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莱芜区2025-2026学年度第一学期期中考试七年级
英语试题
本试题共12页，分选择题部分和非选择题部分，选择题部分满分100分，非选择题部分满分50分。全卷满分150分，考试用时120分钟。
答题前，请考生务必将自己的学校、班级、姓名、座位号写在答题卡的规定位置。
答题时，选择题部分每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题部分，用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答。直接在试题上作答无效。
考试结束后，将本试题和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. A. He’s painting a tree. B. My sister likes dancing. C. They were happy yesterday.
2. A. It wasn’t cold last week. B. Bob didn’t go fishing. C. He doesn’t like coffee.
3. A. Did he go hiking B. Does she cook dinner C. Do you like carrots
4. A. Please give me some water. B. Let’s stay in and relax. C. Come and visit us some day.
5. A. Who did Helen go with B. What does Jane like doing C. What will happen next
第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. What does Billy like doing in his free time
A. Reading books. B. Listening to music. C. Climbing mountains.
7. How long will the rainy days last
A. About a month. B. About half a month. C. About a week.
8. Who did Jack go boating with last Saturday
A. His father. B. His mother. C. His sister.
9. When was the boy’s last sports meeting
A. On 5th September. B. On 6th October. C. On 7th November.
10. Where are the two speakers talking
A. At a zoo. B. In a library. C. In a clothes shop.
第三节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. What does Jim like to watch
A A robot show. B. Animal World. C. A basketball game.
12. Why does Jim think he can stay up
A. Because it’s Saturday tomorrow. B. Because the game is important. C. Because he’s not tired.
13. Where will Jim go tomorrow
A. The Science Museum. B. The Children’s Library. C. The Children’s Park.
14. Where is the bag
A. In the living room. B. On Mom’s bed. C. On Jim’s desk.
15. How does Jim’s mom feel at the end of the conversation
A. Angry. B. Happy. C. Worried.
第四节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. How was the weather in Qingdao
A. It was sunny. B. It was cloudy. C. It was windy.
17. How did Mary’s family get to Qingdao
A. By bus. B. By car. C. By train.
18. What time did they arrive in Qingdao
A. At 8:30 a.m. B. At 11:30 a.m. C. At 12:30 p.m.
19. What did Mary’s brother do on the beach
A. He flew a kite. B. He played volleyball. C. He picked up seashells.
20. What did Mary think of the trip
A. It was a little boring. B. It was very interesting. C. It was kind of tiring.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下列短文，然后从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
I’m Helen. I went to a beautiful beach with my family last summer. We lived in a hotel next to the sea. It was clean and quiet. We stayed there for seven days. Every day, we went swimming in the sea.
I’m Vickers. I went to the mountains with my friends last weekend. The weather was warm and wet. We took a walk in the mountains and saw a lot of koalas and birds. They were cute. There were also many beautiful flowers.
My name is Susan. Earth Hour was from 8:30 p. m. to 9:30 p. m. last Sunday. I turned off the TV and took a walk with my mother. It was great to watch the stars and the moon. The city was quiet. I enjoyed the relaxing time very much.
My name is Tom. I went to a small countryside farm with my grandparents last Friday. The air there was fresh and the sky was blue. I picked tomatoes, and my grandpa showed me how to feed the little chickens. We also tasted the fresh milk from the farm’s cows. It was much more delicious than the milk we bought in the city. I felt very happy and close to nature that day.
1. Where did Helen go on her vacation
A. She went to the beach. B. She went to the museum.
C. She went to the mountains. D. She stayed at home.
2. What did Vickers NOT see in the mountains
A. Koalas. B. Tigers. C. Birds. D. Flowers.
3. What did Tom do with his grandpa on the farm
A. Learned to feed little chickens. B. Learned to milk cows.
C. Learned to plant tomatoes. D. Learned to fly a kite.
4. Which of the following is TRUE according to the text
A Helen stayed in the mountains for seven days.
B. Vickers took a walk and saw koalas in the mountains.
C. Susan watched TV at home during Earth Hour.
D. Tom picked apples with his grandparents on the farm.
5. In which part of a newspaper can we find the text
A. Science. B. Sports. C. Life. D. Health.
B
Do you have friends or family members who live in other parts of China For example, maybe you live in Beijing, but you have cousins in Chongqing. If you want to call them on the phone, you don’t have to worry about which time zone you are in. This is because nearly all of China follows a single standard time (单一标准的时间).
But some countries have many different time zones. For example, the US has five different time zones. My hometown New York is in the Eastern Time Zone. But my friends in California are in the Pacific Time Zone, which is three hours behind my time zone. So, if I want to call them, I have to plan with them before calling to make sure we are both free at the same time.
Actually, there is one exception (例外) in China: the Xinjiang Uygur autonomous region (新疆维吾尔自治区). In this region, people either follow Beijing Time—the time that the rest of the country follows—or Xinjiang Time, which is about two hours behind Beijing Time.
For the first year I lived in China, I would often get phone calls from my mother very late at night because she forgot to consider the time difference.
6. How many time zones are there in America
A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Five.
7. Why does the writer have to make a plan with friends before calling
A Because they are both free.
B. Because they are at the same time.
C. Because they are in the same country.
D. Because they are in different time zones.
8. What does the underlined word “consider” in the last paragraph mean
A. Think of. B. Agree with. C. Feel like. D. Work on.
9. What can we know from the text
A. The writer doesn’t like the time difference.
B. All of China follows a single standard time.
C. People in Xinjiang can choose the time they use.
D. It is 10:00 in New York when it is 12:00 in California.
10. What can be a suitable title for this text
A. Learn to Save Time B. Make Plans before Calling
C. Xinjiang Time D. Different Countries, Different Times
C
The Double Ninth Festival, also called Chongyang Festival, falls on the 9th day of the 9th lunar month. In the Yijing, the number 9 is considered “yang” (positive). As both the day and month are 9, it gets its name, which means positive and bright in Chinese thought. So, this day has double yang, from which the Double Ninth Festival’s name comes.
People have many traditions for this festival. Climbing mountains is a key activity. On that day, families often climb hills to enjoy fresh air and autumn views. It also comes from an old story where climbing helped stop illness. Eating Chongyang Cake is another custom. The cake’s name sounds like “high” in Chinese, carrying wishes for progress.
Today, the Double Ninth Festival is also known as the Senior Citizens’ Festival. It is a day to show respect and care for the elderly. People visit their older family members, help them, and wish them good health and happiness.
This festival connects traditions with love for the elderly, making it a warm and meaningful day.
11. When is the Double Ninth Festival celebrated
A. On the 9th day of the 9th solar month.
B. On the 9th day of the 9th lunar month.
C. On October 9th every year.
D. On the 19th day of the 9th lunar month.
12. What does paragraph 1 talk about
A. The history of the Double Ninth Festival.
B. What people can do on the Double Ninth Festival.
C. What the Double Ninth Festival means.
D. Why the Double Ninth Festival is so popular.
13. Why does the writer tell us the two traditions
A. To explain the importance of the Double Ninth Festival.
B. To catch the readers’ interest.
C. To compare different traditional festivals.
D. To show what activities people can do on the Double Ninth Festival.
14. Why do people eat Chongyang Cake on this festival
A. It tastes delicious and is easy to make.
B. It helps stop illness from old stories.
C. Its name carries wishes for progress.
D. It is the favorite festival of the elderly.
15. What is the purpose of the text
A. To explain why climbing mountains is healthy.
B. To tell a story about an old Chinese festival.
C. To ask people to respect the elderly.
D. To describe the Double Ninth Festival and its traditions.
D
Scientists from China’s Shanghai Jiao Tong University are developing a robot “guide dog” to help blind (盲的) people.
The robot is now being tested in Shanghai. With the help of cameras and AI, the robot “guide dog” can see, listen and speak with blind people. It can help them during daily trips outside and be their “friend” at home.
Blind people can also use a cane (手杖) to control the robot’s walking and running speed. The robot can even recognize traffic signals (识别信号灯).
The robot “guide dog” is about the size of an English bulldog but a little wider. It has six legs instead of four. The extra legs make it more stable (稳定的) and help it move faster.
41-year-old Li Fei and 42-year-old Zhu Sibin are helping test the robot. Li is totally blind and Zhu can only see a little. Zhu often uses a cane to move around, “The robot ‘guide dog’ makes it easier to get into public places than with a real guide dog. I am happy to join in the test. It could change our lives in the near future,” Li said.
In China, there are about 17.31 million blind people, but there are only about 400 guide dogs. The new robot is trying to solve this problem. “We believe our robot will act as ‘a pair of eyes’ for blind people,” said Professor Gao Feng, one of the scientists. He thinks there will be a large market for these robot “guide dogs”.
16. Why does the robot “guide dog” have extra legs
A. To look more like a real dog. B. To be more stable and faster.
C. To carry more things for the blind. D. To recognize traffic lights.
17. Which writing skill is used in paragraph 5
A. Giving an example. B. Asking a question.
C. Listing numbers. D. Telling a story.
18. What are mentioned (提及) about the robot “guide dog” in the text
①Price. ②Size and looks. ③Developers. ④Uses.
A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ②③④ D. ①②③④
19. What can we infer (推断) from the last paragraph
A. It takes time to perfect the robot. B. More real guide dogs will come out.
C. The robot will help the blind a lot. D. The blind love robots now.
20. What’s the structure of the text
A. B. C. D.
第二节 阅读理解六选五（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
We often talk about the weather. Here are some students’ reports about the weather.
Report from Alice: Is it hot or cold, cool or warm It always goes up and down. ____21____ The air will get cool and the temperature will fall when the night comes.
Report from Frank: We can’t see it, but we can feel it. It can move the air. When it comes, we can see the branches of trees moving. Do you like flying kites ____22____ It can also blow your hat off.
Report from Jimmy: ____23____ It falls on fields and trees. It rains on the umbrellas here and on the ships at sea.
Report from Miller: ____24____ It looks white and many people like it a lot. When it comes, the ground will put on her white clothes. Children are especially happy then. ____25____
A. It’s windy and warm in spring and it’s cloudy and cool in autumn.
B. The sun warms the air and the temperature will go up when it rises up.
C. And they can build snowmen.
D We often see it in winter.
E. The rain is falling all around.
F. It can carry your kite high in the sky.
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分）
第一节 补全对话（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
阅读下面对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
A: Hello, may I speak to Lucy
B: ___26___
A: Hi, Lucy! It’s Mike. I want to ask you about our study trip to the history museum next Monday.
B: Sure, go ahead
A: First, ___27___ I need to pack the right clothes.
B: It will be sunny but a little windy. You can wear a jacket.
A: Got it. Then, ___28___ I don’t know what to take with me.
B: We need to bring a notebook and a pen to take notes about the old cultural relics.
A: Thanks. Oh, ___29___ I saw her carrying a lot of books just now.
B: No, she isn’t. ___30___ She told me it’s important for us to learn about history first.
A: Wow, she’s so kind. I’ll be on time. See you then.
B: See you.
26. A. I’m Lucy. B. Hold on, please. C. This is Lucy. D. Wait a minute.
27.
A. do you like history B. what time will we leave
C. where will the trip be D. how’s the weather on Monday
28.
A. who will organize the trip B. what do we need to take
C how long will the trip last D. when will we come back
29.
A. is Miss Zhang busy with her lessons B. will Miss Zhang go with us
C. can we ask Miss Zhang for help D. did Miss Zhang visit the museum before
30.
A. She usually prepares trip materials. B. She prepared materials for us last week.
C. She is preparing materials for our trip now. D. She will prepare materials tomorrow.
第二节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
Last Friday, our school held the Sports Day. I participated in (参加) the 400-meter race to challenge ___31___. My race was at 10 o’clock. Before that, I sat with my classmates and watched other events. My best friend Lily was in the long jump. She ___32___ really hard and finally won third place. I clapped (拍手) loudly for her and felt excited for her success.
At 9:45, I went to the playground to get ready. My teacher, Mr. Wang, came over and touched my shoulder. “Don’t be nervous,” he said. “Just run to keep a calm mind.” His words made me feel ___33___.
At first, I was in the front, but after 200 meters, I started to feel tired and I wanted to stop. Just then, I heard Lily and my classmates shouting, “Come on! You can do it.” Their ___34___ gave me more energy. I kept running and finally, I crossed the finish line. I got second place. Mr. Wang handed me a medal (奖牌) ___35___ “Great Effort” on it.
After the race, we had a break. I was so tired that my hands shook a little, so I drank some water and ate a banana to ___36___ my energy. Then, we watched the relay race together. Our class team ran ___37___ and won first place. Everyone jumped up and down happily.
In the afternoon, there was a closing ceremony. The head teacher said, “Sports Day is not just about winning—it’s about trying your best and enjoying the ___38___ with your classmates.” His words made me think a lot.
On the way home, I showed my medal to my parents. They were very proud of me. “We’re happy you ___39___ the race till the end and didn’t give up.” Mom said. That night, I put the medal on my desk. Every time I look at it, I’ll remember this ___40___ day.
This Sports Day showed me that ___41___ you work hard and don’t give up, you can achieve your goals. It also made me closer to my classmates—we cheered for each other and shared our joys. I’m already looking forward to next year’s Sports Day. I want to try the high jump then, and I’ll ___42___ practice more to get ready. I think this experience is more than just a race—it’s a treasure (财富) that will stay with me forever.
I also wrote ___43___ short article about Sports Day for our school newspaper. I hope other students can read it and feel the excitement of ___44___ school activities.
Who knew a day of running and cheering could be so wonderful I’m glad I tried my best for the race. It’s one of the best ___45___ I’ve ever had at school.
31. A. myself B. yourself C. ourselves D. himself
32. A. studied B. practiced C. thought D. played
33. A. sad B. worried C. comfortable D. fresh
34. A. words B. gifts C. food D. diaries
35. A. on B. with C. of D. in
36. A. waste B. increase C. record D. save
37. A. slowly B. quietly C. quickly D. easily
38. A. time B. work C. food D. money
39. A. started B. affected C. finished D. removed
40. A. sad B. common C. boring D. special
41. A. if B. though C. because D. so
42. A. never B. always C. hardly D. sometimes
43. A. a B. an C. the D. /
44. A. taking part in B. staying in C. meeting up D. running after
45. A. trips B. lessons C. experiences D. friends
第三节 单词拼写与运用（共3小题，满分15分）
A. 根据音标提示完成句子。（每空0.5分，满分3分）
46. This _______ /'f ktr / created 500 jobs for local people.
47. If you have questions, feel free to ask me _______ /stre t/.
48. These books _______ /si:m/ interesting, because many students want to borrow them.
49. _______ / l / she’s young, she can look after her little girl well.
50. My mom makes a cold _______ / kju k mb (r)/ soup every summer.
51. I _______ /k kt/ the football to my best friend yesterday afternoon.
B. 根据句意及汉语提示，写出相应单词。（每空1分，满分5分）
52. Our art class made _______ (色彩鲜艳的) paper flowers to put on the classroom windows.
53. She loves to _______ (探索) different cultures by traveling.
54. A kind _______ (乘客) helped the old man with his heavy luggage.
55. The children like to make _______ (雪人) in winter.
56. The swimming coach _______ (教) us how to swim last summer vacation.
C. （每空1分，满分7分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
It’s autumn. The sky is clear and there are yellow ___57___ (leaf) everywhere. My sister and I want ___58___ (go) to the park this morning. Right now, my mom ___59___ (make) some cookies for us. We tell her we’ll be back by noon, but she still asks us to take an umbrella, ___60___ the weather report says it may rain. When we get to the park, we start playing games. Last week, we ___61___(leave) our toy ball here, but ___62___ (luck), someone found it and returned it to us. Later, we sit ___63___ the ground and share the cookies. We also pick some beautiful flowers. We really enjoy spending time like this in autumn!
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 情境运用（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
64.
A: Is the boy playing football
B: No. ____________.
65.
A: What’s the weather like in Laiwu
B: ____________.
66.
A: ____________
B: Yes, they are.
67.
A: ____________
B: It was great.
68.
A: What did she do
B: ____________.
第二节 作文（满分25分）
69. 阳光中学（the Sunshine Middle School）英语俱乐部正在举行以“温馨时刻，快乐家庭”为主题的摄影活动。假如你是李华，你的作品已入选并获奖，请结合照片用英文描述一下你和家人的相关活动。
注意：（1）词数80词左右；
（2）可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
（3）不得出现真实人名、校名等相关信息。
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莱芜区2025-2026学年度第一学期期中考试七年级
英语试题
本试题共12页，分选择题部分和非选择题部分，选择题部分满分100分，非选择题部分满分50分。全卷满分150分，考试用时120分钟。
答题前，请考生务必将自己的学校、班级、姓名、座位号写在答题卡的规定位置。
答题时，选择题部分每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题部分，用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答。直接在试题上作答无效。
考试结束后，将本试题和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. A. He’s painting a tree. B. My sister likes dancing. C. They were happy yesterday.
2. A. It wasn’t cold last week. B. Bob didn’t go fishing. C. He doesn’t like coffee.
3. A. Did he go hiking B. Does she cook dinner C. Do you like carrots
4. A. Please give me some water. B. Let’s stay in and relax. C. Come and visit us some day.
5. A. Who did Helen go with B. What does Jane like doing C. What will happen next
第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. What does Billy like doing in his free time
A. Reading books. B. Listening to music. C. Climbing mountains.
7. How long will the rainy days last
A. About a month. B. About half a month. C. About a week.
8. Who did Jack go boating with last Saturday
A. His father. B. His mother. C. His sister.
9. When was the boy’s last sports meeting
A. On 5th September. B. On 6th October. C. On 7th November.
10. Where are the two speakers talking
A. At a zoo. B. In a library. C. In a clothes shop.
第三节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. What does Jim like to watch
A. A robot show. B. Animal World. C. A basketball game.
12. Why does Jim think he can stay up
A. Because it’s Saturday tomorrow. B. Because the game is important. C. Because he’s not tired.
13. Where will Jim go tomorrow
A. The Science Museum. B. The Children’s Library. C. The Children’s Park.
14. Where is the bag
A. In the living room. B. On Mom’s bed. C. On Jim’s desk.
15. How does Jim’s mom feel at the end of the conversation
A. Angry. B. Happy. C. Worried.
第四节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. How was the weather in Qingdao
A. It was sunny. B. It was cloudy. C. It was windy.
17. How did Mary’s family get to Qingdao
A. By bus. B. By car. C. By train.
18. What time did they arrive in Qingdao
A. At 8:30 a.m. B. At 11:30 a.m. C. At 12:30 p.m.
19. What did Mary’s brother do on the beach
A. He flew a kite. B. He played volleyball. C. He picked up seashells.
20. What did Mary think of the trip
A. It was a little boring. B. It was very interesting. C. It was kind of tiring.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下列短文，然后从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~5题答案】
【答案】1. A 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C
B
【6~10题答案】
【答案】6. D 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. D
C
【11~15题答案】
【答案】11. B 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. D
D
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. B 17. A 18. C 19. C 20. B
第二节 阅读理解六选五（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
【21~25题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. F 23. E 24. D 25. C
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分）
第一节 补全对话（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
【26~30题答案】
【答案】26. C 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. C
第二节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
【31~45题答案】
【答案】31. A 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. B 36. B 37. C 38. A 39. C 40. D 41. A 42. B 43. A 44. A 45. C
第三节 单词拼写与运用（共3小题，满分15分）
A. 根据音标提示完成句子。（每空0.5分，满分3分）
【46题答案】
【答案】factory
【47题答案】
【答案】straight
【48题答案】
【答案】seem
【49题答案】
【答案】Although
【50题答案】
【答案】cucumber
【51题答案】
【答案】kicked
B. 根据句意及汉语提示，写出相应单词。（每空1分，满分5分）
【52题答案】
【答案】colourful
【53题答案】
【答案】explore
【54题答案】
【答案】passenger
【55题答案】
【答案】snowmen
【56题答案】
【答案】taught
C. （每空1分，满分7分）
【57~63题答案】
【答案】57. leaves
58. to go 59. is making
60. because
61. left 62. luckily
63. on
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 情境运用（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
【64~68题答案】
【答案】64. He is doing his homework
65. It’s snowy/snowing (in Laiwu)
66. Are they making mooncakes
67. How was your/the weekend
68. She went to/visited an/the art exhibition
第二节 作文（满分25分）
【69题答案】
【答案】例文
I’m Li Hua. I’m glad my photo won the prize in the activity “Warm Moments, Happy Family”.
In the photo, Dad is reading a newspaper on the sofa. My brother is playing with our dog beside him. Mom is cooking in the kitchen, and my sister is helping with the dishes. I am doing my homework at the desk.
We are all busy but happy. This warm moment is the sweetest part of my daily life!

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