浙江绍兴市2025-2026学年七年级英语上学期期末考试[原卷+答案解析+PPT答案+听力音频及听力原文+答题卡]-七年级英语上册人教版(2024)

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浙江绍兴市2025-2026学年七年级英语上学期期末考试[原卷+答案解析+PPT答案+听力音频及听力原文+答题卡]-七年级英语上册人教版(2024)

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保密★启用前
2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期末考试(绍兴市专用)
英 语
(考试时间:100分钟 试卷满分:120分)
学校:___________姓名:___________班级:___________考号:___________
考生注意:
1.本试题卷共10页,满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前,请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时,请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求,在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答,在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试难度:0.75 [2025年浙江省最新中考题型]
第一部分 听力 (满分20分)
第一节:听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。(每小题1分)
1.What time does the woman usually make breakfast
A.At 6:00. B.At 6:30. C.At 7:00.
2.When is Mary’s birthday
A.On August 2nd. B.On June 12th. C.On August 20th.
3.Where are the children planting trees
A.In the park. B.On the hill. C.Around the school.
4.Who is Linda choosing a present for
A.Her sister. B.Her brother. C.Her mother.
5.How many people are there in the photo
A.Two. B.Three. C.Four.
第二节:听下面两段对话。每段对话后有2至3个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。(每小题1.5分)
听对话,回答以下各小题。
6.How old is Lucy in the photo
A.She is about two. B.She is about three. C.She is about four.
7.How many people are there in the photo
A.Three. B.Four. C.Five.
听1段对话,回答以下小题:
8.Where is Mary from
A.China. B.America. C.England.
9.What does Tom’s father do
A.He is a doctor. B.He is a teacher. C.He is a worker.
10.Is Mary’s father a teacher
A.No, he isn’t. B.Yes, he is. C.We don’t know.
第三节:听下面一段独白,独白后有5个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。(每小题1.5分)。
11.Sun Peng is a ________.
A.firefighter B.pilot C.coach (教练)
12.Sun Peng runs for ________ every morning.
A.half an hour B.40 minutes C.an hour
13.At ________, Sun Peng has breakfast.
A.7:00 B.7:30 C.8:00
14.Sun Peng usually ________ after dinner.
A.reads books B.has a meeting C.plays ping-pong
15.Sun Peng thinks his job is very ________.
A.boring B.important C.difficult
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
The Greens live a happy life, but now they have a problem. Their two young children don’t like to go to sleep early. They just like to play. Mr. Green is always busy. He usually works late and doesn’t often have time for the children. Mrs. Green is tired, and she is not happy about that. She says that Mr. Green should help her look after the children. Mr. Green says that he is sorry, and he will try to help.
Mr. Green thinks hard and then he has a good idea. He thinks that he can sing very well. “The children will get to sleep soon if I sing to them,” he says to Mrs. Green. Mrs. Green says that he can give it a try. It works well. How happy Mr. and Mrs. Green feel!
Then one Sunday Mr. Green hears his son speak softly (轻声地) to his sister, “Close your eyes. Don’t move (动). Dad will stop singing when he sees we are asleep. I don’t like his singing at all and I don’t want to hear it.”
16.What is the Greens’ problem at first
A.Mr. Green often has no time for work.
B.The children like Mr. Green’s singing.
C.Mrs. Green is always busy with her work.
D.The children don’t like to go to sleep early.
17.What is Mr. Green’s idea to solve (解决) the problem
A.He sings to the children.
B.He buys toys for the children.
C.He spends more time with the children.
D.He asks Mrs. Green to sing to the children.
18.How does Mr. Green feel after hearing the children’s words
A.Happy. B.Afraid. C.Unhappy. D.Excited.
B
Sam is not happy today. He doesn’t do well in his English test this time. Now he is sitting alone in his room.
Seeing this, his grandmother comes and talks to him to make him feel good. She sits down next to Sam and gives him a pencil. Sam looks at his grandmother and doesn’t take it.
“Things like this are only for students who do well. I don’t do well,” Sam says.
Sam’s grandmother says, “It’s not a present for you. I want you to learn something from it. The pencil is just like you. It gets a painful sharpening (痛苦的削磨), just like how you get the pain of not doing well in your test.”
“But it will help you be a good student. See, all the good things coming from the pencil are from itself. And you will find something good in yourself, too. Finally, just as the pencil will make its mark (痕迹) on the paper, you will also leave your mark on anything you choose to do. Just ‘sharpen’ yourself and do well next time!”
Sam feels good right away. He plans to make a change (改变) as his grandmother says.
19.Where does the grandmother talk to Sam
A.In Sam’s school. B.In Sam’s room. C.Outside the house. D.In a pencil shop.
20.How does Sam feel when his grandmother gives him a pencil
A.He believes it too small. B.He hates pencils. C.He thinks it a present. D.He doesn’t like it.
21.What does Sam think of his grandmother’s idea
A.Silly. B.Strange. C.Interesting. D.Helpful.
22.In which part of the newspaper can we see the passage
A.Family life. B.School life. C.Future world. D.Great trip.
C
Our school has an environmental protection club. The club is doing a lot to help make our school and the earth a better place.
The club members start with small things. They put up signs around the school to tell students to save water and electricity. They also collect waste paper and bottles. These things can be recycled.
The club often has activities to teach students how to be green. For example, they have a “no-plastic-day” once a month. On that day, students can’t use plastic things. This helps to cut down on plastic waste.
The environmental protection club shows us that everyone can do something to protect the environment.
23.What does the environmental protection club do
A.It helps students with their homework. B.It helps make the school and the earth better.
C.It helps students play games. D.It helps teachers teach.
24.What do the club members do first
A.They put up signs to save water and electricity. B.They plant trees.
C.They clean the school. D.They give money to poor people.
25.How often do they have a “no-plastic-day”
A.Once a week. B.Once a month. C.Once a year. D.Twice a month.
26.What can we learn from the environmental protection club
A.Everyone can do something for the environment. B.We should only care about our school.
C.Playing games is important. D.Using plastic things is good.
D
Hello, everyone. My name is John. I’m from America. I’m thirteen years old. This is my new school. It’s very big, and it’s very beautiful. There is a big playground. It’s in the middle of the school. The sports hall is next to the playground. In front of the sports hall are science labs. Behind the sports hall is the dining hall. Teachers and students usually have lunch there.
Look! This is our classroom building. And there are forty-eight classrooms in it. In my class, there are forty-six students. Twenty-eight of them are boys. And the rest (其余的) are girls. On the right of the classroom building is a library. In the library, there are many books. I like reading books there. The office building is in front of our classroom building. I like my school.
27.What’s John’s school like
A.Big and beautiful. B.Small but beautiful. C.Big and clean.
28.Where is the sports hall
A.In front of the science labs.
B.Behind the dining hall.
C.Between the science labs and the dining hall.
29.How many girls are there in the class
A.18. B.28. C.46.
30.Which one is NOT true
A.John is thirteen years old.
B.There is a classroom building with 48 classrooms in the school.
C.The library is on the left of the classroom building.
第二节 任务型阅读(共5题,每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面材料,从方框中所给的A~E五个选项中选出正确选项 (其中一项是多余选项),并回答最后小题。
Paul: What’s your dream classroom like
Betty: It’s smart. 31
Paul: What can the robot do
Betty: It can help the teachers do some work.
Paul: That’s special. 32
Betty: Yes, there is one blackboard. And there is a smart whiteboard too.
Paul: 33
Betty: We put them up on the blackboard.
Paul: Where do you put your things
Betty: We put our things in two big lockers.
Paul: Great! Oh, that’s the bell. 34 Goodbye!
Betty: Bye!
A.Nice to meet you. B.Let’s go to class. C. Where do you put up notices D.There is a robot in my classroom. E. Is there a blackboard in your classroom
Do you like your classroom What is special in your classroom (不超过15个单词)
35
第三部分 语言运用 (共三节,满分40分)
第一节 完形填空 (共15 小题,每小题1分,满分15 分)
阅读下面短文,然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
In our school, there is 36 English club, a music club, a football club, a tennis club and many other clubs.
The 37 club is the most popular (最受欢迎的) one. And I 38 in the club because tennis is my 39 sport.
There are more than 80 40 in the tennis club. About 60% of 41 are boys. There are 42 teams in the club—Red Team and Yellow Team. There is one 43 every week. Matches 44 me happy.
Zhang Yue is an old member in the club. 45 is tall and he looks very strong. He is 46 Beijing. His parents are tennis 47 , too.
Yang Le is a short boy. He is the youngest member in the club. He is 11 48 old. He is also good at 49 , so he is a member of the swimming club.
I’m the tallest girl in the club. Li Na is my favourite tennis player. She is my 50 . I hope I can be a player like her.
36.A.a B.an C.the
37.A.tennis B.volleyball C.basketball
38.A.am B.is C.are
39.A.good B.best C.favourite
40.A.boys B.members C.teachers
41.A.we B.them C.they
42.A.three B.four C.two
43.A.meeting B.party C.match
44.A.have B.make C.ask
45.A.He B.She C.They
46.A.come B.comes C.from
47.A.players B.farmers C.workers
48.A.years B.weeks C.months
49.A.running B.swimming C.drawing
50.A.friend B.teacher C.hero
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
A.用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空,每词仅用一次
sheep play friend near he
Hi, I’m Jessica. Look at this photo of my school life! The boy in a blue jacket is my classmate. 51 name is Jason. We have some good 52 in our class—Alice, Frank and Cindy. Alice likes reading storybooks at the reading corner, and Frank often shares the comics he likes with us there. Our favourite place at school is this reading corner. It’s 53 the library, so we can borrow books easily. There are three small 54 by the corner; they’re from our school farm and they sometimes eat grass nearby. Jason likes sport. He 55 football with us every week after class. We laugh and run a lot—we always have fun there!
B;阅读下面短文,根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
I’m a student in a junior high school. Each morning, I am 56 (准备好的) for the school day. I pack my 57 (课本) carefully, making sure I have an eraser too. I have to put on the uniform before leaving home, but sometimes I wish I could wear my favorite jacket instead. At school, we have many subjects. 58 (地理) lets me learn about different places around the world. Biology helps me understand living things. 59 (历史) shows me stories of the past. Our school has a science lab. When classes 60 (开始), we often go there to do experiments.
My deskmate is very kind and 61 (礼貌的). When I write a sentence with a 62 (错误), he always tells me. We then discuss the 63 (意思) of the word in that sentence. I remember this experience clearly because I know how 64 (重要的) it is to pay attention to details when learning a language.
After school, I sometimes think about what I’ve learned during the day. Every subject and every interaction with classmates helps me grow. I want to 65 (探索) new knowledge.
第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空格处填入一个适当的词或填入括号中单词的正确形式。
I like my new school. My school is big 66 beautiful. Now, let me 67 (tell) you something about my new school life. It’s only my third week at my new school and I love it. Today is Friday—the best day of the week. My first class is music. I’m learning to play 68 piano this year and I love it. I practice every lunch time in the music room because I can’t play it 69 (good) now—I made a terrible noise! Then we have Maths. We do a test every Friday. I’m very good at Maths, so it’s my happy time. After Maths, we have English. The students 70 (be) watching a new film carefully now. The film is really 71 (interest). Outside, on the playground, the football teams are playing football. They are ready for the match 72 Saturday afternoon.
Friday afternoon is great, because we can pick 73 (we) favorite classes and join clubs. This term I’m doing food project. I think 74 (cook) is so amazing! I would like 75 (be) a good cook in the future.
第四部分语言运用 (共一节,满分20分)
76.假如你是李平,你的笔友Peter想了解你的卧室是什么样子的。请你根据以下提示给他回一封电子邮件,描述一下你的卧室。
写作提示:
1. 卧室的基本情况(大小,布局等);
2. 卧室里的主要物品(如床、书桌、衣柜wardrobe等)及其位置;
3. 你在卧室经常做的事情;
4. 你对卧室的感受。
写作要求:
1. 不得使用真实的姓名和学校名;
2. 可适当加入细节,使内容充实,行文连贯;
3. 字迹工整、语言精练、表达准确、条理清晰;
4. 至少60词。
Dear Peter,
How are you I’m so glad to hear from you.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Best wishes
Yours,保密★启用前
2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期末考试(绍兴市专用)
英 语
(考试时间:100分钟 试卷满分:120分)
学校:___________姓名:___________班级:___________考号:___________
考生注意:
1.本试题卷共10页,满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前,请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时,请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求,在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答,在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试难度:0.75 [2025年浙江省最新中考题型]
参考答案
题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
答案 B B B B C C A C A B
题号 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
答案 A C B C B D A C B C
题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
答案 D A B A B A A C A C
题号 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
答案 B A A C B B C C B A
题号 46 47 48 49 50
答案 C A A B C
1.B
【原文】A: What time do you usually get up
B: I usually get up at ten past six. I make breakfast at 6:30.
2.B
【原文】A: Is your birthday on August 2nd, Mary
B: No. My birthday is on June 12th.
3.B
【原文】A: Look! The children are planting trees on the hill.
B: How hard they are working!
4.B
【原文】A: I’m looking for a special present for my brother.
B: What about this coat, Linda
5.C
【原文】W :May I look at this photo
M:Yes. This is a photo a my family- my father, my mother, my sister and me.
6.C 7.A
【原文】M: Hi, Lucy. What’s this
W: It’s an old photo of my family.
M: Who is the boy in the middle
W: It’s my brother. He is about 3 years older than me.
M: How old are you in the photo
W: Four, I think.
M: Is that woman your mother
W: Yes, she is.
M: Wow! Your mother is so beautiful.
W: Thanks.
M: Where is your father
W: He isn’t in the photo. He was taking photos of us.
8.C 9.A 10.B
【原文】A: Hello, Mary.
B: Hi, Tom. Where are you from
A: I am from England. What about you
B: I’m Chinese. I am from Guangzhou. What’s your father’s job
A: My father is a doctor. What about your father
B: My father is a teacher. He works in a school.
11.A 12.C 13.B 14.C 15.B
【原文】 My name is Sun Peng. I’m a firefighter. There are 45 firefighters in our team. I live in a room with seven other firefighters. Every day we get up at five thirty. Then we tidy our room. It is a little boring. At six o’clock, we run in the sports field for an hour. At seven o’clock, we have a meeting to talk about what we did well yesterday and what we can do better today. At seven thirty, we have breakfast. We eat very fast because we don’t have much time. We start skills training at eight o’clock. We usually have lunch at twelve o’clock. After the afternoon training, we read books for an hour. That’s an important part of our everyday life. After dinner, we usually watch TV, play ping-pong or have a party. We go to bed at 22 o’clock. This is our life when everything is fine. But if there is a fire or someone calls 119, we have to stop everything and get out fast. As a firefighter, I think my job is very important. We must try our best to keep everyone safe.
16.D 17.A 18.C
本文讲述了格林一家最初面临的问题以及格林先生如何尝试解决这个问题的故事。
16.细节理解题。根据第一段“Their two young children don’t like to go to sleep early.”可知,格林家一开始的问题是他们的两个孩子不喜欢早睡。选项D“孩子们不喜欢早睡”符合。故选D。
17.细节理解题。根据第二段“Mr. Green thinks hard and then he has a good idea. He thinks that he can sing very well. ‘The children will get to sleep soon if I sing to them.’ he says to Mrs. Green.”可知,格林先生认为自己给孩子们唱歌的话会让孩子们早睡。选项A“他给孩子们唱歌”符合。故选A。
18.推理判断题。根据第三段“Close your eyes. Don’t move (动). Dad will stop singing when he sees we are asleep. I don’t like his singing at all and I don’t want to hear it.”可知,姐姐对弟弟说,只要睡着了,爸爸就不会给他们唱歌了,姐姐不喜欢爸爸唱歌,不想听见爸爸唱歌,由此可以推断,格林先生听到孩子们不喜欢自己唱歌,可能会感到不开心。故选C。
19.B 20.C 21.D 22.A
本文主要讲述了Sam因为英语考试失利而情绪低落,他的祖母通过一支铅笔的比喻来鼓励他,帮助他重拾信心的故事。
19.细节理解题。根据“Now he is sitting alone in his room.”及“She sits down next to Sam and gives him a pencil”可知,祖母是在Sam的房间和他交谈。故选B。
20.细节理解题。根据“Things like this are only for students who do well. I don’t do well,”及“It’s not a present for you.”可知,祖母给他铅笔时,Sam认为它是礼物。故选C。
21.推理判断题。根据“Sam feels good right away. He plans to make a change (改变) as his grandmother says.”可知,Sam听了祖母的话后,感觉好起来,并计划按照祖母说的做出改变,由此可知,他认为祖母的想法是有帮助的。故选D。
22.推理判断题。本文主要讲述了Sam因为英语考试失利而情绪低落,他的祖母通过一支铅笔的比喻来鼓励他,帮助他重拾信心的故事,属于家庭生活类文章,可以在报纸的家庭生活部分中看到这篇文章。故选A。
23.B 24.A 25.B 26.A
本文是一篇说明文,文章主要介绍了学校环保俱乐部的活动及其意义。
23.细节理解题。根据“The club is doing a lot to help make our school and the earth a better place.”可知,环保俱乐部的目标是改善学校和地球环境。故选B。
24.细节理解题。根据“They put up signs around the school to tell students to save water and electricity.”可知,俱乐部成员首先从张贴标语开始。故选A。
25.细节理解题。根据“they have a ‘no-plastic-day’ once a month.”可知,“无塑料日”的频率是每月一次。故选B。
26.细节理解题。根据“The environmental protection club shows us that everyone can do something to protect the environment.”可知,环保俱乐部向我们展示,每个人都可以为保护环境做贡献,即我们从中能学到“人人皆可为环保出力”。故选A。
27.A 28.C 29.A 30.C
本文中John介绍了自己新学校的布局和班级情况。
27.细节理解题。根据“It’s very big, and it’s very beautiful.”可知,John的学校又大又漂亮。故选A。
28.细节理解题。根据“The sports hall is next to the playground. In front of the sports hall are science labs. Behind the sports hall is the dining hall.”可知,体育馆在科学实验室和食堂之间。故选C。
29.细节理解题。根据“In my class, there are forty-six students. Twenty-eight of them are boys.”可知,全班46人,男生28人,因此女生有46-28=18人。故选A。
30.细节理解题。根据“On the right of the classroom building is a library.”可知,图书馆在教学楼右侧,而非左侧。故选C。
31.D 32.E 33.C 34.B 35.Yes. There is a smart screen that helps us learn in fun ways.
本文是Paul和Betty之间关于Betty梦想中智能教室的对话。
31.根据“What’s your dream classroom like ”以及“It’s smart.”可知,Betty在描述她梦想教室的特点。选项D“我的教室里有一个机器人。”符合语境,与后文机器人功能相呼应。故选D。
32.根据“Yes, there is one blackboard.”可知,Paul在询问教室里是否有黑板。选项E“你的教室里有黑板吗?”符合语境。故选E。
33.根据“We put them up on the blackboard.”可知,Paul在询问通知张贴在哪里。选项C“你们把通知贴在哪里?”符合语境。故选C。
34.根据“Oh, that’s the bell.”以及“Goodbye!”可知,Paul在提醒上课铃响了,该去上课了。选项B“我们去上课吧。”符合语境。故选B。
35.本题为开放性作答。需说明是否喜欢教室并描述一个特色设施,示例选择了智能屏幕。故填Yes. There is a smart screen that helps us learn in fun ways.
36.B 37.A 38.A 39.C 40.B 41.B 42.C 43.C 44.B 45.A 46.C 47.A 48.A 49.B 50.C
本文介绍了学校里的各种俱乐部,重点描述了网球俱乐部的情况以及几位成员的特点。
36.我们学校有一个英语俱乐部、一个音乐俱乐部、一个足球俱乐部、一个网球俱乐部和许多其他俱乐部。
a用于辅音音素开头的单词前;an用于元音音素开头的单词前;the表示特指。此处表示泛指,English是以元音音素开头的单词,所以用an。故填B。
37.网球俱乐部是最受欢迎的一个。
tennis网球;volleyball排球;basketball篮球。根据后文“because tennis is my...sport”可知,此处说的是网球俱乐部。故填A。
38.我在这个俱乐部里,因为网球是我最喜欢的运动。
am用于主语I后;is用于第三人称单数主语后;are用于复数主语或第二人称主语后。主语是I,所以用am。故填A。
39.我在这个俱乐部里,因为网球是我最喜欢的运动。
good好的;best最好的;favourite最喜欢的。根据“The club is the most popular one. And I am in the club ”,以及“Matches make me happy.”可知,网球是“我”最喜欢的运动,所以用favourite。故填C。
40.网球俱乐部有80多名成员。
boys男孩;members成员;teachers老师。俱乐部里的应该是成员,所以用members。故填B。
41.他们中大约60%是男孩。
we我们,主格;them他们,宾格;they他们,主格。此处作介词of的宾语,所以用宾格them。故填B。
42.俱乐部里有两支队伍——红队和黄队。
three三;four四;two二。根据“Red Team and Yellow Team”可知,是两支队伍。故填C。
43.每周有一场比赛。
meeting会议;party聚会;match比赛。根据后文“Matches...me happy.”可知,俱乐部里每周有一场比赛,所以用match。故填C。
44.比赛使我开心。
have有;make使;ask问。“make sb.+形容词”表示“使某人……”,所以用make。故填B。
45.他很高,看起来很强壮。
He他;She她;They他们。根据“he looks very strong”可知,此处用He指代张悦。故填A。
46.他来自北京。
come来;comes来,第三人称单数形式;from从。be from表示“来自”,所以用from。故填C。
47.他的父母也是网球运动员。
players运动员;farmers农民;workers工人。根据“too”可知,他的父母是网球运动员,所以用players。故填A。
48.他11岁了。
years年;weeks周;months月。...years old表示“……岁”,所以用 years。故填A。
49.他还擅长游泳,所以他是游泳俱乐部的成员。
running跑步;swimming游泳;drawing画画。根据“so he is a member of the swimming club”可知,他擅长游泳。故填B。
50.她是我的英雄。
friend朋友;teacher老师;hero英雄。根据“Li Na is my favourite tennis player. She is my...I hope I can be a player like her.”李娜是著名的网球运动员,是“我”的英雄,我喜欢成为她那样的运动员,所以用hero。故填C。
51.His 52.friends 53.near 54.sheep 55.plays
本文是一篇记叙文,主要讲述了杰西卡的学校生活,介绍了她的同学、朋友以及他们最喜欢的阅读角。
51.他的名字叫杰森。根据“The boy in a blue jacket is my classmate”并结合备选词汇可知,此处指男孩的名字是杰森,需用he形容词性物主代词his,句首首字母大写。故填His。
52.我们班有一些好朋友 —— 爱丽丝、弗兰克和辛迪。根据后文列举的“Alice, Frank and Cindy”并结合备选词汇可知,此处需用friend的复数形式friends表示多个朋友。故填friends。
53.它在图书馆附近,所以我们可以很容易地借书。根据“It’s…the library, so we can borrow books easily.”并结合备选词汇可知,此处指方位,表示在图书馆附近,near符合。故填near。
54.角落旁边有三只小羊;它们来自我们学校的农场,有时会在附近吃草。根据“they’re from our school farm and they sometimes eat grass nearby”并结合备选词汇可知,此处指羊,“sheep”的单复数形式相同。故填sheep。
55.他每周课后都和我们一起踢足球。play football“踢足球”,句子时态为一般现在时,主语为“He”,用三单形式plays。故填plays。
56.ready 57.textbooks 58.Geography 59.History 60.start/begin 61.polite 62.mistake 63.meaning 64.important 65.explore
本文是一篇记叙文,一位初中生讲述了他/她充实的校园生活,包括课前准备、学科学习、与礼貌同桌的互助以及课后对成长的思考。
56.每天早上,我都为上学做好准备。根据“I am…for the school day.”结合中文提示可知,be ready for“为……做好准备”,固定搭配,指的是为上学做好准备。故填ready。
57.我小心地收拾我的课本,确保我还有一块橡皮。根据“I pack my…carefully”结合中文提示可知,此处应填入textbooks,复数名词,作宾语,泛指“我”小心地收拾“我”的课本。故填textbooks。
58.地理让我了解世界上不同的地方。分析句子“…lets me learn about different places around the world.”,结合中文提示可知,此处应填入geography,名词,位于句首,作主语,首字母要大写,表达地理让我了解世界上不同的地方。故填Geography。
59.历史向我展示了过去的故事。分析句子“…shows me stories of the past.”,结合中文提示可知,此处应填入history,名词,位于句首,作主语,首字母要大写,表达历史向我展示了过去的故事。故填History。
60.开始上课的时候,我们经常去那里做实验。根据后半句“we often go there to do experiments.”可知,该句时态为一般现在时;又根据“When classes…”可知,该句主语是classes,结合中文提示,此处应填入start或者begin,动词原形,作谓语。故填start/begin。
61.我的同桌很友好,很有礼貌。根据空格前“is”,结合中文提示可知,此处应填入polite,形容词,作表语,表达我的同桌很友好,很有礼貌。故填polite。
62.当我写一个有错误的句子时,他总是告诉我。根据“When I write a sentence with a…”,结合中文提示可知,此处应填入mistake,可数名词单数,作宾语,指的是一个有错误的句子。故填mistake。
63.然后我们讨论这个词在句子中的意思。根据“We then discuss the…of the word in that sentence”,结合中文提示可知,此处应填入meaning,名词,作宾语,指的是这个词在句子中的意思。故填meaning。
64.我清楚地记得这段经历,因为我知道在学习语言时,注意细节是多么重要。分析句子“because I know how…it is to pay attention to details”可知,此处考查感叹句:how+形容词+主谓,结合中文提示,此处应填入important,表达注意细节是多么重要。故填important。
65.我想探索新的知识。根据空格前“want to”,结合中文提示可知,此处考查:want to do sth“想要做某事”,固定搭配,此处应填入explore,动词原形,与to构成不定式,作宾语。故填explore。
66.and 67.tell 68.the 69.well 70.are 71.interesting 72.on 73.our 74.cooking 75.to be
本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了作者在新学校的生活,包括课程安排、课外活动以及对烹饪的兴趣。
66.我的学校又大又漂亮。此处连接两个并列形容词“big”和“beautiful”,需用并列连词“and”。故填and。
67.现在,让我告诉你一些关于我的新学校生活的事情。let sb. do sth.为固定搭配,动词用原形。故填tell。
68.今年我正在学习弹钢琴,我很喜欢它。play后接乐器时,乐器前需加定冠词“the”。故填the。
69.我每天午饭时间都在音乐室练习,因为我现在弹得不好——我发出了可怕的噪音!修饰动词“play”需用副词形式“well”。故填well。
70.学生们现在正在认真观看一部新电影。根据“now”可知,句子为现在进行时,主语“students”为复数,be动词用“are”。故填are。
71.这部电影真的很有趣。描述事物特性用形容词“interesting”,表示“令人感兴趣的”。故填interesting。
72.他们正在为周六下午的比赛做准备。具体某一天前用介词“on”。故填on。
73.星期五下午很棒,因为我们可以选择我们最喜欢的课程并加入俱乐部。修饰名词“favorite classes”需用形容词性物主代词“our”。故填our。
74.我认为烹饪太神奇了!动词“cook”在句中作主语,需用动名词形式“cooking”。故填cooking。
75.我未来想成为一名好厨师。would like to do sth.为固定搭配,表示“想要做某事”。故填to be。
76.
例文:
Dear Peter,
How are you I’m so glad to hear from you. My bedroom is small but cozy. It has a window facing the garden. Against the wall stands my bed, and next to it is a wooden desk where I study every day. On the left side of the room, there is a white wardrobe for my clothes. I often read books and listen to music in my bedroom. It is my favorite place because it makes me feel relaxed and happy.
Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Ping
[总体分析]
①题材:本文是一篇应用文,为电子邮件;
②时态:时态为“一般现在时”;
③提示:写作要点已给出,考生应注意不要遗漏“信息提示”中卧室情况的介绍要点,适当添加细节,并突出写作重点。
[写作步骤]
第一步,表明写作意图。通过回应Peter想了解卧室样子的邮件来引出下文对卧室的介绍;
第二步,具体阐述写作内容。从“卧室基本情况、卧室主要物品及位置、在卧室常做的事”几个方面重点介绍卧室的具体情况;
第三步,书写结语。表达“卧室是自己最喜欢的地方及原因”的感受。
[亮点词汇]
①facing the garden 面向花园
②against the wall 靠墙
③next to 紧挨着
[高分句型]
①Against the wall stands my bed, and next to it is a wooden desk where I study every day.(倒装句+where引导的限制性定语从句)
②It is my favorite place because it makes me feel relaxed and happy.(because引导的原因状语从句)(共7张PPT)
人教版2024 七年级英语上册
浙江省绍兴市2025-2026学年七年级英语上学期期末考试 答案
一、听力测试
1-10:BBBBC CACAB
11-15:ACBCB
一、快速核对
二、阅读理解
A:16.D 17.A 18.C
B:19.B 20.C 21.D 22.A
C:23.B 24.A 25.B 26.A
D:27.A 28.C 29.A 30.C
第二节 任务型阅读
31.D 32.E 33.C 34.B 35.Yes. There is a smart screen that helps us learn in fun ways.
一、快速核对
三、完形填空
36.B 37.A 38.A 39.C 40.B 41.B 42.C 43.C 44.B 45.A 46.C 47.A 48.A 49.B 50.C
第二节 词汇运用
A:51.His 52.friends 53.near 54.sheep 55.plays
B:56.ready 57.textbooks 58.Geography 59.History 60.start/begin 61.polite 62.mistake 63.meaning 64.important 65.explore
一、快速核对
第三节 语法填空
66.and 67.tell 68.the 69.well 70.are 71.interesting 72.on 73.our 74.cooking 75.to be
Dear Peter,
How are you I’m so glad to hear from you. My bedroom is small but cozy. It has a window facing the garden. Against the wall stands my bed, and next to it is a wooden desk where I study every day. On the left side of the room, there is a white wardrobe for my clothes. I often read books and listen to music in my bedroom. It is my favorite place because it makes me feel relaxed and happy.
Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Ping
第四部分语言运用浙江省绍兴市 2025-2026学年七年级英语上学期期末考试
英语·答题卡
姓名:______________________________________
准考证号 条 码 粘 贴 处
缺考标记 注意事项
1.答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚。
考生禁止填涂 2.请将准考证条码粘贴在右侧的[条码粘贴处]的方框内。
缺考标记!只能 3.选择题必须使用 2B铅笔填涂;非选择题必须用 0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔填写,字体工整。
由监考老师负 4.请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答,超出范围的答案无效,在草纸、试卷上作答无效。
责用黑色字迹 5.保持卡面清洁,不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。
的签字笔填涂。 6.填涂样例 正确 [■] 错误 [--][√] [×]
选择题(请用 2B铅笔填涂)
第二部分(听力)(第 1-5 每小题 1分,6-15每小题 1.5分,共 20分)
1.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 6.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 11.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
2.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 7.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 12.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
3.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 8.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 13.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
4.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 9.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 14.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
5.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 10.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 15.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
第二部分(阅读理解)(共 20小题,每小题 2分,满分 40分)
16.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 21.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 26.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 31.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
17.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 22.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 27.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 32.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
18.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 23[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 28.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 33.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
19.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 24.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 29.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 34.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
20.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 25.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 30.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
35.______________________________________________________
第三部分 第一节 完形填空(共 15 小题,每小题 1分,满分 15 分)
36.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 41.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 46.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
37.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 42.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 47.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
38.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 43.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 48.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
39.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 44.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 49.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
40.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 45.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 50.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!
非选择题(请在各试题的答题区内作答)
第二节 词汇运用(共 15小题,每小题 1分,满分 15分)
A:51.___________ 52. ____________ 53. ____________ 54 ____________ 55. ____________
B:56.___________ 57. ____________ 58. ____________ 59 ____________ 60. ____________
61.___________ 62. ____________ 63. ____________ 64 ____________ 65. ____________
第三节 语法填空(共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
66.___________ 67. ____________ 68. ____________ 69 ____________ 70. ____________
71.___________ 72. ____________ 73. ____________ 74 ____________ 75. ____________
第四部分语言运用 (共一节,满分 20 分)
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!

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