浙江丽水市2025-2026学年七年级英语上学期期末考试[原卷+答案解析+PPT答案+听力音频及听力原文+答题卡]-七年级英语上册人教版(2024)

资源下载
  1. 二一教育资源

浙江丽水市2025-2026学年七年级英语上学期期末考试[原卷+答案解析+PPT答案+听力音频及听力原文+答题卡]-七年级英语上册人教版(2024)

资源简介

保密★启用前
2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期末考试(丽水市专用)
英 语
(考试时间:100分钟 试卷满分:120分)
学校:___________姓名:___________班级:___________考号:___________
考生注意:
1.本试题卷共10页,满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前,请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时,请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求,在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答,在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试难度:0.75 [2025年浙江省最新中考题型]
第一部分 听力 (满分20分)
第一节:听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。(每小题1分)
1.When does the woman finish her work on Fridays
A.At 4 p. m. B.At 5 p. m. C.At 6 p. m.
2.What ball game does Henry’s brother like
A.Baseball. B.Volleyball. C.Basketball.
3.What will John do after class
A.Play football. B.Clean the room. C.Do some homework.
4.When is Lingling’s birthday
A.On 12th October. B.On 15th August. C.On 16th August.
5.Where does the conversation probably take place
A.In a supermarket. B.In a bank. C.In a hospital.
第二节:听下面两段对话。每段对话后有2至3个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。(每小题1.5分)
听第一段对话,回答下列小题。
6.How will the speakers get to the shopping mall
A.By bike. B.By bus. C.By subway.
7.What does Ben need to buy
A.A computer. B.An earphone. C.A mouse.
听对话,回答三个小题。
8.Where is John now
A.At home. B.In the countryside. C.In the park.
9.What does Alice look like
A.She is short. B.She has long hair. C.She has curly hair.
10.What will Helen do this Sunday
A.Introduce a friend to John. B.Go fishing with John. C.Have a party.
第三节:听下面一段独白,独白后有5个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。(每小题1.5分)。
11.When did Alice visit her grandparents
A.Five days ago. B.Six days ago. C.Seven days ago.
12.What did Alice do on her way to the village
A.She picked some flowers. B.She bought some food. C.She called her parents.
13.Who did Alice go boating with in the afternoon
A.Her mother. B.Her grandfather. C.Her aunt.
14.What did Alice’s grandmother cook for her
A.Chicken soup. B.Beef noodles. C.Fish and rice.
15.What time did Alice go back home
A.At 6:00. B.At 6:30. C.At 7:00.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Nick calls his father at 8790949. He says, “Dad, I can’t find my watch. It’s blue. Do you know where it is ” Mr. Smith says, “I don’t know. Is it on your desk ” “No, it’s not on the desk.”
Nick calls his mother at 8799904. He asks, “Mom, do you know where my watch is ” Mrs. Smith says, “Oh, I think it’s in your room.” But Nick’s room isn’t tidy. He has to look for it everywhere in the room. But he can’t find the watch.
Suddenly (突然), Nick’s brother calls him, “Nick, I ...”
Nick says, “Rick, I’m busy now.”
“Yeah You are busy looking for your watch I hear Dad and Mom say that. It’s on my wrist (手腕),” says Rick.
16.Nick’s watch is ______.
A.blue B.black C.yellow D.brown
17.The underlined words (划线单词) “look for” mean “______” in Chinese.
A.购买 B.寻找 C.联系 D.制作
18.Which of the following is TRUE
A.Nick’s room is very tidy.
B.Nick’s watch is on the desk.
C.Nick’s brother tells him where his watch is.
D.Nick’s father’s phone number is 8799904.
B
Home is a special place for everyone. What makes your home “sweet home” For different people, the answer is different.
For 13-year-old Li Mei, her home is sweet because of her family. Every evening, her dad reads newspapers, her mom watches TV, and she does her homework in her room. Then they talk about interesting things and have fun together.
For 14-year-old Tom, his home is sweet because of his bedroom. He decorated (装饰) it himself—he put up posters of his favorite football players on the walls, and made paper-cutting with his grandma’s help. “My bedroom is my favorite place. I can listen to music, read books to relax there,” Tom says.
For Mrs. Wang, a neighbor of Li Mei, her home is sweet because of the community (社区). Every Saturday morning, she and her friends clean up the community together. They also help old people carry their shopping bags. “We are like a big family. Everyone helps each other,” Mrs. Wang says.
In fact, a “sweet home” doesn’t have to be a big and beautiful house. As long as there is love and care, it becomes the most special place in the world.
19.What does Li Mei do every evening
A.She reads newspapers. B.She does her homework.
C.She watches TV. D.She decorates her room.
20.How did Tom decorate his bedroom
A.He put up football posters and paper-cuttings.
B.He put a big TV in it.
C.He painted the walls blue.
D.He bought new furniture with his dad.
21.What does Mrs. Wang do every Saturday morning
A.She reads newspapers at home. B.She plays with her grandchildren.
C.She helps people in the community. D.She cooks for her family.
22.What makes a home “sweet home” according to the passage
A.Big rooms and expensive furniture. B.Love and care.
C.Many beautiful gifts. D.Pictures of pop stars.
C
In Jill’s family, there is a tradition (传统)—Grandmother needs to make a dress as her grandchildren’s tenth birthday gift. So before Jill’s tenth birthday, her grandmother asks, “Dear, what color of dress do you want ” Jill thinks for a while and says, “Grandma, how can I pick just one I love all the colors of the rainbow”
“Red is the color of love and luck. When I wear red, I will have a lucky day.”
“Orange makes me feel warm. When I wear orange, I feel like I’m at home.”
“Yellow is a nice color. When I wear yellow, I feel like I’m the happiest girl in the world.”
“Green is the color of life. When I wear green, I feel relaxed.”
“Blue is the color of sea and sky. It’s quiet but strong. When I wear blue, I feel free.”
“Purple is the color of wisdom (智慧). When I wear purple, I feel smarter.”
Hearing this, the grandma says, “I know what to do now, my dear girl. I will make you a beautiful dress with all the colors of the rainbow.”
23.What’s the tradition of Jill’s family
A.Seeing the rainbow together.
B.Visiting grandmother every weekend.
C.Getting a dress from grandmother on tenth birthday.
D.Having the tenth birthday party at grandmother’s house.
24.Why does Jill like the color orange
A.Because it is the color of wisdom.
B.Because it is the color of love and luck.
C.Because it makes her feel like the happiest girl.
D.Because it makes her feel warm and like being at home.
25.What color dress will Jill get from her grandmother
A.No dress. B.Blue and green.
C.Yellow and red. D.The colors of the rainbow.
26.Where can we read the passage
A.In a storybook. B.In a dictionary.
C.In a travel book. D.In a science newspaper.
D
American students usually get up at 7 from Monday to Friday. After breakfast, they go to school on foot or by the yellow school bus. Some students ride bikes. They get to school at about half past eight. In middle school, students have classes for six hours. Their classes are English writing, Maths, History, Science, P.E., Music and Art.
At noon, students have lunch at school. They don’t have a short sleep. They go back to have classes after lunch until three o’clock. Then they go home.
Students usually play or watch TV before supper. They have supper at six in the evening. After supper, they do their homework. Sometimes they play or talk with their parents.
On Saturdays, they often go shopping or visit their grandparents. And on Sundays, they go to church with their parents in the morning and have a big dinner at one o’clock in the afternoon.
27.Where do the students have lunch on weekdays
A.In a restaurant. B.At home. C.At school. D.In KFCs.
28.What do the students often do on Sundays
A.Go to church. B.Go to a park. C.Visit friends. D.Go shopping.
29.Which of the following is TRUE
A.American students usually get up at 7 at the weekend.
B.American students often visit their grandparents on Saturdays.
C.Middle school students in America stay in school for more than 8 hours.
D.American students can have a long sleep at noon.
30.What is the passage mainly about
A.American family. B.American students’ daily life.
C.American schools. D.American parents.
第二节 任务型阅读(共5题,每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面材料,从方框中所给的A~E五个选项中选出正确选项 (其中一项是多余选项),并回答最后小题。
Hi, my name is Andy Green. I’m studying at a middle school in a village of Germany.
Let me tell you something about my life at school.
31
On school days, I get up at 6:30 a.m. and then I go to school by bus. My first class starts at 8:15 a.m. Each of our classes is 45 minutes. We have some breaks for 5 or 15 minutes, but our lunch break is 50 minutes. My school usually finishes at 2:20 p.m.
32
We have 14 subjects, like math, English, science, art, music, history, geography, PE and so on. Math and art are my favourite subjects. But if you have the right teacher, any subject can be great.
33
Our lunch break starts at 1:30 p.m. We can have lunch or take a rest. In the dining hall, you can have what you like. You can eat rice, noodles, bread, meat, fish, vegetables and fruit there.
34
My favourite after-school activities are ball games, like tennis and basketball. They are good ways to make friends and have a good time.
A special day
Every summer, we have Abi-Ulk Day. On that day, we don’t have any lessons and we play in the playground. We can play games together and have fun for a whole day.
A.Subjects
B.Lunchtime
C. An interesting class
D.Timetable
E. After-school activities
5. What is your school life like (Answer with no more than 15 words)
35
第三部分 语言运用 (共三节,满分40分)
第一节 完形填空 (共15 小题,每小题1分,满分15 分)
阅读下面短文,然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
In our school, there are many clubs. We have an English club, a music club, an art club, a tennis club and some other clubs.
The 36 club is a popular (受欢迎的) one. I am a member of it 37 tennis is my favourite sport. I often practice playing tennis after school 38 other members. There are 30 39 in the tennis club. About 50% of them are boys. We have one tennis 40 every week. I love tennis matches (比赛) because they are interesting and 41 . When I have free time, I often 42 tennis matches on TV. That always 43 me happy.
My classmate Zhang Kai is 44 in the tennis club. 45 is tall and strong. What’s more, he is 46 playing tennis. His father is a professional (职业的) tennis player and he often 47 Zhang Kai to play tennis. Zhang Kai also wants to be a player like his father.
Yang Le is short, but he plays tennis very 48 . He also likes 49 , so he wants to 50 the swimming club too. He wants to be a good swimmer.
36.A.tennis B.English C.art D.music
37.A.so B.but C.or D.because
38.A.with B.at C.from D.of
39.A.boys B.students C.teachers D.girls
40.A.meeting B.party C.game D.show
41.A.boring B.exciting C.difficult D.hard
42.A.look B.see C.watch D.read
43.A.has B.makes C.asks D.thinks
44.A.too B.also C.either D.really
45.A.She B.He C.They D.It
46.A.good for B.good to C.good with D.good at
47.A.learns B.teaches C.studies D.goes
48.A.fine B.good C.well D.nice
49.A.running B.drawing C.swimming D.singing
50.A.join B.live C.leave D.stay
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
A.用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空,每词仅用一次
beautiful, also, water, join, bring
Sarah is a lovely student. She likes 51 clubs at school. This term, she joins a gardening club, and it 52 her great happiness.
In the club, she learns about many plants. And she learns to plant seeds (种子) and 53 the flowers. When she sees the 54 flowers, she feels very happy.
The club 55 helps her to make new friends. They often help each other when working in the garden.
B:阅读下面短文,根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
From: Zhu Xiaomeng
To: Lucy
Subject: My school life
Dear Lucy,
Thank you for your letter. I’m happy to tell you something about my school life.
My school life is interesting. We have seven classes in a day and I usually 56 (进入) the classroom early. After each class, we have a 57 (休息) for ten minutes. My favourite subject is music because the class is fun. My music teacher is very 58 (友好的). There are many activities in my school. I joined the school 59 (乐队) this term. I have made many friends there. We play the guitar 60 (一起). And we often talk about our new songs when we have 61 (餐;饭) in the dining hall. After school, we don’t 62 (冲,奔) home. Most students usually stay in the classroom and 63 (完成) homework. Sometimes, we do sports on the playground.
I’m 64 (准备好的) to face every new day and make good memories with my friends. I enjoy 65 (我自己) in my new school. What about your school life? Write to me soon.
Yours,
Zhu Xiaomeng
第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空格处填入一个适当的词或填入括号中单词的正确形式。
My name is Kangkang. My mother is a 66 (teach), and my father is a doctor. They 67 (be) very busy most of the time. 68 after work, we do many 69 (thing) together.
My grandparents don’t live 70 us. We often visit them on 71 (weekend) and have dinner together. We all do something 72 dinner. My parents prepare the food. My sister 73 (help) our grandparents set the table and I clean 74 with my father after dinner.
I enjoy the time with 75 (I) family.
第四部分语言运用 (共一节,满分20分)
76.学校英语公众号正在举办主题为“I love my family”的征文活动,请结合以下图片,从性格、爱好、活动三个方面介绍你的家人,并撰写一篇英文稿件投稿。
写作要点 参考内容
Personality ·friendly ·strict ·…
Hobby ·guitar ·basketball ·…
Activity ·play... ·plant... ·…
要求:
(1)内容需包含性格,爱好以及活动三个方面的内容,可适当发挥;
(2)60-80词左右(开头已给出,不计入总词数);
(3)文中不得出现考生姓名、校名等个人信息。
Hello, everyone! I’m very happy to introduce my family to you.__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________(共7张PPT)
人教版2024 七年级英语上册
浙江省丽水市2025-2026学年七年级英语上学期期末考试 答案
一、听力测试
1-10:ACBCA CCBCC
11-15:CABAB
一、快速核对
二、阅读理解
A:16.A 17.B 18.C
B:19.B 20.A 21.C 22.B
C:23.C 24.D 25.D 26.A
D:27.C 28.A 29.B 30.B
第二节 任务型阅读
31.D 32.A 33.B 34.E 35.My school life is busy but fun.
一、快速核对
三、完形填空
36.A 37.D 38.A 39.B 40.C 41.B 42.C 43.B 44.B 45.B 46.D 47.B 48.C 49.C 50.A
第二节 词汇运用
A:51.joining 52.brings 53.water 54.beautiful 55.also
B:56.enter 57.rest/break 58.friendly 59.band 60.together 61.meals 62.rush 63.finish 64.ready 65.myself
一、快速核对
第三节 语法填空
66.teacher 67.are 68.But 69.things 70.with 71.weekends 72.for 73.helps 74.up 75.my
I Love My Family
Hello, everyone! I’m very happy to introduce my family to you. I have a happy family with four members and a lovely dog. My father is friendly and he loves playing basketball. My mother is kind and her hobby is planting flowers. My sister is talented in playing the guitar. I enjoy playing chess. We often do activities together, like planting flowers on weekends and playing games with our dog. I love my family very much.
第四部分语言运用保密★启用前
2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期末考试(丽水市专用)
英 语
(考试时间:100分钟 试卷满分:120分)
学校:___________姓名:___________班级:___________考号:___________
考生注意:
1.本试题卷共10页,满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前,请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时,请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求,在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答,在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试难度:0.75 [2025年浙江省最新中考题型]
参考答案
题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
答案 A C B C A C C B C C
题号 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
答案 C A B A B A B C B A
题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
答案 C B C D D A C A B B
题号 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
答案 A D A B C B C B B B
题号 46 47 48 49 50
答案 D B C C A
1.A
【原文】M: When do you usually finish your work
W: Well, on most days, I work till five pm, but on Fridays I can leave an hour earlier.
2.C
【原文】W: Henry, do you like volleyball
M: No, I like baseball. And my brother likes basketball.
3.B
【原文】W: Can you come and play basketball with us after class, John
M: Sorry. I will help my mother clean the room.
4.C
【原文】A: How old are you, Lingling
B: Eight. My birthday is on August sixteenth.
5.A
【原文】A: Excuse me, sir. Do you have any sugar
B: Let me have a look. I’m sorry, it has been sold out.
Q: Where does the conversation probably take place
6.C 7.C
【原文】W: Hello, Ben. Do you have any plan for the weekend
M: Yes, I have to take my football lesson on Saturday morning. Why
W: I want to buy a new computer. And could you go with me after having the lesson
M: Sure. My lesson ends at 11:00 o’clock. Then I will go back home by bike. I think we can meet at 11:30.
W: OK. Shall we meet at the bus stop near your home Then we can take a bus there.
M: Why don’t we take the subway It’s faster. And the shopping mall is near the subway station.
W: Good idea. By the way, do you need to buy anything
M: Ah, yes. I almost forgot. I need to buy a mouse.
W: I also have to get an earphone. Then we can buy them all at a time.
8.B 9.C 10.C
【原文】M: Hello, John speaking. Who is that
W: This is Helen speaking.
M: Hi, Helen. How’s it going
W: Not bad. Thanks. What are you doing now
M: I’m fishing in the countryside with my friend Alice.
W: Alice What does she look like
M: She is tall with short curly hair. I’ll introduce her to you next time.
W: That’s great. Oh, I will have a party this Sunday. Can you come
M: No problem. See you then.
11.C 12.A 13.B 14.A 15.B
【原文】
Alice visited her grandparents a week ago. Her grandparents live in a village. On her way to the village, she picked some flowers and wanted to give them to her grandmother. It was not difficult for her to find her grandparents’ house. They were very happy to see her. In the afternoon, Alice went boating with her grandfather. Her grandmother cooked chicken soup for her. It tasted very good. She really had a good time there, but she had to go back home at half past six. She didn’t want her parents to worry about her.
16.A 17.B 18.C
本文主要介绍了Nick找不到自己的蓝色手表,先后给父亲和母亲打电话询问,在房间里到处寻找也未找到,最后弟弟Rick告诉他手表在自己手腕上。
16.细节理解题。根据“I can’t find my watch. It’s blue.”可知,Nick的手表是蓝色的。故选A。
17.词句猜测题。根据“He has to look for it everywhere in the room. But he can’t find the watch.”可知,Nick在房间里到处找手表,但是没有找到,所以“look for”的意思是“寻找”。故选B。
18.细节理解题。根据“‘Yeah You are busy looking for your watch I hear Dad and Mom say that. It’s on my wrist (手腕),’ says Rick.”可知,Nick的弟弟Rick告诉他手表在自己手腕上,所以C选项正确。故选C。
19.B 20.A 21.C 22.B
本文主要讲述不同的人心中“甜蜜的家”的原因,以及让家变甜蜜的核心是爱与关怀。
19.细节理解题。根据“Every evening, her dad reads newspapers, her mom watches TV, and she does her homework in her room.”可知,李梅每天晚上会在房间里写作业。故选B。
20.细节理解题。根据“He decorated it himself—he put up posters of his favorite football players on the walls, and made paper-cutting with his grandma's help.”可知,汤姆通过贴足球明星海报和做剪纸来装饰卧室。故选A。
21.细节理解题。根据“Every Saturday morning, she and her friends clean up the community together. They also help old people carry their shopping bags.”可知,王太太每周六早上会在社区里帮助他人。故选C。
22.细节理解题。根据“As long as there is love and care, it becomes the most special place in the world.”可知,爱与关怀是让家变得“甜蜜”的原因。故选B。
23.C 24.D 25.D 26.A
本文是一篇记叙文,讲述了吉尔家的传统——祖母会在孙辈十岁生日时亲手制作一条裙子作为礼物。吉尔十岁生日前,因热爱彩虹的所有颜色无法抉择,祖母最终决定为她制作一条彩虹色的裙子。
23.细节理解题。根据“In Jill’s family, there is a tradition—Grandmother needs to make a dress as her grandchildren’s tenth birthday gift.”可知,吉尔家的传统是孙辈十岁生日时能收到祖母制作的裙子。故选C。
24.细节理解题。根据“Orange makes me feel warm. When I wear orange, I feel like I’m at home.”可知,吉尔喜欢橙色是因为它让她感到温暖,像在家里一样。故选D。
25.细节理解题。根据祖母的话“I will make you a beautiful dress with all the colors of the rainbow”可知,吉尔会收到一条彩虹色的裙子。故选D。
26.推理判断题。文章围绕吉尔和祖母之间的生日礼物故事展开,情节生动温馨,符合故事书的特点。故选A。
27.C 28.A 29.B 30.B
本文主要介绍了美国学生的日常生活安排,包括上学、午餐、课外活动以及周末的活动。
27.细节理解题。根据“At noon, students have lunch at school.”可知,学生们在工作日的午餐是在学校吃的。故选C。
28.细节理解题。根据“And on Sundays, they go to church with their parents in the morning”可知,学生们在周日经常去教堂。故选A。
29.细节理解题。根据“On Saturdays, they often go shopping or visit their grandparents.”可知,美国学生经常在周六去拜访他们的祖父母。故选B。
30.主旨大意题。文章主要介绍了美国学生的日常生活,包括他们的上学、午餐、课外活动以及周末的安排。故选B。
31.D 32.A 33.B 34.E 35.My school life is busy but fun.
文章主要讲述了Andy Green在德国一所乡村中学的学习生活,包括他的作息时间、课程安排、午餐时间、课外活动以及一个特别的日子。
31.根据“On school days, I get up at 6:30 a.m. and then I go to school by bus. My first class starts at 8:15 a.m. Each of our classes is 45 minutes. We have some breaks for 5 or 15 minutes, but our lunch break is 50 minutes. My school usually finishes at 2:20 p.m.”可知,本段主要介绍了Andy的学校作息时间表,包括起床、上学、上课、课间休息和放学时间等。因此,选项D“时间表”最符合本段大意。故选D。
32.根据“We have 14 subjects, like math, English, science, art, music, history, geography, PE and so on. Math and art are my favourite subjects. But if you have the right teacher, any subject can be great.”可知,本段主要介绍了Andy在学校的课程安排,包括所学的科目以及他最喜欢的科目。因此,选项A“科目”最符合本段大意。故选A。
33.根据“Our lunch break starts at 1:30 p.m. We can have lunch or take a rest. In the dining hall, you can have what you like. You can eat rice, noodles, bread, meat, fish, vegetables and fruit there.”可知,本段主要介绍了Andy学校的午餐时间,包括午餐开始的时间、可以做什么以及在餐厅可以吃的食物等。因此,选项B“午餐时间”最符合本段大意。故选B。
34.根据“My favourite after-school activities are ball games, like tennis and basketball. They are good ways to make friends and have a good time.”可知,本段主要介绍了Andy最喜欢的课后活动,包括球类运动以及这些活动的好处。因此,选项E“课后活动”最符合本段大意。故选E。
35.开放性试题,言之有理即可。根据文章内容,Andy的学校生活既忙碌又有趣,他每天有很多课程和活动,但同时也享受着这些带来的乐趣。故填My school life is busy but fun.
36.A 37.D 38.A 39.B 40.C 41.B 42.C 43.B 44.B 45.B 46.D 47.B 48.C 49.C 50.A
本文介绍了学校有很多俱乐部,对网球俱乐部进行了具体介绍,表达了对网球俱乐部的喜爱。
36.网球俱乐部很受欢迎。
tennis网球;English英语;art美术;music音乐。根据“I am a member of it...tennis is my favourite sport.”以及下文的介绍可知,此处说的是网球俱乐部,故选A。
37.我是其中的一员,因为网球是我最喜欢的运动。
so因此;but但是;or或者;because因为。此处是因果关系,后句是解释加入网球俱乐部的原因,应用because引导原因状语从句,故选D。
38.我经常放学后和其他成员练习打网球。
with和……一起;at在;from从……;of……的。根据“playing tennis after school...other members”可知,此处指的是“和其他成员打网球”,应用介词with,构成短语play...with sb“和某人一起玩”,故选A。
39.网球俱乐部有30名学生。
boys男孩;students学生;teachers老师;girls女孩。根据“About 50% of them are boys.”可知,俱乐部有30名学生,故选B。
40.我们每周有一场网球比赛。
meeting会议;party聚会;game比赛;show展示。根据“I love tennis matches (比赛) because they are interesting”可知,每周有一场比赛,故选C。
41.我喜欢网球比赛,因为它们既有趣又令人兴奋。
boring无聊的;exciting令人激动的;difficult困难的;hard努力的,难的。此处是与“interesting”并列,结合“I love tennis matches”可知,比赛是令人激动的,故选B。
42.当我有空的时候,我经常在电视上看网球比赛
look看起来;see看见,后接看到的内容;watch观看;read读。根据“tennis matches on TV”可知,此处指的是“观看比赛”,故选C。
43.这总是让我很开心。
has有;makes使,让;asks要求;thinks认为。根据“That always...me happy”可知,看比赛让作者开心,此处是make sb+adj的结构,故选B。
44.我的同学张凯也在网球俱乐部。
too也,用于肯定句句末;also也,用于肯定句句中;either也,用于否定句或疑问句;really真地。根据“My classmate Zhang Kai is...in the tennis club.”可知,此处表示“也”,肯定句句中用also,故选B。
45.他又高又壮。
She她;He他;They他们;It它。根据后文提到的“he”可知,此处应用he代替,故选B。
46.此外,他擅长打网球。
good for有益于;good to有益;good with擅长于和……打交道;good at擅长。根据“he is...playing tennis”可知,此处指的是“擅长打网球”,故选D。
47.他的父亲是一名职业网球运动员,他经常教张凯打网球。
learns学会;teaches教;studies学习;goes去。根据“His father is a professional (职业的) tennis player and he often...Zhang Kai to play tennis.”可知,父亲经常教他打网球,故选B。
48.杨乐个子矮,但他的网球打得很好。
fine令人满意的;good好的;well好地;nice美好的。根据“Yang Le is short, but he plays tennis very...”可知,他网球打得很好,修饰动词用副词,故选C。
49.他也喜欢游泳,所以他也想加入游泳俱乐部。
running跑步;drawing画画;swimming游泳;singing唱歌。根据“swimming club too. He wants to be a good swimmer.”可知,他喜欢游泳,故选C。
50.他也喜欢游泳,所以他也想加入游泳俱乐部。
join加入;live生活;leave离开;stay停留。根据“swimming club too. He wants to be a good swimmer.”可知,他喜欢游泳,所以想加入游泳俱乐部,故选A。
51.joining 52.brings 53.water 54.beautiful 55.also
本文主要讲述了主人公Sarah在园艺俱乐部的事情。
51.她喜欢参加学校的社团。根据“clubs at school”及给出的单词可知,应是她喜欢参加学校的社团;like doing sth.“喜欢干某事”,表示习惯性动作。故填joining。
52.这学期,她加入了园艺俱乐部,这给她带来了极大的快乐。根据“she joins a gardening club, and it...her great happiness.”及给出的单词可知,应是这给她带来了极大的快乐,故空处应是bring“带来”,根据上下文语境可知,句子应用一般现在时,主语it是第三人称单数形式,故动词应用brings。故填brings。
53.她学习播种和浇花。根据“she learns to plant seeds (种子) and...the flowers”及给出的单词可知,应是她学习播种和浇花,learn to do sth.“学习做某事”,固定用法。故填water。
54.当她看到美丽的花朵时,她感到非常高兴。根据“she sees the...flowers, she feels very happy.”及给出的单词可知,应是当她看到美丽的花时,故空处应是beautiful“美丽的”。故填beautiful。
55.俱乐部还帮助她结交新朋友。根据句意和给出的单词可知,空处应是also“也”,用于肯定句句中,故填also。
56.enter 57.rest/break 58.friendly 59.band 60.together 61.meals 62.rush 63.finish 64.ready 65.myself
本文是一篇应用文。文章主要是Zhu Xiaomeng在邮件中向Lucy分享自己有趣的学校生活。
56.我们一天有七节课,我通常很早就到教室。根据句意和汉语提示可知,此处考查enter“进入”,动词;又根据空前“I usually…”可知,句子时态为一般现在时,且主语为“I”,谓语动词应用原形。故填enter。
57.每节课后,我们会休息十分钟。根据句意和汉语提示可知,此处考查have a rest/break“休息一下”,动词短语。故填rest/break。
58.我的音乐老师非常友善。根据句意和汉语提示可知,此处考查friendly“友好的”,形容词,在句中作表语。故填friendly。
59.这学期我加入了学校乐队。根据句意和汉语提示可知,此处考查band“乐队”,名词,the school band“学校乐队”,固定搭配。故填band。
60.我们一起弹吉他。根据句意和汉语提示可知,此处考查together“一起”,副词,在句中作状语,修饰动词“play”。故填together。
61.而且,在食堂吃饭的时候,我们常常会讨论我们的新歌。根据句意和汉语提示可知,此处考查meal“餐,饭”,可数名词;have meals“用餐,吃饭”,常用短语。故填meals。
62.放学后,我们不会急着回家。根据句意和汉语提示可知,此处考查rush“奔,冲”,动词;空前有助动词“don’t”,这里应用动词原形。故填rush。
63.大多数同学通常会留在教室里完成作业。根据句意和汉语提示可知,此处考查finish“完成”,动词;根据“Most students usually stay…”可知,句子时态为一般现在时,且主语为复数,谓语动词应用原形。故填finish。
64.我已准备好迎接新的一天,和朋友们一起留下美好的回忆。根据句意和汉语提示可知,此处考查ready“准备好的”,形容词;be ready to do sth.“准备好做某事”,形容词短语。故填ready。
65.我在新学校过得很愉快。根据句意和汉语提示可知,此处考查myself“我自己”,反身代词;enjoy oneself“玩得开心”,固定搭配。故填myself。
66.teacher 67.are 68.But 69.things 70.with 71.weekends 72.for 73.helps 74.up 75.my
本文是一篇记叙文,主要讲述了康康的家庭成员以及他们一起做的事情。
66.我妈妈是一名老师,且我爸爸是一名医生。空处位于“a”后,填可数名词单数,且此处指妈妈的职业。teach“教”,动词,teacher“老师”,可数名词。故填teacher。
67.他们大部分时间都很忙。描述客观事实,用一般现在时。主语“They”是复数,需用be动词复数形式are。故填are。
68.但下班后,我们会一起做很多事情。前后句表示转折关系,虽然忙,但下班后会做很多事。空处填表示转折关系的连词but“但是”,位于句首,首字母大写。故填But。
69.但下班后,我们会一起做很多事情。thing“事情”,可数名词,位于“many”后,用复数的things。故填things。
70.我的祖父母不和我们住在一起。根据“My grandparents don’t live”可知,此处指不和作者一家住在一起。live with sb“和某人同住”,固定搭配。故填with。
71.我们经常在周末拜访他们并一起吃晚饭。weekend“周末”,可数名词,根据“often”可知,此处指在多个周末或每个周末,用复数的weekends。on weekends“在周末”。故填weekends。
72.我们都会为晚餐做点事情。根据“My parents prepare the food.”和“set the table”可知,准备食物和摆桌子都是为吃晚餐做的事情。do sth for dinner“为晚餐做某事”,空处需用介词for。故填for。
73.我的姐姐帮助祖父母摆桌子,晚饭后我和我爸爸一起打扫卫生。根据“My parents prepare the food.”可知,此句时态为一般现在时,主语“My sister”是第三人称单数,空处用动词三单形式作谓语。help“帮助”,动词,三单形式为helps。故填helps。
74.我的姐姐帮助祖父母摆桌子,晚饭后我和我爸爸一起打扫卫生。根据“clean”和“after dinner”可知,作者和爸爸负责晚饭后的清理工作。clean up“清理干净”,固定搭配。故填up。
75.我很享受和我的家人在一起的时光。I“我”,主格。空处需用形容词性物主代词my“我的”修饰名词“family”。故填my。
76.One Possible version
I Love My Family
Hello, everyone! I’m very happy to introduce my family to you. I have a happy family with four members and a lovely dog. My father is friendly and he loves playing basketball. My mother is kind and her hobby is planting flowers. My sister is talented in playing the guitar. I enjoy playing chess. We often do activities together, like planting flowers on weekends and playing games with our dog. I love my family very much.
[总体分析]
①题材:本文是一篇记叙文,为材料作文;
②时态:时态为一般现在时;
③提示:写作要点已给出,可适当补充细节凸显家庭氛围。
[写作步骤]
第一步,先总述家庭概况;
第二步,再分别介绍每位家庭成员的性格特点及个人爱好;
第三步,最后描述家庭共同活动。
[亮点词汇]
①introduce...to...向……介绍……
②be talented in擅长……
[高分句型]
①I have a happy family with four members and a lovely dog. (with短语作后置定语)
②We often do activities together, like planting flowers on weekends and playing games with our dog. (like后接动名词短语) 浙江省丽水市 2025-2026学年七年级英语上学期期末考试
英语·答题卡
姓名:______________________________________
准考证号 条 码 粘 贴 处
缺考标记 注意事项
1.答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚。
考生禁止填涂 2.请将准考证条码粘贴在右侧的[条码粘贴处]的方框内。
缺考标记!只能 3.选择题必须使用 2B铅笔填涂;非选择题必须用 0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔填写,字体工整。
由监考老师负 4.请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答,超出范围的答案无效,在草纸、试卷上作答无效。
责用黑色字迹 5.保持卡面清洁,不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。
的签字笔填涂。 6.填涂样例 正确 [■] 错误 [--][√] [×]
选择题(请用 2B铅笔填涂)
第二部分(听力)(第 1-5 每小题 1分,6-15每小题 1.5分,共 20分)
1.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 6.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 11.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
2.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 7.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 12.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
3.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 8.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 13.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
4.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 9.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 14.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
5.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 10.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 15.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
第二部分(阅读理解)(共 20小题,每小题 2分,满分 40分)
16.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 21.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 26.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 31.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
17.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 22.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 27.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 32.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
18.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 23[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 28.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 33.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
19.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 24.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 29.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 34.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
20.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 25.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 30.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
35.______________________________________________________
第三部分 第一节 完形填空(共 15 小题,每小题 1分,满分 15 分)
36.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 41.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 46.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
37.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 42.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 47.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
38.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 43.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 48.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
39.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 44.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 49.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
40.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 45.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 50.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!
非选择题(请在各试题的答题区内作答)
第二节 词汇运用(共 15小题,每小题 1分,满分 15分)
A:51.___________ 52. ____________ 53. ____________ 54 ____________ 55. ____________
B:56.___________ 57. ____________ 58. ____________ 59 ____________ 60. ____________
61.___________ 62. ____________ 63. ____________ 64 ____________ 65. ____________
第三节 语法填空(共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
66.___________ 67. ____________ 68. ____________ 69 ____________ 70. ____________
71.___________ 72. ____________ 73. ____________ 74 ____________ 75. ____________
第四部分语言运用 (共一节,满分 20 分)
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!

展开更多......

收起↑

资源列表