old to learn and create. D. Trust the captain.
27. What would be the most suitable title for the text
A. The Unpredictable Sea Winds B. A Race Lost at the Last Mile
C. America’s Cup Sailing Race D. The Role of Experience in Sailing
C
A 14-year study of over 90 000 adults presented at the European Society of Cardiology Congress has revealed that “catch-up sleep” on weekends can reduce heart disease risk by up to 20%.
The research, led by cardiovascular (心血管的) scientists from China’s Fuwai Hospital, tracked participants through the UK Biobank and found that those who got the most compensate (补偿的) weekend sleep were 19% less likely to develop heart disease compared to those who maintained consistent but insufficient sleep schedules.
The protective effect was most dramatic for the 20% of participants classified as sleep-deprived— those getting fewer than seven hours nightly during weekdays.
A separate NHANES study of 3, 400 Americans confirmed these findings, showing that weekend catch-up sleep duration of more than 2 hours was strongly associated with reduced cardiovascular disease prevalence when weekday sleep fell below six hours. But here’s what makes this discovery revolutionary: it directly challenges decades of sleep medicine orthodoxy (正统观念).
While experts have long emphasized maintaining regular sleep to maintain circadian rhythms (昼夜节律), this research suggests that for individuals suffering from long-term lack of sleep, sleeping in on weekends may be more protective than maintaining a regular but insufficient sleep pattern.
The study found specific reductions in stroke (中风) and coronary heart disease among weekend sleepers. Dr. Jim Liu from Ohio State University’s Wexner Medical Center explains the mechanism: “Insufficient sleep can increase the risk of developing hypertension, obesity, arrhythmias, and coronary artery disease. On the other hand, making up for lost sleep can reduce such risks.”
The American Heart Association now considers sleep one of the core components of heart health, ranking it alongside diet, exercise, and smoking cessation.
With one in three American adults reporting insufficient daily sleep, this research suggests that weekend recovery sleep might serve as a crucial cardiac safety net for millions of people who are always tired.
28. Which group can benefit most from weekend catch-up sleep
A. People who sleep 8 hours every night. B. People who sleep less than 7 hours on weekdays.
C. People who maintain a regular sleep schedule. D. People who often feel sleepy on weekdays.
29. What does the underlined word “prevalence” in Paragraph 4 mean
A. Occurrence. B. Treatment. C. Prevention. D. Cure.
30. What is Jim Liu’s attitude towards the research results
A. Favourable. B. Doubtful. C. Negative. D. Unconcerned.
31. What is the main idea of the text
A. Americans need to sleep more on weekends.
B. Long-term lack of sleep causes many diseases.
C. Sleep medicine experts should change their advice.
D. Weekend catch-up sleep can reduce heart disease risk.
D
The model called Agua Prope, meaning clean water, was presented by a team of middle school students from Houston. At the future City Nationals in Washington DC, the students’ goal was to build a city with a clean and reliable water supply. Many members on the Houston team have roots in Karachi, Pakistan largest and most contaminated (被污染的) city, where water shortages and access to clean water are a constant problem.
Karachi is quite underdeveloped now. Unlike in America, a lot of people are on the streets — they don’t have water to drink or they’re drinking contaminated water. It’s very hard to even like showers over the day. The government in Karachi says the city supplies only half of the water it needs daily. The consequences of Karachi’s water problems are heartbreaking. UNICEF reports every year 53 thousand children die of diarrhea (腹泻) caused by drinking contaminated water.
Students on the Houston team say their model includes a stable system, which monitors supply and demand, storage, filtration (过滤), and diversion of conventional as well as flood waters across the Jacksonville landscape.
The project Agua Prope is located in Jacksonville Florida, where the main problems are storm surges, hurricanes and floods. Actually a lot of problems caused by water shortage and pollution are going on internationally right now, especially in coastal cities. There, limited access to clean drinking water or drinking contaminated water may lead to developmental disorders and cancer-related issues.
Agua Prope model won the People’s Choice Award based on voting by the general public, and the best futuristic city award. This model calls for technology so advanced that it will be decades before it can be put into effect. But the students say they hope one day within the next 50 years their vision of a clean water city will become a reality.
32. Why did the students choose to focus on water problems
A. Their teacher forced them to choose this topic.
B. Water problems are rare in their hometown.
C. Many of them come from a city with serious water shortages.
D. They wanted to win an international science competition.
33. What does Paragraph 2 mainly talk about
A. The effects of contaminated water in Karachi.
B. The seriousness of water problems in Karachi and Pakistan.
C. The solutions to water problems in Karachi.
D. The history of water supply in Pakistan.
34. What problems does Jacksonville face
A. Earthquakes and droughts. B. Floods and hurricanes.
C. Volcanic eruptions and storms. D. Sandstorms and water shortages.
35. What can we infer about the Agua Prope model from the last paragraph
A. It is already being used in some cities. B. It will be built in Jacksonville first.
C. It is not yet possible to build with current technology. D. It is too expensive for any city to afford.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Recently, I gave my 88-year-old grandfather a call on his birthday. He was as energetic as ever. I know he’s a disciplined man who relies on very strict routines.____36____
As a matter of fact, you don’t need to look at scientific research on habits to figure out what to do.____37____ You’ll see the patterns. Look at the good things they do and copy them. That’s what I’ve been doing with my grandfather.
At first, I think you need to decide what habit you want to form. When you know what you want, it’s important to know when you want to do it. I often wake up at 6 a.m., do a three-mile run and have breakfast before I go to work. The exercise may seem a bit challenging but you can adjust the distance to suit yourself.____38____ For lifting weights, my goal is to do it for at least 30 minutes each time. For my runs, however, it’s a bit more flexible because it depends on how my legs feel.
Most people think it takes 66 days on average to form a habit.____39____ “In my experience, it takes a week to get used to doing something regularly. So if you wake up at the same time every day for a whole week, you can count on yourself to do it every day from that point.”
____40____Why set the bar low You can make it if you go all out.
A. That’s great advice.
B. Let’s make that a good habit
C. However, my grandfather will disagree.
D. I think you need some heavy-duty advice.
E. But I realized I never asked him about his secret.
F. Besides, I like to measure my habits whenever possible.
G. Just look at what a healthy family member does if you have one.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
At 19, Ben Francis, who didn’t inherit (继承) wealth, saved tips from his late-night Pizza Hut delivery runs to buy a second-hand sewing machine, co-founding Gymshark, a fitness clothing brand (品牌) for gym-goers, with his friend Lewis Morgan. Their first ____41____ was to run a small website selling fitness goods, but Francis soon grew tired of his ____42____ gym clothes, deciding to ____43____ the business direction. They began to produce more well-fitted sportswear.
In 2013, they ____44____ Gymshark’s first samples into a backpack and took them to a bodybuilding show. With no money for ads, they followed a nervous guess — ____45____ free clothes to their favourite fitness YouTubers they’d long ____46____. “I just hoped my idols (偶像) would ____47____ us,” Francis said ____48____ then. To their ____49____, those creators wore Gymshark online, which made daily sales ____50____ from $450 to $45,000 overnight.
Eleven years later, 30-year-old Francis ____51____ the Forbes billionaires list (average age 65) with a $1.3 billion net worth. He resigned (辞职) CEO in 2017, ____52____ that he lacked leadership skills in his 20s. For the next four years, he ____53____ product and marketing chief to learn the business deeply before returning as CEO in 2021, when Gymshark was valued at $1.45 billion. “If we ____54____ working hard, we can be the UK’s answer to Nike and become a ____55____ brand,” Francis said confidently.
41. A. experience B. step C. challenge D. job
42. A. ill-fitting B. second-hand C. waterproof D. lightweight
43. A. maintain B. share C. change D. approach
44. A. translated B. introduced C. packed D. divided
45. A. gifting B. leading C. informing D. awarding
46. A. ignored B. admired C. discussed D. understood
47. A. remind B. touch C. notice D. replace
48. A. proudly B. shyly C. suddenly D. quietly
49. A. curiosity B. confusion C. joy D. regret
50. A. appear B. range C. vary D. jump
51. A. joined B. sorted C. deleted D. chose
52. A. pretending B. announcing C. refusing D. admitting
53. A. worked as B. took on C. sought out D. applied for
54. A. recommend B. escape C. imagine D. keep
55. A. local B. traditional C. global D. private
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Five-hundred-metre Aperture Spherical Telescope (FAST), China’s giant “Sky Eye”, is ____56____ (locate) in a natural karst depression (天然岩溶洼地) in Guizhou Province. This remote area was carefully selected due to its unique geological structure, ____57____ provides an ideal basin for the telescope and minimizes human electromagnetic interference (电磁干扰). Construction began in 2011 and ____58____ (complete) in 2016 after five years of hard work. Workers overcame challenges like transporting heavy materials through mountainous areas and precisely fitting thousands of reflective panels, ____59____ (turn) the natural basin into a scientific wonder. The project involved advanced engineering techniques, with teams cooperating closely ____60____ (ensure) every part was assembled (组装) accurately.
Since its operation, FAST ____61____ (make) remarkable achievements. It has detected hundreds of new pulsars (脉冲星), helping scientists study the mysteries of the universe. Moreover, it plays a key role in the search for extraterrestrial intelligence (外星人) ____62____ deep-space exploration. The telescope also participates in international projects, sharing data ____63____ global researchers. This promotes cooperation and speeds up astronomical discoveries worldwide.
FAST is not only the world’s largest single-dish radio telescope but also a symbol of China’s progress in astronomy. It ____64____ (great) improves our ability to explore the universe, winning global ____65____ (recognize) for its advanced technology and scientific contributions. This national project has firmly placed China at the forefront of astronomical research, inspiring future generations to pursue scientific exploration.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
66. 假定你是李华，你参加了全市中学生(高中组)“我心中的公园城市”为主题的绘画比赛，并获得了一等奖。请你给新西兰朋友Alice写一封邮件分享这一消息，内容包括：
1.介绍你的作品;
2.说明创作的理由。
参考词汇：公园城市 park city
注意：
1. 写作词数应为80个左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Alice,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
More than 40 years ago, when Tanya Eby was in sixth grade, her friends made a decision that shocked and upset her.
“The girls that I hung out with for lunch and played with had held a meeting and told me that I was no longer cool enough to hang out with them,” Eby recalled. “They would be ignoring me, and I was no longer part of the group. I would be all alone at school. I lost all my friends.”
Eby’s world was unraveling(崩塌) — but the loss of her friends was only part of the story. A few days later, she broke down in tears while in class, and her teacher, Mrs. Welch, who always had a nice, friendly attitude towards every student, pulled her into the teachers’ office to find out what was wrong.
“And I told her about the girls. But then I told her the rest of the story,” Eby said.
“And the rest of the story was, a few months prior to this happening, my mum and my stepdad decided my big brother—my anchor(支柱) in life—needed to go to live with my dad. So, overnight they took him and they dropped him off with my dad. So I woke up one morning and my brother was gone.”
Not long after, her stepdad left too. So, when the girls at school decided they weren’t going to be friends with her anymore, it was just the latest example of the people she cared about leaving without warning. She couldn’t believe everything that happened. She felt that the whole world had cheated her, and she asked herself why she had to bear so much misfortune.
“It felt like everywhere I turned, people I loved disappeared,” Eby said. “They stopped loving me and they didn’t tell me why and I had no control over it.”
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150个左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Eby cried as she told the whole story to Mrs. Welch.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Around 2002, when Eby began to teach writing to college students, she realized Mrs. Welch’s small act of caring had left a lasting mark.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2025~2026学年度高二年级11月质量检测英语
(试卷满分：150分，考试时间：120分钟)
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号;回答非选择题时，用0.5mm的黑色字迹签字笔将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，请将答题卡上交。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
【1题答案】
【答案】A
【2题答案】
【答案】B
【3题答案】
【答案】A
【4题答案】
【答案】C
【5题答案】
【答案】C
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
【6~7题答案】
【答案】6. B 7. C
【8~9题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. A
【10~12题答案】
【答案】10. B 11. C 12. A
【13~16题答案】
【答案】13. B 14. A 15. A 16. B
【17~20题答案】
【答案】17. C 18. C 19. B 20. A
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【21~23题答案】
【答案】21. D 22. D 23. C
B
【24~27题答案】
【答案】24. A 25. C 26. B 27. B
C
【28~31题答案】
【答案】28. B 29. A 30. A 31. D
D
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32. C 33. B 34. B 35. C
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. E 37. G 38. F 39. C 40. A
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【41~55题答案】
【答案】41 B 42. A 43. C 44. C 45. A 46. B 47. C 48. B 49. C 50. D 51. A 52. D 53. A 54. D 55. C
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
【56~65题答案】
【答案】56. located
57. which 58. was completed
59. turning
60. to ensure
61. has made
62. and 63. with
64. greatly
65. recognition
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【66题答案】
【答案】例文
Dear Alice,
I’m thrilled to share great news with you — I won the first prize in the city-wide high school students’ painting competition themed “The Park City in My Heart”!
My work shows a beautiful scene: there are lush green parks everywhere in the city. Small lakes sparkle in the sun, with ducks swimming happily. People walk on tree-lined paths, some chatting and some taking photos. What’s more, tall buildings stand harmoniously with the green spaces, and solar panels are installed on many roofs.
I created this painting because our city has been working hard to build a park city. Besides, I want to show how wonderful it is when nature and urban life blend well.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
【67题答案】
【答案】例文
Eby cried as she told the whole story to Mrs. Welch. Mrs. Welch listened patiently, her eyes full of sympathy. Then she gave Eby a warm hug and said softly, “Tanya, I know it’s hard for you now, but these difficulties won’t last forever. Don’t let others’ decisions or the sudden changes in life defeat you. Try to find new friends who will cherish you, and also, focus on your studies. You have the power to make your world better.” These words were like a ray of sunshine, warming Eby’s broken heart and giving her the courage to face the future.
Around 2002, when Eby began to teach writing to college students, she realized Mrs. Welch’s small act of caring had left a lasting mark. She started to pay close attention to her students’ emotional needs. Whenever a student was in trouble, she would talk to them patiently, just like Mrs. Welch had done to her. She also shared her own story with the students, telling them that a little kindness from a teacher could change a student’s life. Eby hoped to pass on the warmth she received, helping more students get through their hard times and grow into better people.

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