2025-2026学年八年级英语上学期期末考试(浙江杭州市专用)[答题卡+听力音频+听力原文+答案解析]-八年级英语上册人教版(2024)

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2025-2026学年八年级英语上学期期末考试(浙江杭州市专用)[答题卡+听力音频+听力原文+答案解析]-八年级英语上册人教版(2024)

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保密★启用前
2025 -2026学年八年级上学期期末考试(杭州市专用)
英 语
(考试时间:100分钟 试卷满分:120分)
学校:___________姓名:___________班级:___________考号:___________
考生注意:
1.本试题卷共10页,满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前,请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时,请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求,在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答,在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试难度:0.75 [2025年浙江省最新中考题型]
第一部分 听力 (满分20分)
第一节:听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。(每小题1分)
1.What was wrong with Jim last week
A.He had a flu. B.He lost his notebook. C.He missed the bus.
2.What will students do to thank Mr. Grimes
A.They will tell him some jokes.
B.They will have a party for him.
C.They will play games with him.
3.How did the woman feel at that time
A.Tired. B.Excited. C.Unhappy.
4.Where are the speakers
A.On the bus. B.In the park. C.At the bus stop.
5.Why was John late for school
A.He got up late. B.He didn’t feel well. C.His bike was broken.
第二节:听下面两段对话。每段对话后有2至3个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。(每小题1.5分)
听材料,回答问题。
6.What are the speakers talking about
A.The weather. B.The hometown. C.The market.
7.What’s the possible relationship between the speakers
A.Actor and fan. B.Classmates. C.Mother and son.
听下面一段对话,回答小题。
8.Who makes Russian soup for lunch
A.Selina’s dad. B.Selina. C.Mark.
9.What does Selina’s dad want to do this afternoon
A.Have a good rest. B.Clean the floor. C.Help with the study.
10.Where do they decide to study at last
A.In Selina’s bedroom. B.In a sandwich shop. C.In a library.
第三节:听下面一段独白,独白后有5个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。(每小题1.5分)。
11.What is Alice like
A.Kind but shy. B.Clever and outgoing. C.Kind and outgoing.
12.How old was Alice when she set up (建立) the club
A.She was 14. B.She was 15. C.She was 13.
13.When do Alice and other members meet at the club
A.On Tuesday and Sunday.
B.On Tuesday and Thursday.
C.On Monday and Thursday.
14.How do they raise money for animals
A.By making cards. B.By selling newspapers. C.By giving lessons.
15.What can we learn from the passage
A.Alice does a lot to help animals.
B.Alice sets up the club with Emily.
C.Alice goes to look after animals on Saturday.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Hurricanes (飓风) are storms. They can cause terrible waves, wind and rain. They happen in the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean most of the time.
Category (分类) Scientists divide (划分) them into five categories according to the wind speed. A Category 5 hurricane can destroy all the buildings.
Time Hurricane Season usually comes on June 1st and ends on November 30th in the Atlantic Ocean, from May 15th to November 30th in the Pacific Ocean.
Danger It can cause flood when a hurricane comes with heavy rain. A hurricane has an eye. The eye means the center of a hurricane. After the eye passes, the wind and rain come again.
Safety advice Stay inside during the hurricane, or you’ll be injured.
16.What can be used to divide hurricanes according to the passage
A.By wind speed. B.By the degree of damage
C.By the places of hurricanes. D.By the time of happening.
17.How long does Hurricane Season usually last in the Atlantic Ocean
A.About 4 months. B.About 5 months.
C.About 6 months. D.About 7 months.
18.What should we do when a hurricane happens
A.Call the police. B.Walk outside.
C.Stay inside. D.Run after it.
B
Every Saturday, 14-year-old Mia had to help wash clothes. But she hated it. One day, when her mother asked her to wash socks, she complained and threw them into the basket, “Why me ” Her mother was cleaning the kitchen floor and answered, “We’re a family, aren’t we ”
Mia felt upset. Her friend Emma’s house was always clean because they had a cleaner. “Why don’t we hire a cleaner ” Mia asked. Her mother replied, “Doing chores teaches responsibility (责任).”
Last week, Mia’s history teacher gave a project called “Hidden Heroes.” While researching, Mia found a story about Mierle Ukeles, an artist from the 1970s. Ukeles called housework “art” and even cleaned museums to show its importance. Mia was surprised—could chores be special
That weekend, Mia noticed things she had never seen before: her father fixed the sink (水槽), ________, and her brother watered flowers carefully outside. She realized their home needed everyone’s care.
For her project, Mia made a video and showed pride in her family’s Saturday chores. She wrote funny titles like “Dad: Fixer and Breakfast Maker” and “Mom: Cleaning Boss.” When she showed the video, her classmates loved it. Emma said, “Maybe chores aren’t so bad.”
Now, Mia still doesn’t love washing, but she understands its value. As Ukeles said, “In fact, chores aren’t boring—they keep life going well.”
19.What did Mia complain every Saturday
A.She hated school projects. B.She had to help wash clothes.
C.Her mother was too strict. D.Emma’s house was too dirty.
20.Which sentence can best be put in the blank “________” in Para. 4
A.her house was always perfectly clean B.her history teacher praised her project
C.Ukeles cleaned museums for many years D.her mother’s hands looked dirty from cleaning
21.What can we know about Mia’s video project
A.It showed her pride in the family’s work. B.It made her classmates laugh at her.
C.It was about some famous artists. D.It showed her bad feeling to her father.
22.How does Mia feel about chores in the end
A.Angry and tired. B.Bored but accepting.
C.Dislikes but understands it. D.Comfortable and pleased.
C
Body Mass Index (BMI) is a way to check if a person has a healthy body weight. The formula for BMI is: BMI= weight (kg)/ [height (m)]2. For healthy adults in China, a normal BMI is between 18.5 and 23.9. A BMI between 24 and 27.9 is considered overweight. A BMI of 28 or higher is considered obese (肥胖).
According to the National Health Commission (NHC), if things keep going the way they are now, by 2030, about 70.5% of adults in China could be overweight, and 31.8% of children could face the same problem. Being overweight can easily lead to high blood pressure, diabetes (糖尿病), heart and blood vessel problems, and even some kinds of cancer.
Lei Haichao, head of the NHC, talked about a three-year program across the country to help people keep their weight under control and to encourage a healthier lifestyle. This program mainly teaches people to eat well, take exercise, and keep a healthy weight.
Healthy experts advise people to eat a mix of healthy foods, with about half of your everyday calories coming from carbs (碳水化合物). They also encourage people to eat until 70% full for long-term weight control. Keeping a regular sleep habit is also important because staying up late can lead to unhealthy eating habits and weight gain.
23.Who is considered normal according to BMI
A.Jack with a BMI of 18. B.Mary with a BMI of 21.
C.Sam with a BMI of 27. D.Cindy with a BMI of 33.
24.What will happen by 2030 according to NHC
A.More health problems such as diabetes will happen.
B.70.5% of children will face the overweight problem.
C.Being overweight will be the most serious problem.
D.Overweight people will have lower blood pressure.
25.What's the three-year program for according to Lei Haichao
A.To show the importance of a healthy lifestyle.
B.To explain the weakness of being overweight.
C.To help people control weight and live healthily.
D.To introduce ways of having a modern lifestyle.
26.What does Paragraph 4 mainly talk about
A.The future of unhealthy adults. B.The advice on controlling weight.
C.The importance of living healthily. D.The survey about people's habits.
D
Look! These fish aren’t going down a waterfall. They’re going up! These big, strong salmon (鲑鱼) are returning to the quiet waters where they hatched (孵).
Night and day they swim on, making their way up the river, following a way they know. When they get to the end, the mother salmon make long holes with their tails (尾巴) and noses. They produce thousands of eggs into the hole. To keep the eggs safe, they put sand over them.
The eggs hatch. When the baby salmon are about as long as your finger, they are ready to start the swim to the ocean. They swim backward down: tails first and heads last. But there are many enemies along the way. Birds, bears, and bigger fish love to eat baby salmon. Some do arrive at the ocean. Then one day, they will start their long trip up the river.
27.Where are the big, strong salmon going
A.Into the hole. B.Up the river. C.To the ocean. D.Down a waterfall.
28.How does the mother salmon protect their eggs
A.Hide them under sand. B.Stay around to watch them.
C.Leave them in the open. D.Push them deep into the hole.
29.What does the underlined word “some” in Paragraph 3 refer to
A.Birds. B.Bears. C.Bigger fish. D.Baby salmon.
30.Which word can be used to describe salmon’s trip
A.Relaxing. B.Hard. C.Funny. D.Boring.
第二节 任务型阅读(共5题,每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面材料,从方框中所给的A~E五个选项中选出正确选项 (其中一项是多余选项),并回答最后小题。
Want to make your home more homey Looking for ideas 31 .
32
A comfortable home should be tidy. It’s difficult to be completely relaxed and happy in a place that is untidy or not clean.
Hang (挂) art
Looking at art can make you feel better. Hanging pictures or drawings on the wall makes your space more enjoyable. 33 You can hang up your favorite pictures, photos, or even your own artworks!
34
Plants and flowers can also cheer you up. Bringing them into your home can make you feel closer to nature. They also make your room look beautiful and happy. A small plant or colorful flowers can make a big difference!
A.Go green.
B.Keep it clean.
C. You can try these easy things!
D.What could make you feel better
E. It also tells people about your interest.
5. What will you do to make your home more comfortable (Answer with no more than 15 words.)
35
第三部分 语言运用 (共三节,满分40分)
第一节 完形填空 (共15 小题,每小题1分,满分15 分)
阅读下面短文,然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
Many years ago, in the late days of December, I had been saving money for months to buy special gifts for my children for the new year. Just when I was about to start 36 in the supermarket, I noticed something very special. It was called an “Angel Tree”. A group of people 37 this tree to help children whose families couldn’t buy them toys.
On the tree, there were little pieces of 38 . They were in the shape of angels (天使). Each paper angel had a child’s name and the 39 he or she wished for. People who saw the tree would pick an angel and buy the toy. Then the group would send it so that the child would get it on 40 . When I looked, I saw only 41 angels left. One asked for a football and the other for a 42 .
As I looked at them, I remembered my own days as a 43 . I didn’t have many toys but my football and basketball. I often played with them. I felt 44 memories (回忆) running back. I decided to buy both toys for the boys whose names were on the angels, even 45 I bought presents for my own children. At first, I was worried if I had enough money, but 46 , I did!
When I placed the football and basketball in the donation box (捐赠箱), I get a special kind of joy that comes from making 47 else happy. I felt so happy, even if I don’t 48 them. A wise man said, “Love heals (治愈) everyone—both those who get it and those who 49 it.” So, try to share your love and kindness every day of the year—that’s the 50 of the “Angel Tree”. And remember, every small act of kindness can brighten someone’s day and make the world a little more beautiful.
36.A.shopping B.cooking C.reading D.studying
37.A.give up B.put up C.add up D.look up
38.A.paper B.bread C.plate D.glass
39.A.smile B.money C.love D.toy
40.A.Teachers’ Day B.New Year’s Day C.Father’s Day D.Children’s Day
41.A.two B.three C.four D.five
42.A.baseball B.bat C.basketball D.volleyball
43.A.father B.kid C.writer D.doctor
44.A.happy B.scary C.sad D.surprising
45.A.after B.when C.though D.before
46.A.luckily B.usually C.quietly D.clearly
47.A.everybody B.somebody C.anybody D.nobody
48.A.like B.tell C.want D.know
49.A.get B.give C.find D.lose
50.A.meaning B.future C.price D.health
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
A.用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空,每词仅用一次
of; first; healthy; other; take
As a 14-year-old student, I always want to be better. I think I should do the following things.
51 of all, I should live 52 . I should eat well, take more exercise and have enough sleep. Second, I will not be afraid 53 challenges. I must try my best to solve the problems in my study and life. Third, I should be kind and be ready to help 54 . Finally, I’ll always keep the responsibilities (责任) in my mind, 55 care of my parents and help the weak when possible.
B;阅读下面短文,根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
During the summer vacation, Xia Meng spent quite a lot of time practicing the bamboo flute (竹笛) after finishing her homework every day. She has become a big 56 (狂热爱好者) of the musical instrument.
A month ago, her school organized a(n) 57 (不寻常的) event—over 2,500 students, dressed in beautiful traditional clothes, played the bamboo flute together. Xia Meng’s school is located in Yuping Dong Autonomous County (自治县), Guizhou 58 (省份). People 59 (把……视为) it as the “hometown of the Chinese bamboo flute”. There are nearly 30 factories here making Yuping bamboo flutes.
To encourage more young people to learn about this traditional art, the county has 60 (主动提出) different kinds of opportunities (机会) for them to study bamboo flute. 61 (最近), students from Yuping Secondary Vocational School visited the bamboo flute museum. There, a guide 62 (领路) them on a tour. They learned about the long history, the technology behind bamboo flute-making, and the interesting stories about the flutes. The trip helped them develop a(n) 63 (深的) understanding of the 64 (重要性) of this cultural heritage.
The Yuping bamboo flute is not just a musical instrument; it is also a treasure of Chinese culture. Yang Sitong, a student from the vocational school, said, “The culture of the Yuping bamboo flute is really rich, and it makes more and more kids like me want to 65 (保护) and pass on this cultural heritage (遗产).”
第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空格处填入一个适当的词或填入括号中单词的正确形式。
What will you do first if you hold a party Of course, writing proper 66 (invite) is important. Here are some ways to write them. If you follow the ways below, it will be much 67 (easy).
Firstly, you need to write the names correctly. This is a good way 68 (show) your respect for the guests. Next is the place. Since your guests don’t know the party’s address 69 (clear), it’s necessary to write down the address. We know everyone has maps on their phones. 70 , it’s better to draw a map for everyone if you organize the party.
You also need to tell your guests 71 to arrive. Tell them the time and make sure they are available. If there is a rule about what they should wear for your party, you must be sure to let them know. At least you need to tell them if they should come in formal dresses 72 just normal clothes.
Consider the weather when you’re 73 (plan) a party outdoors. No one wants to have a party in bad weather. Be sure the weather is fine for people to enjoy the party.
When all these things are done, then you can start to make preparations 74 your party. I am sure that people will enjoy 75 (they) at the party.
第四部分语言运用 (共一节,满分20分)
76.假如你是张华,你的英国笔友Lily想要了解上周你们学校研学的情况,请从以下两项活动中任选一项,用英语写一封邮件向她分享你的研学经历。
注意:
1.邮件需包含所选活动的全部要点,可适当发挥;
2.文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息;
3.词数80左右;邮件的开头与结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Lily,
Glad to share with you my school trip last week.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Zhang Hua保密★启用前
2025 -2026学年八年级上学期期末考试(杭州市专用)
英 语
(考试时间:100分钟 试卷满分:120分)
学校:___________姓名:___________班级:___________考号:___________
考生注意:
1.本试题卷共10页,满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前,请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时,请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求,在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答,在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试难度:0.75 [2025年浙江省最新中考题型]
参考答案
题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
答案 A B A C C B B B A C
题号 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
答案 C A B B A A C C B D
题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
答案 A C B A C B B A D B
题号 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
答案 A B A D B A C B A D
题号 46 47 48 49 50
答案 A B D B A
1.A
【原文】A: Hey, Emma, can I have your math notes I missed three classes last week because I had a flu.
B: Of course, Jim. You can have mine.
2.B
【原文】A: You know our music teacher Mr Grimes is leaving our school.
B: Are you sure His lessons are always fun, jokes, games, smiles that kind of things. Maybe we could have a party to thank him.
A: That’s a good idea.
3.A
【原文】A:Dear, would you like to go to the movies with me after dinner
B:Well. I love to. But I’m rather tired after the whole day’s work.
4.C
【原文】A: The bus to the HongXing Park is coming. Is everyone of the stop
B: Let me see Dassy has gone to the restroom.
5.C
【原文】A: John, you were late for school again. What’s wrong with you
B: I’m sorry Miss Lee. My bike was broken on my way to school.
6.B 7.B
【原文】W: Hi, Mark. Can you tell me a bit about your hometown
M: Sure! It’s a small city with fresh air and a river. People love to walk by it in the evenings.
W: Wow, lovely! What’s the weather like
M: It’s warm in summer and cold in winter, but we get lots of sunshine.
W: Great. My hometown is Yiwu. It’s a market city.
8.B 9.A 10.C
【原文】A: Wow, Selina, what a great smell!
B: Thanks, dad, it’s Russian soup and it’s already.
A: Russian soup from the shop
B: No, dad, it’s my Russian soup and you can eat it with rice.
A: Oh, right. So who’s coming for lunch
B: Mark and Tina.
A: But Selina, I really want to have a quiet afternoon and rest.
B: Oh, don’t worry. After lunch we plan to study in my room.
A: Ah, it’s ready. Be careful! It’s very hot. Can I help you
B: It’s OK, dad. I can just. Oh, no, my soup, it’s all over the floor.
A: Well, first let’s clean it all up and then do you want to go to the new sandwich shop
B: OK, dad, then we can go to the library and do homework there.
11.C 12.A 13.B 14.B 15.A
【原文】
Hello, everyone! I’m Emily. Now let me tell you something about my friend Alice. She is a kind and outgoing girl. Although she is only 15 years old, she runs a club to help animals. She set up the club last year. Alice wants more people to help protect animals. Every Tuesday and Thursday, she and other members meet at the club and go online to learn about animals. They often make signs to teach people about wild animals. On Saturday, they try to raise some money for animals by selling newspapers in the street. Every Sunday, they go to the zoo to help look after the animals. The work isn’t easy, but they all try their best. They always say, “Animals are our friends, and we should help protect them.” What kind children they are!
16.A 17.C 18.C
本文是一篇说明文,介绍了飓风的基本属性、分类依据、不同海域的飓风季时间、潜在危险及安全建议,帮助读者了解飓风相关知识。
16.细节理解题。根据“Scientists divide (划分)them into five categories according to the wind speed.”可知,科学家根据风速将飓风划分为五个类别,故选A。
17.细节理解题。根据“Hurricane Season usually comes on June 1st and ends on November 30th in the Atlantic Ocean”可知,大西洋的飓风季节从6月1日到11月30日,大约持续6个月,故选C。
18.细节理解题。根据“Stay inside during the hurricane, or you’ll be injured.”可知,当飓风发生时我们应该待在室内,故选C。
19.B 20.D 21.A 22.C
本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了14岁的Mia从讨厌做家务,到通过历史老师的项目理解家务价值的故事。
19.细节理解题。根据“Every Saturday, 14-year-old Mia had to help wash clothes. But she hated it. One day, when her mother asked her to wash socks, she complained ...”可知,Mia抱怨每周六要帮忙洗衣服,故选B。
20.推理判断题。根据“Mia noticed things she had never seen before: her father fixed the sink (水槽), ... and her brother watered flowers carefully outside.”并结合语境可知,此处是有关家人做家务的事,故“her mother’s hands looked dirty from cleaning”符合要求,故选D。
21.细节理解题。根据“For her project, Mia made a video and showed pride in her family’s Saturday chores.”可知,视频展示了她对家庭家务工作的自豪,故选A。
22.观点态度题。根据“Now, Mia still doesn’t love washing, but she understands its value.”可知,Mia最后仍不喜欢洗衣服,但理解了它的价值,故选C。
23.B 24.A 25.C 26.B
本文主要讲述了体重指数的含义,以及体重过重可能带来的危害,并给出了健康专家对于控制体重的建议。
23.细节理解题。根据“For healthy adults in China, a normal BMI is between 18.5 and 23.9. A BMI between 24 and 27.9 is considered overweight.”可知,对于中国的健康成年人来说,正常的BMI在18.5和2之间,在24和27.9之间被认为是超重的。故选B。
24.细节理解题。根据“...if things keep going the way they are now, by 2030, about 70.5% of adults in China could be overweight, and 31.8% of children could face the same problem. Being overweight can easily lead to...”可知,如果按照现在的饮食方式进食,会有更多人超重,从而导致高血压、糖尿病、心脏病和各种问题。故选A。
25.细节理解题。根据“Lei Haichao, head of the NHC, talked about a three-year program across the country to help people keep their weight under control and to encourage a healthier lifestyle.”可知,这项为期三年的计划是为了帮助人们控制体重,鼓励更健康的生活方式。故选C。
26.主旨大意题。根据“Healthy experts advise people to...”可知,本段主要讲述了健康专家对于控制体重的建议。故选B。
27.B 28.A 29.D 30.B
本文讲述了鲑鱼的生命周期中的一段旅程,特别是它们从海洋返回出生地繁殖后代的过程。
27.细节理解题。根据“These fish aren’t going down a waterfall. They’re going up! These big, strong salmon (鲑鱼) are returning to the quiet waters where they hatched (孵).”可知这些体型庞大、强壮的鲑鱼正在往上游!故选B。
28.细节理解题。根据“To keep the eggs safe, they put sand over them.”可知,母鲑鱼通过用沙覆盖来保护它们的卵,故选A。
29.词句猜测题,根据第三段“But there are many enemies along the way. Birds, bears, and bigger fish love to eat baby salmon. Some do arrive at the ocean.”,可知“some”指的是baby salmon,有些小鲑鱼最终能够到达大海,故选D。
30.推理判断题。根据“But there are many enemies along the way.”可知这是一场艰苦的旅程,故选B。
31.C 32.B 33.E 34.A 35.I’d put up my favorite pictures in my room.(合理即可)
本文主要介绍了一些营造温馨家的建议。
31.根据“Want to make your home more homey Looking for ideas ”及下文的介绍可知,此处应该是提出自己的方法,选项C“你可以试试这些简单的事情!”符合语境。故选C。
32.根据“A comfortable home should be tidy.”可知,此处与整洁有关,选项B“保持干净。”符合语境。故选B。
33.根据“You can hang up your favorite pictures, photos, or even your own artworks!”可知,此处与兴趣、爱好有关,选项E“它还告诉人们你的兴趣。”符合语境。故选E。
34.根据“Plants and flowers can also cheer you up.”可知,此处与绿植有关,选项A“绿色。”符合语境。故选A。
35.开放性试题,答案合理即可。参考答案:我会把我最喜欢的照片放在房间里。故填I’d put up my favorite pictures in my room.
36.A 37.B 38.A 39.D 40.B 41.A 42.C 43.B 44.A 45.D 46.A 47.B 48.D 49.B 50.A
本文讲述作者在超市发现“天使树”并为两个陌生孩子购买玩具的经历。
36.正当我准备去超市购物时,我注意到了一样非常特别的东西。
shopping购物;cooking做饭;reading阅读;studying学习。 根据“in the supermarket”可知是在超市购物。故选A。
37.一群好心人搭建了这棵树,以帮助那些家庭无法为他们购买玩具的孩子们。
give up放弃;put up张贴;add up加起来;look up查阅。根据“this tree to help children whose families couldn’t buy them toys.”可知是搭建这棵树,put up符合。故选B。
38.树上挂着一些小纸片,它们被剪成了天使的形状。
paper纸;bread面包;plate盘子;glass玻璃。根据“Each paper angel”可知树上挂着纸片。故选A。
39.每个纸天使上都写了一个孩子的名字和他或她希望得到的玩具。
smile微笑;money钱;love爱;toy玩具。根据“People who saw the tree would pick an angel and buy the toy.”可知是希望得到玩具。故选D。
40.之后,这个团队会将玩具寄出,确保孩子们能在新年收到。
Teachers’ Day教师节;New Year’s Day新年;Father’s Day父亲节;Children’s Day儿童节。根据“Many years ago, in the late days of December”可知是在新年收到玩具。故选B。
41.当我仔细看时,我发现只剩下两个天使卡片了。
two二;three三;four四;five五。 根据“One asked for a football and the other for a”可知是两个卡片。故选A。
42.一个孩子想要一个足球,另一个想要一个篮球。
baseball棒球;bat球拍;basketball篮球;volleyball排球。根据“but my football and basketball.”可知是另一个想要一个篮球。故选C。
43.当我看着这些卡片时,我回想起了自己当孩子时的日子。
father父亲;kid小孩;writer作家;doctor医生。根据“I remembered my own days as a”可知是自己是孩子的时候。故选B。
44.我感到幸福的回忆又回来了。
happy高兴的;scary令人害怕的;sad悲伤的;surprising令人惊讶的。根据“but my football and basketball. I often played with them”可知自己小时候玩球的回忆很快乐。故选A。
45.甚至在我给自己的孩子买礼物之前,我就决定给那些名字刻在天使上的男孩买这两个玩具。
after在……之后;when当;though尽管;before在……之前。根据“I bought presents for my own children. At first, I was worried if I had enough money”可知在为自己的孩子买礼物之前,就决定为他们买玩具。故选D。
46.但幸运的是,我有!
luckily幸运地;usually通常;quietly安静地;clearly清楚地。根据“I did!”可知自己有足够的钱,这是幸运的。故选A。
47.当我把足球和篮球放进捐赠箱时,我感受到了一种特殊的快乐,这种快乐来自于让别人感到幸福。
everybody每个人;somebody某个人;anybody任何人;nobody没有人。根据“making...else happy”可知是让别人开心,肯定句中用somebody。故选B。
48.我感到非常开心,即使我不认识他们。
like喜欢;tell告诉;want想要;know知道。根据“even if I don’t...them”可知是不认识他们。故选D。
49.爱可以治愈所有人——无论是接受爱的人,还是给予爱的人。
get得到;give给;find找到;lose丢失。根据“both those who get it and those who”可知是接受爱的人和给予爱的人。故选B。
50.这就是“天使树”的意义。
meaning意思;future未来;price价格;health健康。根据“try to share your love and kindness every day of the year”可知分享爱和善意是“天使树”的意义。故选A。
51.First 52.healthily 53.of 54.others 55.take
本文是一篇记叙文,一名14岁学生从健康生活、勇敢面对挑战、友善待人以及牢记责任感等方面阐述了自我提升的规划。
51.首先,我应该健康地生活。根据后文“Second、Third、Finally”可知,此处是在列举建议的 “第一点”,“first of all”是固定短语,意为“首先”,符合语境,故填First。
52.首先,我应该健康地生活。空格处需修饰动词“live”,应用副词形式;“healthy”是形容词,意为“健康的”,其副词形式为“healthily”。故填healthily。
53.其次,我不会害怕挑战。“be afraid of”是固定搭配,意为“害怕……”,后接名词、代词或动名词;此处“challenges”是名词,需用“of”连接,故填of。
54.第三,我应该友善,并且乐于助人。“help”后需接宾语,“other”是形容词,意为“其他的”,其代词形式“others”可作宾语,指“其他人”,故填others。
55.最后,我会时刻牢记责任感,照顾父母,并在可能时帮助弱者。“take care of”是固定短语,意为“照顾、照料”;此处与“keep the responsibilities”并列,均为“我”要做的事,且“will”后接动词原形,故填take。
56.fan 57.unusual 58.province 59.regard 60.offered 61.Recently 62.led 63.deep 64.importance 65.protect
本文主要讲述夏梦在暑假练习竹笛的经历,以及贵州玉屏侗族自治县作为“中国竹笛之乡”组织的相关活动,展现当地对竹笛这一传统文化遗产的保护与传承。
56.她已成为这种乐器的狂热爱好者。根据“a big…of the musical instrument”可知,此处需填名词,fan表示“爱好者”,符合语境。故填fan。
57.一个月前,她的学校组织了一场不寻常的活动——2500 多名学生身着漂亮的传统服饰,一同吹奏竹笛。根据“a (n)…event”可知,需填形容词,unusual表示“不寻常的”,符合语境,修饰event。故填unusual。
58.夏梦的学校位于贵州省玉屏侗族自治县。根据“Guizhou…”可知,这里是province表示“省份”,符合语境,此处用单数。故填province。
59.人们把它视为“中国竹笛之乡”。根据“People…it as…”可知,这里考查短语“regard…as…”,表示“把……视为……”,句子为一般现在时,主语People是复数,动词用原形。故填regard。
60.为了鼓励更多年轻人了解这门传统艺术,该县已为他们提供了各种各样学习竹笛的机会。根据“the county has…different kinds of opportunities”可知,时态为现在完成时,结构为“have/has+过去分词”,offer表示“主动提出”,其过去分词为offered,符合语境。故填offered。
61.最近,玉屏中等职业学校的学生参观了竹笛博物馆。根据“…, students…”可知,需填副词作状语,Recently表示“最近”,符合语境,句首首字母大写。故填Recently。
62.在那里,一位导游领路带他们参观。根据“a guide…them on a tour”可知,此处缺谓语动词,lead表示“领路”,结合前文visited可知时态为一般过去时,lead的过去式为led,符合语境。故填led。
63.这次旅行帮助他们对这一文化遗产的重要性有了深刻的理解。根据“develop a (n) …understanding”可知,需填形容词,deep表示“深的”,符合语境,修饰understanding。故填deep。
64.这次旅行帮助他们对这一文化遗产的重要性有了深刻的理解。根据“the…of this cultural heritage”可知,这里需填名词,importance表示“重要性”,符合语境,为不可数名词。故填importance。
65.玉屏竹笛文化确实丰富,它让越来越多像我这样的孩子想要保护和传承这一文化遗产。根据“want to…and pass on”可知,这里是want to do sth“想要做某事”,protect表示“保护”,符合语境,用动词原形。故填protect。
66.invitations 67.easier 68.to show 69.clearly 70.However 71.when 72.or 73.planning 74.for 75.themselves
本文是一篇说明文,介绍了举办派对时写邀请函的方法,包括正确写名字、说明地点等,做好这些后就能准备派对。
66.当然,写合适的邀请函很重要。根据“writing proper...is important”可知,这里需要名词作宾语,invite的名词形式是invitation,是可数名词,此处要用复数形式invitations,表示“邀请函”,故填invitations。
67.如果你遵循以下方法,会容易得多。根据“it will be much...”可知,much修饰形容词比较级,easy的比较级是easier,故填easier。
68.这是向客人表达尊重的好方法。 根据“This is a good way...your respect for the guests”可知,“a good way to do sth.”是固定用法,表示“做某事的好方法”,故填to show。
69.因为你的客人不清楚派对的地址,所以有必要写下地址。根据“Since your guests don’t know about the party’s address...”可知,这里需要副词修饰动词know,clear的副词形式是clearly,故填clearly。
70.我们知道每个人手机上都有地图,然而,如果你组织派对,最好还是给每个人画一张地图。根据“..., it’s better to draw a map for everyone if you organize the party”可知,前一句说大家手机上都有地图,后一句说最好还是画个地图,前后是转折关系,且有逗号隔开,故填However。
71.你还需要告诉客人什么时候到达。根据“You also need to tell your guests...to arrive”可知,这里说的是告诉客人“什么时候”到达,故填when。
72.至少你需要告诉他们,是应该穿正式服装还是普通衣服。根据“At least you need to tell them if they should come in formal dresses...just normal clothes”可知,这里表示选择关系,“是穿正式服装还是普通衣服”,故填or。
73.当你计划在户外举办派对时,要考虑天气。根据“When you’re...a party outdoors”可知,be动词are后接动词的现在分词构成现在进行时,表示“正在计划”,故填planning。
74.当所有这些事情都完成后,你就可以开始为派对做准备了。根据“then you can start to make preparations...your party”可知,“make preparations for...”是固定短语,表示“为……做准备”,故填for。
75.我相信人们会在派对上玩得很开心。根据“I am sure that people will enjoy...at the party”可知,“enjoy oneself”表示“玩得开心”,所以此处要用反身代词themselves,故填themselves。
76.例文①
Dear Lily,
Glad to share with you my school trip last week.
Last Friday, our class went to the science museum in the city centre. There we saw lots of great inventions on show and got to know more about the development of science and technology. We also experienced something new there, such as robots and 3D printing machines. One of the robots could dance, play the violin and even talk to us, which made everyone excited.
This amazing trip was not just interesting but also helped us learn a lot about science.
Yours,
Zhang Hua
例文②
Dear Lily,
Glad to share with you my school trip last week.
Last Friday, our class went to a farm in the countryside. We saw different animals and plants there. The farmers taught us how to plant potatoes. It wasn’t as easy as we thought, but it was great fun. We also learned to make traditional food—Ma ci. We never did that before, but everyone had a good try. Food made by ourselves seemed more delicious!
It was a meaningful trip as we knew the value of hard work better.
Yours,
Zhang Hua
[总体分析]
①题材:本文是一篇电子邮件;
②时态:一般过去时为主;
③提示:写作要点提示和开头结尾已给出,考生应注意要求中的内容,充实细节,并突出写作重点。
[写作步骤]
第一步,开篇点明主题,介绍上周的学校旅行;
第二步,详细描述旅行过程;
第三步,总结旅行的意义。
[亮点词汇]
①invention发明
②on show展览
③development发展
④amazing令人惊叹的
[高分句型]
① There we saw lots of great inventions on show and got to know more about the development of science and technology. (运用了并列谓语结构)
② One of the robots could dance, play the violin and even talk to us, which made everyone excited. (运用了which引导的非限制性定语从句)(共7张PPT)
人教版2024 八年级英语上册
八年级英语上学期期末考试
(浙江杭州市专用)答案
一、听力测试
1-10:A B A C C B B B A C
11-15:C A B B A
一、快速核对
二、阅读理解
A:16.A 17.C 18.C
B:19.B 20.D 21.A 22.C
C:23.B 24.A 25.C 26.B
D:27.B 28.A 29.D 30.B
第二节 任务型阅读
31.C 32.B 33.E 34.A 35.I’d put up my favorite pictures in my room.(合理即可)
一、快速核对
三、完形填空
36.A 37.B 38.A 39.D 40.B 41.A 42.C 43.B 44.A 45.D 46.A 47.B 48.D 49.B 50.A
第二节 词汇运用
A:51.First 52.healthily 53.of 54.others 55.take
B:56.fan 57.unusual 58.province 59.regard 60.offered 61.Recently 62.led 63.deep 64.importance 65.protect
一、快速核对
第三节 语法填空
66.invitations 67.easier 68.to show 69.clearly 70.However 71.when 72.or 73.planning 74.for 75.themselves
76.例文:
Dear Lily,
Glad to share with you my school trip last week.
Last Friday, our class went to the science museum in the city centre. There we saw lots of great inventions on show and got to know more about the development of science and technology. We also experienced something new there, such as robots and 3D printing machines. One of the robots could dance, play the violin and even talk to us, which made everyone excited.
This amazing trip was not just interesting but also helped us learn a lot about science.
Yours,
Zhang Hua
第四部分语言运用2025-2026学年八年级英语上学期期末考试(浙江杭州市专用)
英语·答题卡
姓名:______________________________________
准考证号 条 码 粘 贴 处
缺考标记 注意事项
1.答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚。
考生禁止填涂 2.请将准考证条码粘贴在右侧的[条码粘贴处]的方框内。
缺考标记!只能 3.选择题必须使用 2B铅笔填涂;非选择题必须用 0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔填写,字体工整。
由监考老师负 4.请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答,超出范围的答案无效,在草纸、试卷上作答无效。
责用黑色字迹 5.保持卡面清洁,不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。
的签字笔填涂。 6.填涂样例 正确 [■] 错误 [--][√] [×]
选择题(请用 2B铅笔填涂)
第二部分(听力)(第 1-5 每小题 1分,6-15每小题 1.5分,共 20分)
1.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 6.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 11.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
2.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 7.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 12.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
3.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 8.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 13.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
4.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 9.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 14.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
5.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 10.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 15.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
第二部分(阅读理解)(共 20小题,每小题 2分,满分 40分)
16.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 21.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 26.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 31.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
17.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 22.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 27.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 32.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
18.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 23[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 28.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 33.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
19.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 24.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 29.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 34.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
20.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 25.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 30.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
35.______________________________________________________
第三部分 第一节 完形填空(共 15 小题,每小题 1分,满分 15 分)
36.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 41.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 46.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
37.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 42.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 47.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
38.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 43.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 48.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
39.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 44.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 49.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
40.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 45.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 50.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!
非选择题(请在各试题的答题区内作答)
第二节 词汇运用(共 15小题,每小题 1分,满分 15分)
A:51.___________ 52. ____________ 53. ____________ 54 ____________ 55. ____________
B:56.___________ 57. ____________ 58. ____________ 59 ____________ 60. ____________
61.___________ 62. ____________ 63. ____________ 64 ____________ 65. ____________
第三节 语法填空(共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
66.___________ 67. ____________ 68. ____________ 69 ____________ 70. ____________
71.___________ 72. ____________ 73. ____________ 74 ____________ 75. ____________
第四部分语言运用 (共一节,满分 20 分)
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!

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