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2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期末考试（浙江专用）
英 语
（考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分）
学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________
考生注意：
1.本试题卷共10页，满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试范围：七上Starter Units1-Unit7（人教版2024）[2025年浙江省最新中考题型]
参考答案
题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
答案 C A A B B A C A C B
题号 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
答案 A A C C B B D A A C
题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
答案 B D A D D C A B A B
题号 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
答案 C B D A C C A B A D
题号 46 47 48 49 50
答案 A C A B A
1．C
【原文】A: I can’t find my English book. Do you see it
B: No. Is it on your bed
A: No. Oh, it is on my desk.
2．A
【原文】M: Hello! What’s your name
W: Hello! I’m Lucy.
3．A
【原文】W: Good morning. My name is Helen. What’s your name
M: My name is Jack. Nice to meet you, Helen.
W: Nice to meet you, too.
4．B
【原文】A: Hello, Peter. How’s it going
B: I’m fine, thank you.
5．B
【原文】W: What club do you want to join this term, Roy
M: The poem club. What about you, Paula You’re good at playing badminton, right
W: Yes. I was in the badminton club last term. This term I’m going to join the chess club.
M: Oh, my sister Sissy happens to be a member of that club.
6．A 7．C
【原文】W: I can’t find my trousers, Dad.
M: Are they blue, Alice
W: Yes, they are.
M: Look! They’re under the chair. You need to keep your room tidy.
W: Oh. Sorry, Dad.
8．A 9．C 10．B
【原文】A: What time do you usually get up, Tony
B: I always get up at about six thirty.
A: That’s early. Who makes breakfast for you
B: My mother usually does it. My father works in the hospital. He is too busy.
A: Well, where does your mother work
B: She works in a shop. She sells shoes.
A: How does she go to work
B: She goes to work by subway. But sometimes she walks there.
A: Where does she have lunch
B: She has lunch in the shop. It takes her too much time to come back home for lunch.
11．A 12．A 13．C 14．C 15．B
【原文】
Hello, everyone. Welcome to our class. Let me show you around. This is our classroom. It’s big and clean. Look, a map of China is on the wall. My desk is next to the window. I can see the trees outside. Our English teacher, Ms. Brown, is very nice. She always helps us. She is also strict about our homework. We have classes from 8 a.m. to 4 p.m. It’s a little busy, but I have a good time with my friends here. I think you will like our school life.
16．B 17．D 18．A
本文是一篇课堂自我介绍的场景描述，目的是让大家互相了解并交朋友。
16．细节理解题。根据“Sophie…I enjoy playing the guitar and want to be a singer one day!”可知，Sophie想成为歌手。故选B。
17．细节理解题。根据“I’m Dennis. I’m a thirteen-year-old boy from the UK.”可知，Dennis是13岁的英国男孩。故选D。
18．主旨大意题。根据“please introduce yourselves so you can get to know each other better. It’s a great way to make friends!”可知，目的是让大家互相了解。故选A。
19．A 20．C 21．B 22．D
本文主要讲述了Ben的家庭生活情况，包括他们的住所、家庭成员、日常生活以及公寓的布局等。
19．细节理解题。根据“My father works (工作) in the city, so he goes to work by train every day.”可知，爸爸在城里工作，所以他每天坐火车去上班。故选A。
20．细节理解题。根据“Our apartment has three bedrooms...There is also a living room, a kitchen and a bathroom in the apartment.”可知，公寓共有6个房间，分别是3个卧室、1个客厅、1个厨房和1个浴室。故选C。
21．主旨大意题。根据第四段“Our family are not free (空闲的). I often go to school from Monday to Friday, and I must do my homework every day. My father has much work to do every day, so he goes home late (晚的). My mother is a cook. She keeps cooking and doesn’t have a rest.”可知，本段主要讲述家庭成员各自忙碌的状态。故选B。
22．细节理解题。根据“We do not have a garden, but there is a small balcony (阳台). There are some flowers on the balcony.”可知，有一个小阳台，阳台上种了一些花。故选D。
23．A 24．D 25．D 26．C
本文讲述了Emma和Alex在花园里观察云朵，并根据云朵的形状展开想象的故事。
23．细节理解题。根据“They are sitting outside in their garden.”可知，Emma和Alex正在花园里。故选A。
24．细节理解题。根据文中描述可知，云彩被形容为a duck，a big dog，a monkey，a big flower，a woman with long hair，a tree和a bus with a lot of people，共有7种事物。故选D。
25．推理判断题。根据“To me it looks like rain!”可知，接下来很可能会下雨，Emma和Alex很可能跑回屋里看着雨落下。故选D。
26．最佳标题题。文章围绕 Emma和Alex凭想象力把天空中的云彩看成各种图像展开，最能概括文章内容的标题为“Pictures in the Sky”。故选C。
27．A 28．B 29．A 30．B
本文主要介绍了Sarah一家四口人的生活和工作情况。
27．细节理解题。根据“Sarah and Jack are a happy family with two kids, Peter and Mary.”可知，Sarah有两个孩子。故选A。
28．细节理解题。根据“Every morning, Sarah wakes up at 7:00. She takes a shower and cooks breakfast for everyone.”可知，Sarah给家人做早餐。故选B。
29．细节理解题。根据“When Sarah comes home, she loves playing games with Peter and Mary. They often play chess.”可知，Sarah下班回家后通常和孩子一起下棋。故选A。
30．推理判断题。根据“For Sarah, life is not easy. But she still enjoys her work and time with her family.”并结合全文内容可知，Sarah觉得生活不容易，很累，但同时也是开心的。故选B。
31．D 32．E 33．B 34．A 35． Jane’s I like watching movies
本文主要介绍了几个人的家庭传统。
31．根据“My family take turns (轮流) picking a movie to watch together...We also make pizza and eat it in front of the TV”可知她的家人轮流挑选一部电影一起看，他们还做披萨，在电视机前吃，选项D“电影和披萨之夜”符合。故选D。
32．根据“My favorite birthday meal is spaghetti and meatballs”可知她最喜欢的生日大餐是意大利面和肉丸，选项E“生日餐”符合。故选E。
33．根据“Every Friday night, we have games night”可知每周五晚上，他们都有比赛之夜，选项B“游戏之夜”符合。故选B。
34．根据“Every year, on Mother’s Day, I make breakfast for my mother”可知每年母亲节，他都会给妈妈做早餐，选项A“母亲节早餐”符合。故选A。
35．开放性试题，言之有理即可。参考答案为Jane’s；I like watching movies。
36．C 37．B 38．D 39．A 40．C 41．C 42．A 43．B 44．A 45．D 46．A 47．C 48．A 49．B 50．A
本文主要介绍了作者的新朋友李刚的家庭情况，擅长的事情以及他目前面临的问题。
36．他来自安徽。
for为了；on在上面；from从；by通过。be from“来自”，故选C。
37．他的父母现在工作并住在南京。
sisters姐妹们；parents父母；toys玩具；pictures照片。根据“ with his parents”可知，此处介绍的是他的父母，故选B。
38．他们是一个幸福的家庭。
home家；team队伍；class班级；family家庭。根据“They are a happy”可知，是一个幸福的家庭，故选D。
39．李刚所有的功课都学得很好。
at在；in在里面；with和；of……的。根据“good…all his lessons”可知，功课学得很好，be good at“擅长”，故选A。
40．每个人都说他是一个好学生和一个好儿子。
talks谈论；speaks说；says说，强调说的内容；looks看。根据“he is a good student and a good son”可知，此处强调说的内容，故选C。
41．在学校，李刚喜欢踢足球，他足球踢得很好。
wants想要；needs需要；likes喜欢；hopes希望。根据“playing soccer”可知，此空应填入一个动词，后可接动词ing，like doing sth符合，故选C。
42．他想加入学校足球队。
get得到；turn转向；call称呼；ask要求。根据“into the school soccer team”可知，此处指进入足球队，get into“进入”，故选A。
43．他说踢足球可以让他感觉很好。
me我；him他；us我们；you你们。根据“He says playing soccer makes … feel great.”可知，让他感觉很好，故选B。
44．他想在世界杯里踢足球。
play玩；know知道；start开始；finish完成。根据“He says playing soccer”及“in the World Cup”可知，想在世界杯里踢足球，故选A。
45．我希望他的梦想可以实现。
your你的；my我的；her她的；his他的。此处指李刚的梦想可以实现，应填his，故选D。
46．它让他开心。
happy开心的；sad难过的；big大的；old老的。根据“he likes listening to music”可知，喜欢听音乐，因为听音乐可以让他开心，故选A。
47．但是李刚也有他的问题。
Or或者；So因此；But但是；Then然后。“Li Gang has his problems”与前文是转折关系，故选C。
48．他放学后必须做家务。
do做；make制造；have有；find找到。do housework“做家务”，故选A。
49．那他就没有太多时间踢足球了。
place地方；time时间；term学期；lesson教训。根据“a lot of housework after school”及“Then he doesn’t have much … for soccer. ”可知，放学后要做家务，没有时间踢足球，故选B。
50．所以他为他的家人做饭，并帮助他的妹妹做作业。
helps帮助；tells告诉；takes带走；works工作。help sb with sth“帮助某人做某事”，故选A。
51．His 52．friends 53．near 54．sheep 55．plays
本文是一篇记叙文，主要讲述了杰西卡的学校生活，介绍了她的同学、朋友以及他们最喜欢的阅读角。
51．他的名字叫杰森。根据“The boy in a blue jacket is my classmate”并结合备选词汇可知，此处指男孩的名字是杰森，需用he形容词性物主代词his，句首首字母大写。故填His。
52．我们班有一些好朋友 —— 爱丽丝、弗兰克和辛迪。根据后文列举的“Alice, Frank and Cindy”并结合备选词汇可知，此处需用friend的复数形式friends表示多个朋友。故填friends。
53．它在图书馆附近，所以我们可以很容易地借书。根据“It’s…the library, so we can borrow books easily.”并结合备选词汇可知，此处指方位，表示在图书馆附近，near符合。故填near。
54．角落旁边有三只小羊；它们来自我们学校的农场，有时会在附近吃草。根据“they’re from our school farm and they sometimes eat grass nearby”并结合备选词汇可知，此处指羊，“sheep”的单复数形式相同。故填sheep。
55．他每周课后都和我们一起踢足球。play football“踢足球”，句子时态为一般现在时，主语为“He”，用三单形式plays。故填plays。
56．husband 57．farm 58．sheep 59．job 60．handsome 61．chess 62．same 63．funny 64．hat 65．band
本文是Susan Green介绍自己的家庭情况。
56．我的丈夫Alan Green是个农民。husband“丈夫”，此处用名词单数。故填husband。
57．他每天花很多时间照顾农场上的动物。farm“农场”，on the farm“在农场上”。故填farm。
58．有一些种类的动物，如牛、马、鸭、鹅和绵羊。sheep“绵羊”，根据“cows, horses, ducks, geese”可知，此处用名词复数，sheep的复数是原形。故填sheep。
59．他总是说他非常热爱他的工作。job“工作”，名词作宾语。故填job。
60．Tom二十五岁，是个英俊的男孩。handsome“英俊的”，形容词作定语。故填handsome。
61．我们经常在网上一起下国际象棋和聊天。chess“国际象棋”，play chess“下国际象棋”。故填chess。
62．他们年龄相同，但在许多方面不同。same“相同的”，形容词作定语。故填same。
63．Bob很幽默，总是知道如何用他好笑的故事逗我们笑。funny“好笑的”，形容词作定语。故填funny。
64．Ben有点安静，喜欢走到哪儿都戴着他最喜欢的帽子。hat“帽子”，此处是指最喜欢的帽子，用名词单数。故填hat。
65．她希望加入一支好的乐队。band“乐队”，a后跟名词单数。故填band。
66．years 67．reading 68．see 69．an 70．and 71．shelves 72．is 73．to 74．kinds 75．us
本文是一篇自我介绍，作者卢阳介绍了自己的年龄、学校、家庭阅读习惯以及自己创建的共享图书馆，并邀请大家来共享图书馆一起阅读。
66．我12岁，来自温州。根据“twelve”可知，此处表示12岁，year应用复数形式years。故填years。
67．我的父母和我都非常喜欢读书。根据“enjoy”可知，enjoy doing sth.“喜欢做某事”，因此应用read的动名词reading作宾语。故填reading。
68．在我们家里你可以看到很多书。根据“can”可知，情态动词后应用动词原形see。故填see。
69．我有一个想法。根据“idea”可知，此处泛指一个想法，且idea以元音音素开头，应用不定冠词an。故填an。
70．它既漂亮又干净。根据“beautiful”和“clean”可知，两者为并列关系，应用连词and连接。故填and。
71．房间里有两个书架。根据“Two book”可知，此处应用shelf的复数形式shelves。故填shelves。
72．里面有一张绿色沙发，八把红色椅子和两张黄色沙发。根据“a green sofa”可知，主语为单数，且句子为一般现在时，be动词应用is。故填is。
73．下午4点左右，一些男孩和女孩来到我们家。根据“come”和“our house”可知，此处表示来到我们家，应用come to our house。故填to。
74．他们在这里读很多种类的书。根据“many”可知，此处表示很多种类的书，kind应用复数形式kinds。故填kinds。
75．来这里和我们一起读书吧。根据“with”可知，with为介词，后应用代词we的宾格形式us。故填us。
76．例文
Dear Helen,
I’m so happy to know you will come to study in my school. Our school is modern with beautiful gardens and excellent facilities. My favorite subject is English because I enjoy communicating with people from different cultures. We have various clubs like Debate, Music and Robotics. I joined the Photography Club where we learn creative skills and organize exhibitions.
Welcome to our school. Looking forward to seeing you soon!
Yours,
Li Hua
[总体分析]
① 题材：本文是一篇应用文，为一封电子邮件；
② 时态：时态为“一般现在时”；
③ 提示：写作要点已经给出，注意不要遗漏，可适当增加细节。
[写作步骤]
第一步，介绍自己的学校及学校的基础设施；
第二步，介绍最喜爱的科目及原因；
第三步，介绍学校的俱乐部。
[亮点词汇]
①excellent facilities完善的基础设施
②communicate with sb和某人交流
[高分句型]
①My favorite subject is English because I enjoy communicating with people from different cultures. (because引导的原因状语从句)
②I joined the Photography Club where we learn creative skills and organize exhibitions. (where引导的定语从句)2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期末考试（浙江专用）
英 语
（考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分）
学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________
考生注意：
1.本试题卷共10页，满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试范围：七上Starter Units1-Unit7（人教版2024）[2025年浙江省最新中考题型]
第一部分 听力 (满分20分)
第一节：听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1分）
1．Where is the girl’s English book
A．On her bed. B．Under her desk. C．On her desk.
2．What’s the girl’s name
A．Lucy. B．Lily. C．Linda.
3．What is the girl’s name
A．Helen. B．Jenny. C．Cindy.
4．What are they doing
A．Saying goodbye. B．Saying hello. C．Saying sorry.
5．Which club does Paula want to join this term
A．The poem club. B．The chess club. C．The badminton club.
第二节：听下面两段对话。每段对话后有2至3个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分）
听下面一段对话，回答下列小题。
6．What color are Alice’s trousers
A．Blue. B．Orange. C．Yellow.
7．Where are Alice’s trousers
A．On the bed. B．In the box. C．Under the chair.
听下面一段较长对话，回答三个小题。
8．Who makes breakfast for Tony
A．His mother. B．His father. C．His sister.
9．How does Tony’s mother usually go to work
A．By bus. B．By car. C．By subway.
10．Where does Tony’s mother have lunch
A．At home. B．In the shop. C．In the restaurant.
第三节：听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分）。
11．Who is the speaker talking to
A．New friends at school. B．Teachers in the classroom. C．Family members at home.
12．What is on the wall of the classroom
A．A map of China. B．Some pictures of students. C．A clock and a blackboard.
13．Where is the speaker’s desk
A．Near the door. B．In the middle of the room. C．Next to the window.
14．What does the speaker think of his English teacher
A．She is tall and beautiful. B．She is funny and friendly. C．She is nice but strict.
15．What can we learn about the speaker’s school life
A．Easy and relaxing. B．Busy but happy. C．Difficult and boring.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Welcome to our class! I’m your teacher, Mr Green. Now, please introduce yourselves so you can get to know each other better. It’s a great way to make friends!
Ni Hao! My name is Zhou Jie. I’m 13 and I’m from Chengdu, Sichuan. But now I live in Hangzhou. At weekends, I often play basketball with my friends in the park. I have a pet parrot. Her name is Kiki and she can say “Zai Jian”!
Bonjour (你好)! I’m Sophie, a 12-year-old girl from Paris, France. This is my first year living in Hangzhou with my parents. I enjoy playing the guitar and want to be a singer one day! Do you want to know something fun about me Well, I can speak English, Chinese, and French!
Hello, I’m Dennis. I’m a thirteen-year-old boy from the UK. My country doesn’t have many sunny days, but I still love it. I like mountain climbing. Hope one day I can climb with e and be my friend!
16．Who wants to be a singer
A．Zhou Jie. B．Sophie. C．Dennis. D．Mr Green.
17．Which of the following is TRUE
A．Zhou Jie likes playing the guitar. B．Sophie can speak four languages (语言).
C．Zhou Jie lives in Chengdu now. D．Dennis is a 13-year-old English boy.
18．Why do the students talk about these things in class
A．To get to know each other. B．To make the teacher happy.
C．To sing a song together. D．To play a fun game.
B
My name is Ben. I live with my brother, mother and father in a flat. There are 27 floors (楼层) in the tall building. My apartment is on the top (最高的) floor. My father has a car. He parks it in the basement of the building.
Our apartment is not in the center of the city (市中心). It is 4 kilometers from the centre. My father works (工作) in the city, so he goes to work by train every day. He doesn’t often drive his car. He uses his car only at weekends (在周末). He takes us into the country or to the beach on Saturdays or Sundays. My mother sometimes goes shopping by bus.
Our apartment has three bedrooms. There is a bedroom for my mother and father, one for me and one for my brother. There is also a living room, a kitchen and a bathroom in the apartment. We do not have a garden, but there is a small balcony (阳台). There are some flowers on the balcony.
Our family are not free (空闲的). I often go to school from Monday to Friday, and I must do my homework every day. My father has much work to do every day, so he goes home late (晚的). My mother is a cook. She keeps cooking and doesn’t have a rest.
19．How does Ben’s father go to work
A．By train. B．By car. C．By bus. D．By bike.
20．How many rooms (房间) does Ben’s apartment have
A．Eight. B．Seven. C．Six. D．Five.
21．What does Paragraph Four (第四段) mainly talk about
A．Who is not free. B．Why we aren’t free.
C．What are “our” jobs (职业). D．When and where we work.
22．Which of the following sentences (句子) about the passage is right (正确的)
A．My apartment is on the twenty-eighth (第二十八) floor.
B．Our apartment is in the city centre, and my father works there.
C．My father takes a car to the sea to relax (放松) on the weekday.
D．Our balcony is small and there are some flowers on it.
C
“Look at that cloud, “Emma tells her brother Alex. They are sitting outside in their garden. The sky is blue and full of fluffy clouds.
Alex looks up at the white cloud. “It looks like (像) a duck, “he says.
“To me it looks like a big dog, “Emma says. She points to another white cloud. “What about that one ”
“It looks like a monkey, “Alex says.
“To me it looks like a big flower. “Emma points to another white cloud. “What about that one ”
“It looks like a woman with long hair. “Alex says.
“To me it looks like a tree. “Emma points to a dark cloud. “What about that one ”
“It looks like a bus with a lot of people in it, “Alex says.
“To me it looks like rain!” Emma cries (大叫).
…
23．Where are Emma and her brother Alex
A．In the garden. B．In the house. C．In the school. D．In the park
24．From their conversation, we know the clouds look like _______ things.
A．four B．five C．six D．seven
25．What might happen (发生) next according to the story
A．Emma and Alex talk about what to eat for dinner.
B．Emma and Alex draw a lot of pictures of the clouds.
C．Emma and Alex talk about flowers and trees in the garden.
D．Emma and Alex run into the house and watch the rain fall down.
26．Which can be the best title
A．A Nice Garden B．Emma and Alex C．Pictures in the Sky D．A Happy Afternoon
D
Sarah and Jack are a happy family with two kids, Peter and Mary. Sarah is a hairdresser. She makes people’s hair look pretty. Jack plays music and makes beautiful sounds with his guitar.
Every morning, Sarah wakes up at 7:00. She takes a shower and cooks breakfast for everyone. At 8:00, the whole family sits down to enjoy a good meal together. After breakfast, Sarah goes to work at 8:30.
Sarah loves her job because she meets lots of new friends every day and sometimes they even give her tips. But her job can be a bit tiring because she has to stand all day. She doesn’t like that. At 6:30 in the evening, she leaves her work and goes home.
When Sarah comes home, she loves playing games with Peter and Mary. They often play chess. It’s happy to enjoy time with kids. Meanwhile, Jack is busy in the kitchen making dinner. At 7:30, the whole family sits down again to eat together, sharing stories and laughter. After dinner, Sarah helps out by washing the clothes.
For Sarah, life is not easy. But she still enjoys her work and time with her family.
27．How many children does Sarah have
A．Two. B．Three. C．Four. D．Five.
28．Who cooks breakfast for the family
A．Peter. B．Sarah. C．Mary. D．Jack.
29．What does Sarah do with her family after work
A．She plays chess. B．She takes a walk. C．She makes dinner. D．She plays the guitar.
30．What does Sarah think of her life
A．Busy but lonely. B．Tiring but happy. C．Easy and interesting. D．Difficult and boring.
第二节 任务型阅读(共5题，每小题2分，满分10分)
Family Traditions
_______ Jane: My family take turns (轮流) picking a movie to watch together. I watch something my parents like, and they watch something I like. We also make pizza and eat it in front of the TV.
_______ Wendy: My favorite birthday meal is spaghetti and meatballs. My mom usually cooks, but my dad and sister help. On my sister’s birthday, we eat pizza. On my mom’s birthday, we have chicken, and on my dad’s birthday we have steak.
_______ Suzie: Every Friday night, we have games night. After dinner, we go to the living room and play board games. We have about seven different ones, but only play one game a night. I plan to keep this tradition after I start my own family.
_______ Robin: Every year, on Mother’s Day, I make breakfast for my mother. I make something special, and bring it to my mother in bed. She always acts surprised, and I do it every year.
A．Mother’s Day Breakfast B．Games Night C．Family Reunion Dinner D．Movie and Pizza Nights E．Birthday Meals
31．
32．
33．
34．
35．Whose family tradition do you like best Why
I like family tradition best because .
第三部分 语言运用 (共三节，满分40分)
第一节 完形填空 (共15 小题，每小题1分，满分15 分)
Li Gang is my new friend. He is 36 Anhui. He comes to Nanjing with his parents. His 37 now work and live in Nanjing. They are a happy 38 .
Li Gang is good 39 all his lessons. Everyone 40 he is a good student and a good son. At school, Li Gang 41 playing soccer and he can play it very well. He wants to 42 into the school soccer team. He says playing soccer makes 43 feel great. He wants to 44 in the World Cup. I hope 45 dream can come true (实现). In his free time, he likes listening to music. It makes him 46 .
47 Li Gang has his problems (困难). He must 48 a lot of housework after school. Then he doesn’t have much 49 for soccer. His parents work late every day, so he cooks for his family and 50 his sister with her homework.
36．A．for B．on C．from D．by
37．A．sisters B．parents C．toys D．pictures
38．A．home B．team C．class D．family
39．A．at B．in C．with D．of
40．A．talks B．speaks C．says D．looks
41．A．wants B．needs C．likes D．hopes
42．A．get B．turn C．call D．ask
43．A．me B．him C．us D．you
44．A．play B．know C．start D．finish
45．A．your B．my C．her D．his
46．A．happy B．sad C．big D．old
47．A．Or B．So C．But D．Then
48．A．do B．make C．have D．find
49．A．place B．time C．term D．lesson
50．A．helps B．tells C．takes D．works
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
A.用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，每词仅用一次
sheep play friend near he
Hi, I’m Jessica. Look at this photo of my school life! The boy in a blue jacket is my classmate. 51 name is Jason. We have some good 52 in our class—Alice, Frank and Cindy. Alice likes reading storybooks at the reading corner, and Frank often shares the comics he likes with us there. Our favourite place at school is this reading corner. It’s 53 the library, so we can borrow books easily. There are three small 54 by the corner; they’re from our school farm and they sometimes eat grass nearby. Jason likes sport. He 55 football with us every week after class. We laugh and run a lot—we always have fun there!
B;阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
Hi, friends! My name is Susan Green. I’m from the US. I have a loving family.
My 56 (丈夫), Alan Green, is a farmer. He spends much of his time every day looking after the animals on the 57 (农场). There are some kinds of animals like cows, horses, ducks, geese and 58 (绵羊). He also grows a lot of vegetables and fruits. He always says he really loves his 59 (工作).
We have three sons—Tom, Bob and Ben. Tom is 25 years old and he is a 60 (英俊的) boy. He lives in another state. We often play 61 (国际象棋) and chat online. Bob and Ben are 15 years old. They are the 62 (相同的) age, but they are different in many ways. Bob is humorous (幽默的) and always knows how to make us laugh with his 63 (好笑的) stories. Ben is a little quiet and loves wearing his favourite 64 (帽子) wherever he goes.
My 5-year-old daughter Cindy loves music and is learning to play the violin. She hopes to play in a good 65 (乐队).
We all love and care about each other. Everyone brings something special to our family, making our home a warm and happy place.
第三节 语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，在空格处填入一个适当的词或填入括号中单词的正确形式。
Hello, everyone. I’m Lu Yang. I am twelve 66 (year) old and I’m from Wenzhou. I am a student at No.1 Middle School. My parents and I enjoy 67 (read) books very much. You can 68 (see) lots of books in our house.
I have 69 idea. I would like to read with others. With the help of my mother, one room is now a shared library. It is beautiful 70 clean. Two book 71 (shelf) are in the room. They are white. There 72 (be) a green sofa, eight red chairs and two yellow sofas in it.
At about 4:00 in the afternoon, some boys and girls come 73 our house. They read many 74 (kind) of books here. In our shared library, I make lots of new friends. We often talk about our favourite books.
Do you like to read books Come here and read with 75 (we). You can call me at 0577-63667532. Who wants to come first
第四部分语言运用 (共一节，满分20分)
76．假设你是705班的班长Li Hua，下学期你的英国笔友Helen将作为交换生来你校学习。她想了解一些情况，请阅读她的电子邮件并回复。
Dear Li Hua,
I’m very happy to study in your school next term. Can you tell me something about your school What’s your school like What’s your favorite subject and why Are there any clubs in your school What club do you join Please write to me soon.
Yours,
Helen
注意:
1.回复的内容必须包含Helen在邮件中询问的信息，可适当发挥；
2.文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息；
3.词数70左右；邮件的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Helen,
I’m so happy to know you will come to study in my school.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Welcome to our school. Looking forward to seeing you soon!
Yours,
Li Hua(共7张PPT)
人教版2024七年级英语上册
七年级英语上学期期末考试
（浙江卷）答案
一、听力测试
1-10:C A A B B A C A C B
11-15:A A C C B
一、快速核对
二、阅读理解
A:16．B 17．D 18．A
B:19．A 20．C 21．B 22．D
C:23．A 24．D 25．D 26．C
D：27．A 28．B 29．A 30．B
第二节 任务型阅读
31．D 32．E 33．B 34．A 35． Jane’s I like watching movies
一、快速核对
三、完形填空
36．C 37．B 38．D 39．A 40．C 41．C 42．A 43．B 44．A 45．D 46．A 47．C 48．A 49．B 50．A
第二节 词汇运用
A:51．His 52．friends 53．near 54．sheep 55．plays
B:56．husband 57．farm 58．sheep 59．job 60．handsome 61．chess 62．same 63．funny 64．hat 65．band
一、快速核对
第三节 语法填空
66．years 67．reading 68．see 69．an 70．and 71．shelves 72．is 73．to 74．kinds 75．us
Dear Helen,
I’m so happy to know you will come to study in my school. Our school is modern with beautiful gardens and excellent facilities. My favorite subject is English because I enjoy communicating with people from different cultures. We have various clubs like Debate, Music and Robotics. I joined the Photography Club where we learn creative skills and organize exhibitions.
Welcome to our school. Looking forward to seeing you soon!
Yours,
Li Hua
第四部分语言运用七年级英语上学期期末考试（浙江卷）
英语·答题卡
姓名：______________________________________
准考证号 条 码 粘 贴 处
缺考标记 注意事项
1．答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚。
考生禁止填涂 2．请将准考证条码粘贴在右侧的[条码粘贴处]的方框内。
缺考标记！只能 3．选择题必须使用 2B铅笔填涂；非选择题必须用 0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔填写，字体工整。
由监考老师负 4．请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答，超出范围的答案无效，在草纸、试卷上作答无效。
责用黑色字迹 5．保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。
的签字笔填涂。 6．填涂样例 正确 [■] 错误 [--][√] [×]
选择题(请用 2B铅笔填涂)
第二部分（听力）(第 1-5 每小题 1分，6-15每小题 1.5分，共 20分)
1.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 6.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 11.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
2.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 7.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 12.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
3.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 8.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 13.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
4.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 9.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 14.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
5.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 10.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 15.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
第二部分（阅读理解）(共 20小题，每小题 2分，满分 40分)
16.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 21.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 26.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 31.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
17.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 22.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 27.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 32.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
18.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 23[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 28.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 33.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
19.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 24.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 29.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 34.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
20.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 25.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 30.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
35.______________________________________________________
第三部分 第一节 完形填空(共 15 小题，每小题 1分，满分 15 分)
36.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 41.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 46.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
37.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 42.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 47.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
38.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 43.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 48.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
39.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 44.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 49.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
40.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 45.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 50.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
非选择题(请在各试题的答题区内作答)
第二节 词汇运用(共 15小题，每小题 1分，满分 15分)
A:51.___________ 52. ____________ 53. ____________ 54 ____________ 55. ____________
B:56.___________ 57. ____________ 58. ____________ 59 ____________ 60. ____________
61.___________ 62. ____________ 63. ____________ 64 ____________ 65. ____________
第三节 语法填空(共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
66.___________ 67. ____________ 68. ____________ 69 ____________ 70. ____________
71.___________ 72. ____________ 73. ____________ 74 ____________ 75. ____________
第四部分语言运用 (共一节，满分 20 分)
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！

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