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2025学年第一学期八年级期中学情评估英语试题卷
考生须知：
1.本试卷分试题卷和答题卷两部分，满分120分。
2.答题前，必须在答题卷的密封区内填写校名、班级、姓名、座位号等。
3.所有答案都必须写在答题卷标定的位置上，务必注意试题序号和答题序号相对应。
第一部分 听力理解(共两节，满分20分)
第一节(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
Where did the boy go during the summer holiday
A. To the Bird’s Nest. B. To the Summer Palace. C. To the Great Wall.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
How was Lucy’s weekend
A. Meaningful. B. Boring. C. Tiring.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What’s the relationship between the speakers
A. Father and daughter. B. Mother and son. C. Sister and brother.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What does Jason like to do on weekends
A. Watch TV. B. Play the piano. C. Listen to music.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
Why is Tim running
A. For the bus. B. For sports. C. For the meeting.
第二节(共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分)
听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
6. How did Linda feel when she came back from the zoo
A. Unhappy. B. Afraid. C. Hungry.
7. What problem did Linda notice about the tiger
A. It was sleeping all the time. B. It was too noisy to watch. C. It looked hungry and thin.
8. How do they plan to help the zoo
A. By volunteering to look after the animals.
B. By having concerts to raise some money.
C By asking parents and friends to visit the zoo.
【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
9. What is this year’s music festival different from the last year’s
A. It is more colourful. B. It has fewer students. C. It has more prizes.
10. What is Lily’s twin sister Lucy like
A. Lily is funnier than Lucy. B. Lucy gets up earlier. C. Lucy works harder.
11. What does Lily like most to spend her spare time
A. Singing songs. B. Playing sports. C. Reading books.
【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。
12. What is Henry like
A. He is serious. B. He is funny. C. He is outgoing.
13. What do Henry and Rick do after school every Friday
A. They dance. B. They sing songs. C. They listen to music.
14. How did Rick do in the sports competition
A. He won first prize. B. He won second prize. C. He won third prize.
15. What test will they have next month
A. A maths test. B. A Chinese test. C. An English test.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节：阅读理解(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
June 7th, Saturday Cloudy What an exciting weekend I had! We had a basketball game with the team Cool Boy. The players on that team were all tall and strong. They thought they could beat (战胜) us. But we played well. In the end, we won the game by 5 to 3. Bill
June 14th, Saturday Rainy My friend Peter invited me to go to the beach this morning. But it started to rain after breakfast. It rained really heavily all day, so I just watched the boring TV shows at home. What a boring day it was! John
June 15th, Sunday Sunny I did many things on Sunday. In the morning I went to the art club and learned to draw for two hours. Then I cleaned the rooms. In the afternoon, I cooked dinner with my mother for my father. Do you know why It was Father’s Day! In the evening, my parents and I went to the movies. After I returned home, I was kind of tired but really happy. Alice
16. How was the weather when Bill was playing the game
A. It was rainy. B. It was sunny. C. It was cloudy. D. It was windy.
17. What did John do on June 14th
A. He invited his friend to the beach. B. He had a beach volleyball game with friends.
C. He made breakfast for his parents. D. He stayed at home and watched TV shows.
18. How was Alice’s Sunday on June 15th
A. Exciting. B. Relaxing. C. Boring. D. Busy.
B
Yu Zidi, a young Chinese swimmer, is making history. At just 12 years old, she’s already one of the fastest swimmers in the world! At the 2025 Chinese National Championships this May, she won gold in both the 400m IM (个人混合泳) and 200m butterfly (蝶泳). She also took silver in the 200 m IM with a time of 2:10.63.
This made her the fastest 12-year-old ever in that event. In July this year, her talent shone (闪耀) again at the 2025 World Aquatics Championships in Singapore. This was her first international (国际的) race. She swam 2:09.21 in the women’s 200 m IM and missed bronze (铜牌) by just 0.06 seconds (秒)。
Yu Zidi was born in October, 2012 in Baoding, Hebei Province. She started swimming six years ago. “The summer was too hot. So my dad took me to the water park just to cool off,” she said. “I enjoyed the cool water and spent a lot of time there.” One day, a coach (教练) asked her if she wanted to swim faster—that’s how her swimming journey began!
Yu Zidi is just a sixth grader, but she works very hard. She does schoolwork, takes exams, and practises swimming for 4 to 6 hours every day. With all this hard work, she’s on her way to becoming the world’s best swimmer.
Watch out world! This young star is just getting started!
19. What did Yu Zidi win in the 200m IM at the 2025 Chinese National Championships
A. Gold. B. Silver. C. Bronze. D. The fourth.
20. Why did Yu Zidi start going to the water park six years ago
A. Because a coach discovered her talent there.
B. Because the summer was too hot.
C. Because her school had a swimming programme.
D. Because she wanted to have a swimming race.
21. Which of the following can best describe Yu Zidi
A. Strong. B. Outgoing. C. Warm-hearted. D. Hard-working.
22. What can we infer from the last paragraph
A. Yu Zidi is going to travel around the world.
B. Yu Zidi is going to stop studying to practise swimming.
C. Yu Zidi might achieve greater success in the future.
D. Yu Zidi is afraid of competing internationally.
C
When I was a kid, my two brothers and I would stay with Grandparents for a week during summer vacation. We always looked forward to spending every moment with them, especially Grandpa, the “hero” in our eyes.
Grandpa became blind when he was 20 years old, but it never slowed down the strong-willed (坚强的) man. He worked in a shop every day. Customers would give him money, and he would return the right change and give them exactly what they wanted. He had many friends who visited the shop just to talk to him, and at that time, I helped to hand customers their drinks and snacks. This made me feel grown-up.
He also cooked lunch and washed dishes while Grandma worked. As a boy, I would watch him move around the house from room to room as if he could see. I was so surprised about how he moved from cooking to washing the dishes, never making a mistake.
It seemed like every time I stayed with him, we would visit someone in the evening who was weak or very sick. Although he can’t see things, he never let it stop him from working and being kind to others. His love for people never ended.
During those weeks, he taught me many lessons that I still treasure today. They take me back to those days and remind me how special he was. I miss every moment I stayed with him. To this day, I still dislike hearing someone say, “I can’t do that,” because I knew a blind man who never said those words.
23. What can we learn about Grandpa
A. He had few friends. B. He lived like a normal person.
C. He had many hobbies. D. He became blind at 25 years old.
24. Which of the following best describes Grandpa
A. Active but shy. B. Strong-willed and caring.
C. Kind but strict. D. Warm-hearted and humorous.
25. What does the underlined phrase “those days” in the last paragraph refer to
A. The time with Grandpa. B. The time with the friends.
C. The time with the brothers. D. The time with the neighbors.
26. What lesson does the writer learn from Grandpa
A. Family is important. B. We should work hard.
C Anything is possible. D. We should help the blind.
27. Where is the text probably taken from
A. A storybook. B. A film review. C. A guidebook. D. A science magazine.
D
We all know that plants need water, sunlight and nutrients (营养) to stay healthy. When a plant is not getting enough water, it will wilt. If it gets too much water, the leaves will turn yellow. Some plants also try to protect themselves in other ways. When stressed, they may release (释放) bad smells to stop insects from biting them. Or they make materials to tell other plants that there is danger.
Scientists recently discovered that plants have another way to talk-they make sounds! A new study showed that plants make sounds we can’t hear. The sounds are between 40 to 80 kilohertz (千赫). This is too high for human ears, but animals like bats, dogs and cats can hear some of the sounds.
The researchers studied these plant sounds carefully. Healthy plants only make a sound once per hour. But stressed plants make hundreds of sounds per hour. Each type of stress causes a different sound.
This is important for farming. If farmers learn the sounds their crops make, they will know if the plants need water or are sick. Then farmers can help the plants grow better.
We don’t know exactly how plants make these sounds. It may be tiny air bubbles popping in the plant’s water tubes.
This discovery will help us understand plants more. Knowing how plants talk to each other can help farmers take better care of crops. Plants have more interesting ways of communicating than we thought!
28. How do some plants protect themselves when stressed
A. By releasing bad smells to attract insects.
B. By making materials to stop other plants from growing.
C. By releasing bad smells to stop insects from biting them.
D. By wilting to avoid being eaten by insects.
29 How often do unhealthy plants make sounds according to the passage
A. Once per minute B. Once per hour
C. Hundreds of times per hour D. Thousands of times per hour
30. What does the underlined word “wilt” probably mean
A. be alive B. be dead C. be fresh D. be active
31. What might be the best title for the passage
A. The Secret Language of Plants. B. How to Take Care of Plants.
C. Plants can Talk with Humans. D. Water is Important for Plants
第二节：任务型阅读(共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面材料，从所给的A—E五个选项中选择正确的选项(其中一项是多余选项)，将其序号填入1-4题，并回答第5题。
It’s enjoyable to take a vacation with your family. You can have a happy family time and also enjoy something new. But do you know how to plan a family vacation
____32____ What activities does your family enjoy getting together to do Do you like climbing mountains or visiting museums together Write down what you want to do first. Then look for the best place for doing these activities.
____33____ Summer is a popular time for family vacations. But there are thousands of people everywhere at this time of year. There are fewer visitors in March and November, so they’re also good times to take a vacation.
Make a budget. Why ____34____ You need to budget for some things like transportation (交通) costs, hotels and food.
After doing all those things, you can plan your days. ____35____ If you have many places to visit or activities to do in one day, you might get too tired. Enjoying your vacation is the most important.
A. It will help you decide where you can go with your money. B. But remember, don’t over-plan. C. A holiday is a time to relax and make memories. D. Find out your interests as a family. E. Think about when to go on vacation.
What is the most important thing for you to plan a family vacation Why (不超过20词)
______________________________________________36______________________________________________
第三部分 语言运用(共三节，满分40分)
第一节：完形填空(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出一个最佳选项。
Kellen McMahan is 9 years old. He wants everyone at his school to know they are a(n) ____37____ part of the group. “No one wants to feel like they don’t ____38____ here,” he says. That’s why, when he saw a ____39____ kid on the playground, he ____40____ up with Kellen’s Project for Belonging.
Kellen wanted to give something special to everyone at school to ____41____ them they’re important. After talking with his parents and teacher, he decided ____42____ buttons (纽扣). He says, “I explained the idea to my class. We had to plan it ____43____ because my school has over 400 kids.”
He and his classmates ____44____ paper circles with kind slogans (口号) like “You Belong Here!” They made the circles ____45____ buttons using a machine and sent them to each classroom. He hoped that the buttons would help students ____46____ that they belong. He also hoped they’d ____47____ kids to treat others like they belong, too.
Kellen still sees people wearing the buttons on backpacks and clothes. He thinks they’ve made a ____48____. “I’ve observed (观察) some of the kids interacting (相互影响) a bit more,” he says. “I’ve seen the kids who seemed lonely before, and they’re starting to play ____49____ more people.”
Today, Kellen is searching for new project ideas. “You have to be ____50____ about the people around you,” he says. “It’s good to help someone ____51____.”
37. A. important B. quiet C. strict D. shy
38. A. live B. belong C. work D. study
39. A. lively B. friendly C. lovely D. lonely
40. A. put B. got C. came D. took
41. A. teach B. follow C. ask D. remind
42. A. on B. in C. at D. for
43. A. up B. out C. over D. off
44. A. decorated B. drew C. wrote D. cleaned
45. A. into B. from C. with D. by
46. A. forget B. miss C. realize D. leave
47. A. order B. teach C. warn D. encourage
48. A. mistake B. difference C. noise D. mess
49. A. for B. to C. with D. at
50. A. careful B. excited C. angry D. thoughtful
51. A. out B. in C. up D. down
第二节：词汇运用(共15 小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。
everything, sick, invite, tool, look for
Last weekend, my friend John called me for help. His father was feeling unwell and couldn’t fix the broken things in the kitchen. He ____52____ me to their house to help him. When I arrived, I started to ____53____ the necessary tools in the room. After I found all the ____54____, I began to repair them. Since his father was ____55____, I wanted to do ____56____ I could to make their life easier. At last, I successfully repaired the things in the kitchen. They were very thankful for my help.
阅读下面短文，然后根据括号内所给的汉语意思写出单词的正确形式，每空限填一词。
Last summer, I joined a two-week summer camp in the Green Mountains. At first, I was really nervous because I never stayed ____57____ (某地) for so long. But guess what It became one of the best times in my life!
Each day started with a 6:30 a.m. wake-up call. After quickly getting ____58____ (准备好的), we did morning exercises by the lake. The fresh air and birds’ songs made me forget all worries. Breakfast was simple—milk, bread, and eggs, but it tasted ____59____ (极好的) when shared with new friends from different cities.
My favourite activity was hiking. On the first day, I was scared to climb high hills. A boy named Tom helped me: “Take it slow, step by step,” he said. Finally, we ____60____ (到达) the top! The view was amazing—green mountains and blue sky seemed to meet. In the afternoon, we learned to make paper crafts or played group games. Once, I ____61____ (借) a book from the camp library and read under a big tree. I didn’t stop reading ____62____ (直到) it became dark.
One evening, there was a talent show. I was too ____63____ (害羞的) to perform, but everyone encouraged me. I sang a song I practised many times. When I finished, the clapping made my heart warm. On the last day, the camp gave us each a small ____64____ (奖品)—a notebook with our group photo. “Don’t forget to keep in touch!” my friends said as we hugged goodbye.
This camp taught me to be brave and kind. Now, when I look at the notebook, it ____65____ (提醒) me of the happy days without phones or computers—just nature and ____66____ (友谊). I’ll never forget this summer!
第三节：语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（不超过3个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。
This is my first trip in China during the National Day holiday. It was ____67____ very wonderful experience.
I ____68____ (arrive) in the clean, lovely city of Yangzhou with my family by plane in the morning. The hotel we stayed in was very comfortable and inexpensive.
Yangzhou is in the eastern part of Jiangsu Province, an ancient city. There are lots of ____69____ (place) of interest. At first, we visited the Slender West Lake (瘦西湖), one of ____70____ (famous) parks in China. When we went boating, we saw many fish swimming and beautiful flowers in the sun. It just took ____71____ (I) breath away. I couldn’t help picking a flower, but my father said it was bad ____72____ (hurt) the flowers. Besides, the Slender West Lake is famous ____73____ the different kinds of great ancient buildings. We walked along the Wuting Bridge ____74____ climbed the ancient tower! Later we went shopping and ____75____ (buy) a few silk scarves for our friends in the street market. At noon we tried the delicious special food——huaiyangcai. After that, we took part in some activities. We were so happy that we didn’t notice the time. When we went back to the hotel, we all kept ____76____ (think) about the trip!
第四部分 书面表达(共1小题，满分20分)
77. 假如你是李梅，请阅读笔友Lily的电子邮件，根据要求回复电子邮件并给她提供必要的帮助。
Dear Li Mei, It was fun to decorate your classroom last week. Yesterday, our headteacher asked us to decorate our classroom this weekend too, especially the back wall. But we had no idea about it. Can you help me Right now, the walls are white. There are some old pictures on them. There is nothing special on the back wall. Could you please give me some advice Best wishes, Lily
Advice Reason
Put on some photos of famous people Encourage you to study hard
Make a poster of classroom rules Remind everyone to follow them
Draw a big colourful heart on the back wall and put on your photos in it. It means you are a big family
... ...
要求：(1) 不能出现你的真实姓名和学校信息；
(2) 根据表格中的提示写作，并至少添加一个建议；
(3) 词数100左右，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Lily,
I’m really happy to help you.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Mei
2025学年第一学期八年级期中学情评估英语试题卷
考生须知：
1.本试卷分试题卷和答题卷两部分，满分120分。
2.答题前，必须在答题卷的密封区内填写校名、班级、姓名、座位号等。
3.所有答案都必须写在答题卷标定的位置上，务必注意试题序号和答题序号相对应。
第一部分 听力理解(共两节，满分20分)
第一节(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
【1题答案】
【答案】C
【2题答案】
【答案】A
【3题答案】
【答案】B
【4题答案】
【答案】B
【5题答案】
【答案】C
第二节(共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分)
听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
【6~8题答案】
【答案】6. A 7. C 8. B
【9~11题答案】
【答案】9. A 10. B 11. B
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. C 13. A 14. B 15. B
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节：阅读理解(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【16~18题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. D 18. D
B
【19~22题答案】
【答案】19. B 20. B 21. D 22. C
C
【23~27题答案】
【答案】23. B 24. B 25. A 26. C 27. A
D
【28~31题答案】
【答案】28. C 29. C 30. B 31. A
第二节：任务型阅读(共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
【32~36题答案】
【答案】32. D 33. E
34. A 35. B
36. I think planning fun activities is the most important because everyone won’t get bored and well enjoy the vacation.
第三部分 语言运用(共三节，满分40分)
第一节：完形填空(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出一个最佳选项。
【37~51题答案】
【答案】37. A 38. B 39. D 40. C 41. D 42. A 43. B 44. A 45. A 46. C 47. D 48. B 49. C 50. D 51. A
第二节：词汇运用(共15 小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
【52~56题答案】
【答案】52. invited
53. look for
54. tools 55. sick
56. everything
【57~66题答案】
【答案】57. somewhere
58. ready 59. fantastic
60. reached
61. borrowed
62. until##till
63. shy 64. prize
65. reminds
66. friendship
第三节：语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
【67~76题答案】
【答案】67. a 68. arrived
69. places 70. the most famous
71. my 72. to hurt
73. for 74. and
75. bought 76. thinking
第四部分 书面表达(共1小题，满分20分)
【77题答案】
【答案】例文
Dear Lily,
I’m really happy to help you. Here are my suggestions for decorating your back wall.
First, you can put on some photos of famous people. This can encourage you to study hard. Second, making a poster of classroom rules is a good idea. It can remind everyone to follow them. Third, draw a big colourful heart on the back wall and put your photos in it, showing you’re a big family.
Besides, you can also hang some handmade crafts. They’ll add a warm and lively atmosphere to the classroom, making learning even more fun and engaging.
I hope these ideas can be truly helpful to you.
Yours,
Li Mei

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