资源简介

高二期中联考
英语
考生注意：
1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将考生号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
Where is the man going
A. To a lake. B. To a museum. C. To a restaurant.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What does the man promise to do for the woman
A. Pick up her sister. B. Look after her child. C. Drive her to the airport.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. An app. B. A plan. C. An English course.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
When will the woman go to see the doctor
A. On Tuesday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Thursday.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
How should the man improve his article
A. By adding main information.
B. By correcting grammar mistakes.
C. By removing unnecessary parts.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
6 Where does the woman think she might have lost her cell phone
A. In a park. B. In a supermarket. C. On her way to the hotel.
7. What could the man be
A. A policeman. B. A taxi driver. C. A hotel worker.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
8. Why does the woman make the call
A. To call off an order.
B. To make sure of the bill.
C. To report an incomplete order.
9. What did the man forget to do
A. Contact the supplier.
B. Keep the woman updated.
C. Meet with some customers.
10. How many pink roses will the woman receive in total
A. 50. B. 100. C. 200.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
11. What did Nick intend to do before the accident happened
A. Feed the cat. B. Get the juice. C. Cook the meal.
12. What happened to Nick
A. He got hurt. B. He injured his cat. C. He broke his leg.
13. Where did Nick spend the weekend
A. At home. B. In the hospital. C. At his sister’s place.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
14. What is Tom doing probably
A. Fishing with his classmate. B. Reading a cartoon. C. Doing his homework.
15. What’s the probable relationship between David and Teddy
A. Father and son. B. Teacher and student. C. Employer and employee.
16. Which of the following does the woman prefer to do
A. Do shopping. B. Go fishing. C. Watch TV.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
17. What has the zoo recently done
A. It has enlarged its space.
B. It has built more parking lots.
C. It has introduced new rules.
18. Why did the zoo give up the dog-walking area
A. The costs were too high.
B. It should put wild animals first.
C. Dogs may cause trouble to visitors.
19. What animal may be the most popular at the zoo
A. The lion. B. The kangaroo. C. The bear.
20. What can visitors get with five dollars
A. A guided tour of the zoo.
B. Entry to the visitor center.
C. A picture taken with Frisbee.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
For travelers seeking extraordinary experiences, these four destinations offer golden opportunities to see rare (珍稀的) wildlife, explore untouched environments, and enjoy breathtaking landscapes. Each location combines natural beauty with protection efforts, making them ideal for responsible tourism.
NORTHLAND, NEW ZEALAND
International travelers landing in Auckland usually head south, but the less-visited Northland region offers excellent diving in the Poor Knights ocean reserve, home to animals like spotted black groper and Lord Howe coral fish, which are found nowhere else in the world. On land, normally hard-to-see kiwis are doing well thanks to community-led protection projects creating safe areas for these beloved birds.
OCALA NATIONAL FOREST, FLORIDA
While most visitors crowd to Central Florida’s theme parks, Ocala National Forest remains a green getaway as the southernmost national forest in the mainland United States. Home to manatees, black bears, and rare plants across 600 lakes and natural springs, the forest features improved paths and fishing spots while actively bringing back its unique plant cover by removing harmful species.
RAJA AMPAT, INDONESIA
This faraway group of islands is an ocean wonderland with 500 sea rock types and over a thousand colorful fish species, where large sea rays and sea cows swim alongside recovering zebra shark populations. Accessible only by ship, Raja Ampat will see new pleasure boat trips in 2025, plus traditional phinisi ship rentals and National Geographic’ s 20-day “Exploring Indonesia by Sea” cruise (巡航).
MURRAY RIVER, AUSTRALIA
As the world’s third longest river for boats, the Murray river flows 1,500 miles through Australia’s heartland. The new PS Australian Star starts in June 2025, offering multi-night cruises from Echuca featuring riverside barbecues, wine tasting, wildlife spotting, and visits to historic sites like Perricoota Station.
21. What is a feature of Northland
A. It is popular among locals. B. It shelters unique ocean species.
C. It protects various native birds. D. It is foreign tourists’ first choice.
22. What do Ocala National Forest and Raja Ampat have in common
A. They can be reached by ship only.
B. They sit among a number of islands.
C. They organize activities in theme parks.
D. They make great efforts in nature protection.
23. Where is this text most probably taken from
A. A travel journal. B. A course plan. C. A report. D. A guidebook.
B
Faced with climate challenges threatening her crops Lakkhampa, a Thai farmer, sought ways to make her farm stronger. She aimed to grow different kinds of crops, save water, and improve soil health. This led her to a training program started by PepsiCo and GIZ, a German organization for international teamwork, under the develoPPP project. The program was designed to help Thai potato farmers adapt to climate change through environmentally friendly farming practices.
Before she eagerly joined the training in 2022, Lakkhampa had been using traditional methods. The develoPPP program offered many learning chances, like training courses and visits to a model farm. She quickly began to learn and apply several innovative methods.
For her rice fields, she practiced switching between wetting and drying the soil. This means sometimes removing the water from the field and sometimes filling it again. This method uses 30% less water and produces fewer greenhouse gases. After gathering rice, she planted potatoes in the same field. This “integrated farming” approach, along with careful drop-by-drop watering for her corn and potatoes, allowed her to use fewer insect-killing chemicals and fertilizers while achieving better crops and a higher income. She effectively made her farming able to face future challenges.
Her success did not go unnoticed. Recognizing her potential, the program leaders encouraged her to become a trainer. Lakkhampa soon began speaking at women farmer training courses and guiding others. She became a trailblazer in her community and one of her rice fields became a model field, where neighbors could see her effective methods firsthand, building trust and inspiring knowledge sharing within the community.
The develoPPP program, having educated over 3,000 farmers in Thailand, shows the power of joint efforts. It enables farmers to work together, strengthening their practices and management to meet market demands. From 2022 to 2024, these farmers increased their income by over 50% and reduced greenhouse gas emissions per ton produced by 27%. Lakkhampa’s story proves that change often starts small — with one farmer, one field, one idea — creating lasting hope for the future.
24. Why did Lakkhampa join the develoPPP program
A. To make more like-minded friends.
B. To meet the needs of the local market.
C. To learn ways to deal with climate change.
D. To teach other women farmers in her community.
25. What is a direct benefit of the “wetting and drying” method
A. It frees crops from diseases.
B. It enriches the soil with natural fertilizers.
C. It lowers the environmental impact of farming.
D. It allows different crops to grow at the same time.
26. What does the underlined word “trailblazer” in paragraph 4 mean
A. Pioneer. B. Performer. C. Observer. D. Designer.
27. Which of the following is the best title for the text
A. A Farmer’s Path to a Lasting Future
B. Advanced Technology in Modern Agriculture
C. Climate Change: A Great Challenge to Thai Farmers
D. PepsiCo and GIZ: A Partnership for Global Business
C
First proposed in the 1920s by Alfred Adler, the birth order theory (理论) suggests that the child’s position in the family may shape key characters. While not exact science, it offers some interesting thoughts.
Eldest children often show leadership qualities and a strong drive for success. Many wellknown leaders and CEOs are firstborns. Research shows they tend to get better grades and often have higher IQs, possibly resulting from the fact that they receive more attention from parents. The “eldest daughter phenomenon” further explains this: firstborn girls often take on a parent-like role, becoming both high achievers and anxious people-pleasers.
In contrast, younger kids are usually seen as more easy-going and humorous. According to a YouGov survey, the youngest child is usually the “funniest in the family”. This may be why so many famous comic masters are the youngest in their families. In sports, the “younger kid effect” suggests younger kids are more likely to become top athletes, probably because they grew up competing with their elder brothers or sisters.
Middle children, however, often say they feel left out—a situation known as the “middle-child pattern”. It’s interesting to note that there’s limited research on middle children, which seems to prove the point. One survey about family positions completely ignored middle children, focusing only on the oldest and youngest.
Only children often break the “selfish only child” stereotype (刻板印象). Studies show that they are as sociable and emotionally well-adapted as children with siblings (兄弟姐妹). Like firstborns, they are often high achievers, and are also very creative, likely because they spend more time alone, learning to entertain themselves.
Birth order may even affect food preferences and health. Firstborns are more likely to enjoy complex flavors like dark chocolate, probably because parents took more time to introduce different foods to them. Younger kids, however, are often physically stronger, thanks to early contact with germs (病菌) brought home by older siblings.
While birth order doesn’t determine us completely, it provides interesting views on our behaviors and preferences. Understanding these patterns can help us appreciate how family relationships contribute to making us who we are.
28. What may account for firstborns’ better academic performance
A. More parental attention. B. Strong hope to please parents.
C. Their natural leadership abilities. D. The desire to set an example.
29. What can be inferred about the youngest children in the family
A. They receive the least attention from parents.
B. They benefit from early family competition.
C. They usually feel pressure to become comic masters.
D. They have weaker ability to fight sickness than others.
30. What does the text say about only children
A. They regard themselves as the center.
B. They tend to be capable and imaginative.
C. They struggle to organize their time reasonably.
D. They are less socially comfortable than children with siblings.
31. What does the author think of the birth order theory
A. Misleading. B. Impractical. C. Meaningless. D. Useful.
D
A groundbreaking AI model developed by Stanford University researchers is changing how virtual characters communicate, enabling them to gesture naturally while speaking. This technological advancement creates the way for more realistic AI newsreaders, virtual influencers, and digital assistants that move and express themselves in very human-like ways.
When humans communicate, we naturally use body language like hand movements and head turns to stress points and show emotions. However, traditional digital characters and video game characters typically rely on repetitive, common gestures that often feel disconnected from their actual speech content, creating an unnatural viewing experience.
To address this limitation, the research team led by Changan Chen employed an innovative training approach. They gave their AI system mass data:1,000 hours of audiobooks paired with matching text, along with 60 hours of video recordings showing people’s natural gestures during conversation. This large training allowed the AI to understand relationships between spoken words, textual meaning, and the physical movements that go with them.
The model has remarkable learning capabilities, recognizing small but important patterns in human communication——such as how people naturally turn their heads before making major hand gestures, or how voice variations match specific emotional states. This understanding enables the AI to produce context-appropriate gestures using fewer examples than previous systems required.
Unlike earlier technologies that processed either text or audio (音频), this innovative model integrates both kinds of information at the same time. Remarkably, it can even figure out emotional states only from movement patterns, without any audio cues (提示). In comparative testing, the system did much better than existing AI models, producing more varied and expressive gestures that closely match human behavior.
The technology holds practical value across various fields. It can contribute to more engaging AI assistants and virtual customer service representatives, while also promoting character movements in video games and films. As the technology advances, we move closer to a future where digital beings communicate as naturally as humans, completely reshaping how we communicate with virtual characters.
32. What is a limitation of traditional virtual characters
A. They take on the same appearance.
B. They can’t understand human emotions well.
C. Their gestures don’t match their speech naturally.
D. Their facial expressions are too difficult to understand.
33. How did the research team train their AI system
A. By entering clear instructions. B. By making recordings of its progress.
C. By carrying out conversations with it. D. By feeding it with related materials.
34. What is special about the new AI model
A. It can tell emotions by movements.
B. It can process text and audio separately.
C. It focuses mainly on large gesture patterns.
D. It requires more training examples than before.
35. What does the last paragraph mainly talk about
A. The primary challenges waiting ahead.
B. The potential application of the system.
C. The technical basics behind the system.
D. The high need for better customer service.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Self-doubt is a common mental experience that can prevent us from realizing our full potential. It often arises during periods of change or when we face new challenges. ____36____ The practical strategies listed below can help you manage it effectively and recover your confidence.
To begin with, be kind to yourself. Many of us tend to be our own strictest critics, especially when things don’t go as planned. It’s not a wise choice. ____37____ Adding encouraging self-talk to your morning routine can noticeably improve your overall mood and increase your confidence throughout the day.
____38____ Constantly measuring your achievements against others’ often creates unnecessary pressure and messes with your self-image. It’s important to remember that each person’s life journey is unique, with different starting points and paces. Your primary focus should remain on your own progress and personal goals.
Regularly reflecting on your past success provides another powerful tool against self-doubt. ____39____ This simple practice serves as solid evidence (证据) of your capabilities. Maintaining an achievement journal where you record these successful moments creates a personal source of encouragement when doubt slides in.
To protect your mental well-being and personal growth, make an effort to surround yourself with supportive people. Negative individuals can increase self-doubt and influence your mental health. In contrast, supportive friends will encourage you to improve and lead you through challenges. ____40____ They can also help you recover from stress, truly showing the wisdom that “you are known by the company you keep.”
In conclusion, while self-doubt is a universal experience, it doesn’t have to decide who you are. Through regular practice of these strategies and maintaining a growth mindset, you can overcome self-doubt and move forward with greater confidence and self-assurance.
A. Avoid comparing yourself with others.
B. It brings both great chances and suffering.
C. However, this doesn’t mean we’re powerless against it.
D. Therefore, it is important to face your weaknesses bravely
E. They can help you see your strengths when you feel uncertain.
F. For example, think back to a time when you succeeded in a difficult task.
G. Instead try to accept your mistakes as valuable opportunities to learn and grow.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
What began as a sweet tradition between a father and his daughter has turned into a movement of compassion (同情) that touches lives far beyond their family. When Rosie Paulik ____41____ a summer camp as a child, her dad, Bu: Ecker, began writing her letters every day. He kept up the ____42____ through her college years and even after she moved back home to Cincinnati. These letters, filled with warmth, humor, and wisdom, became ____43____ of childhood and symbols of unconditional love.
Years later, ____44____ her retired father had more time, Rosie had an idea. She ____45____ a short video on TikTok: “My dad loves writing letters. Would anyone like one from a dad ” The ____46____ was extraordinary. Within days, thousands of heartfelt ____47____ poured in — from grieving (悲痛的) sons, lonely students, soldiers overseas, and people who never ____48____ their father. And so, The Dad Letter Project was born.
Today, Buz writes ____49____, often late into the night, making personal notes to strangers across America. Each letter ____50____ encouragement, gentle advice, or simply the ____51____: “Someone out there cares about you.” For many ____52____ , it’s the first letter they’ve ever got from a father figure.
In a world where digital messages disappear in seconds, Buz’s pen moves slowly, healing (治愈) hearts one page at a time. His ____53____ reminds us that small acts of kindness, rooted in ____54____ and devotion, can grow into something far greater than we imagine. True connection doesn’t require ____55____ actions — just a willing heart, a blank sheet of paper, and the courage to say, “I care.”
41. A. talked about B. headed to C. looked into D. waited for
42. A. practice B. expectation C. rule D. result
43. A. dreams B. advantages C. achievements D. treasures
44. A. proving B. hoping C. noticing D. indicating
45. A. posted B. watched C. discovered D. reviewed
46. A. bond B. response C. experiment D. comparison
47. A. praises B. congratulations C. applications D. suggestions.
48. A. knew B. respected C. missed D. upset
49. A. secretly B. aimlessly C. awkwardly D. continuously
50. A. tracks B. carries C. seeks D. selects
51. A. agreement B. explanation C. message D. invitation
52. A. receivers B. advisors C. competitors D. partners
53. A. comment B. talent C. challenge D. story
54. A. fairness B. love C. trust D. wisdom
55. A. suitable B. similar C. remarkable D. polite
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式，并将答案填写在答题卡上。
The Hubei Provincial Museum, ____56____ (sit) by a large lake and shaded by trees, occupies a quiet corner in the busy city of Wuhan. Inside, Fang Guorong, 62, and Fang Chen,32, jointly lifted a 12 kg bronze object in an attempt ____57____ (return) a huge and ancient bianzhong, or chime bell, to its original state.
The Fangs, father and son, both work ____58____ (responsible) as relic restorers (文物修复师) at the museum. The 150 kg chime bell they were taking care of is the heaviest one here, ____59____ (dig) out from a 2,500-year-old tomb in Suizhou, Hubei, in 2009.
The chime bell, ____60____ became popular in China during the Western Zhou Dynasty(1046 — 771 B. C.), is a type of musical instrument. The country’s largest set of chime bell ever unearthed was found in 1978, also in Suizhou, in the tomb of Marquis Yi, a ruler of the ancient Zeng State. The set of 65 chime bells is a key highlight of the various collections in the museum.
Fang Guorong ____61____ (be) an important part of the restoration work for more than 40 years, since he became a staff member of the museum. He takes part in countless restoration projects ____62____ even serves as the technical director in lots of duplicate projects.
____63____ process of chi me bell restoration includes designing, wax mold-making, investment casting, welding, polishing and antique finishing. That demands both skill and ____64____ (patient). Luckily, in recent years, digital technologies can ____65____ (use) effectively in the restoration of relics, saving more artifacts.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
66. 假定你是某国际学校学生会主席李华，你校计划下周举办运动会，请你写一则通知，内容包括：
1. 运动会安排；
2. 号召参加。
注意：1. 写作词数应为80个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Notice
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
The Student Union
第二节（满分25分）
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Sumi is a single mother, whose daughter Anna has always been called “Number 23”. Every time the school published exam results, Anna would always end up in the 23rd position among 50 pupils. Always 23, no matter what topic or term. Every time Sumi heard that moniker (绰号), she became concerned.
Sumi ran a service firm planning small events — outdoor short journeys for staff and their families or weekend parties. The discussion nearly always focused on their children as most of her staff were parents. You know how it goes — one parent discussed their child’s piano honors, while another boasted (夸耀) about math Olympiads or leadership responsibilities. Sumi would simply sit there, softly nodding, feeling uncomfortable. While others were honoring these great youngsters, all she could think about was Anna and her moniker, Number 23.
One day, Sumi and Anna were invited to a nice get-together. The adults gathered around a big round table, and as the lunch came to an end, someone playfully asked the youngsters what they wanted to be when they grew up. One after another, the children gave their bold, ambitious answers — to be a pianist, to be a famous actor, to start a business and make tons of money. The adults clapped and praised each one.
Anna didn’t answer. She was more interested in quietly helping out — bringing cups of soup, handing cookies around. She was just in her own little world, gladly helping.
Then the same person who raised the question looked at Anna and added, “Hey, our Anna hasn’t told us yet. What do you want to be when you grow up ” Anna paused (停顿). Then she smiled and said, “I want to be a teacher. I love little kids. I love singing and playing with them.” And suddenly, the whole room just…became quiet. It hit Sumi hard. It was like her heart got caught in her throat.
注意：
1.续写词数应为150个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Later, on the journey back, they were held up by traffic.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Not long after the get-together, Sumi got a phone call from Anna’s teacher.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
高二期中联考
英语
考生注意：
1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将考生号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
【1题答案】
【答案】C
【2题答案】
【答案】B
【3题答案】
【答案】A
【4题答案】
【答案】B
【5题答案】
【答案】C
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
【6~7题答案】
【答案】6. C 7. A
【8~10题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. B 10. C
【11~13题答案】
【答案】11. B 12. A 13. A
【14~16题答案】
【答案】14. B 15. A 16. C
【17~20题答案】
【答案】17. A 18. B 19. B 20. C
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
【21~23题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. D 23. D
B
【24~27题答案】
【答案】24. C 25. C 26. A 27. A
C
【28~31题答案】
【答案】28. A 29. B 30. B 31. D
D
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32. C 33. D 34. A 35. B
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36 C 37. G 38. A 39. F 40. E
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
【41~55题答案】
【答案】41. B 42. A 43. D 44. C 45. A 46. B 47. C 48. A 49. D 50. B 51. C 52. A 53. D 54. B 55. C
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
【56~65题答案】
【答案】56. sitting
57. to return
58. responsibly
59. dug 60. which
61. has been
62. and 63. The
64. patience
65. be used
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
【66题答案】
【答案】One possible version:
Notice
To promote physical fitness and team spirit, our school will hold the annual Sports Meeting next Thursday on the school playground.
The event will kick off at 8:00 a.m. with an opening ceremony. After that, competitions including 100m races, the high jump, and 4×100m relays will take place. All students are expected to take an active part in the grand meeting. Whoever would like to sign up for events is supposed to register with your PE teacher by next Tuesday.
Please wear comfortable sportswear and sports shoes on that day. Be cautious to follow the staff’s instructions to stay safe and enjoy the fun of sports.
It’s a perfect chance to show your talent. Your participation is highly valued!
The Student Union
第二节（满分25分）
【67题答案】
【答案】Later, on the journey back, they were held up by traffic. Sumi turned to Anna, her eyes soft. “Honey, your dream is wonderful,” she said gently. Anna tilted her head, confused. “But I’m not as good as others at exams,” she murmured. Sumi took her hand, “Being kind and loving is far more precious. The way you helped everyone today made you the brightest kid there.” Anna’s face lit up, and Sumi felt a weight lift from her chest.
Not long after the get-together Sumi got a phone call from Anna’s teacher. “Mrs. Sumi, I must praise Anna,” the teacher said excitedly. “She spends her break helping classmates who fall behind, especially the little ones. It is her patience and warmth that have made our class much more united. Grades aren’t everything — she’s a natural teacher and a joy to have.” Sumi smiled through tears, finally proud of her “Number 23”.

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