资源简介

2024—2025学年度第一学期期末综合素质检测
九年级英语试卷
本试卷共120分，考试时间120分钟。
卷I（选择题，共75分）
听力部分（第一节）
Ⅰ.听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
（ ）1. A.guide B.guard C.garden
（ ）2. A.pick up B.wake up C.cheer up
（ ）3. A.FM160 B.FM106 C.AM106
（ ）4. A.He was not allowed to listen to the MP3.
B.The teacher began to listen to the MP3.
C.He didn’t like to listen to the MP3.
（ ）5. A.He will leave in two months.
B.He will come back in two months.
C.He has been away for two months.
Ⅱ.听句子，选出该句的最佳答语。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
（ ）6.A.It doesn’t matter. B.I don’t like it. C.Sure,I’d love to.
（ ）7.A.Yes, please B.With pleasure. C.Not at all.
（ ）8.A.That’s a great idea. B.That’s very great. C.Yes,please.
（ ）9.A.It’s sunny. B.Yes, I am. C.I hope not.
（ ）10.A.Don’t worry. B.I believe you can make it. C.I’m glad to give you a hand.
III.听对话和问题，选择正确答案。（共8小题，每小题1分，计8分）
（ ）11.What does the man want？
A. B. C.
（ ）12.What can Tom play
A. B. C.
**************************************************************************
（ ）13.Why is Lily angry with Kate
A.Kate copied her homework.
B.Kate didn’t return her English book.
C.Kate took her magazines without asking.
（ ）14.What should Kate do
A.Say sorry to Lily. B.Write a letter to Lily. C.Buy her a gift.
**************************************************************************
（ ）15.When did Annie begin to go to school by bus
A.Three years ago. B.Five years ago. C.Nine years ago.
（ ）16.What does Annie think of recycling paper
A.It’s not easy.
B.It’s the biggest problem.
C.It’s important and easy.
（ ）17.How often do the children collect posters
A.Once a week. B.Once a month. C.Three times a month.
（ ）18.Where do the children take the posters
A.To a paper store. B.To a recycling center. C.To their neighborhood.
Ⅳ. 听短文和问题，选择正确答案。（共7小题，每小题1分，计7分）
（ ）19.Why can’t Martin go to work
A.He is badly ill.
B.He will have a birthday party.
C.He will go to his mother’s birthday party .
（ ）20.How will Martin go there
A.By bus. B.By train. C.By plane.
（ ）21.When will Martin return
A.On November 28th. B.On December 1st. C.On December 28th.
**************************************************************************
（ ）22.What is the speaker talking about
A.Safety of camping.
B.A fun weekend of camping.
C.Walking into the forest.
（ ）23.How many rules are talked about in the passage
A.Two. B.Three. C.Four.
（ ）24.What is the second rule
A.Tell someone what your plans are.
B.Don’t go into the place you don’t know.
C.Make sure you have everything you need.
（ ）25.How can you learn more about the information
A.By visiting the website.
B.By calling them.
C.By writing to them.
Ⅴ. 单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
( )26. —Are your parents strict ________you, Sam
—Yes. For example, they are serious ________my grades.
A. in; with B. in; about C. with; of D. with; about
( )27.In our school library there ________ a number of books and the number of them ______growing larger and larger.
A.is; are B.has; is C.are; is D.have; are
( ) 28. We won’t allow ____ in the cinema . But you are allowed _____in the restroom
A.smoking; smoking B. smoke; to smoke
C. smoking; to smoke D. smoke; smoking
( )29. You don’t have to _______ every new word in the dictionary while reading.
A. look for B. look up C. look at D. look after
( )30.—Alice prefers _______ to _______.
—Then, let’s ask her to take part in our dancing club.
A. dancing, singing B. dancing, sing C. sing, dancing D. to sing, dance
( )31.The boy found ____ hard to get along with the other classmates_____ Li Ping.
A. it; except B. this; but C.that; expect D. them; and
( )32.—Is that girl Susan
—It be her. She left for Beijing yesterday.
A. needn’t B. can’t C. mustn’t D. may not
( )33.— Tell us something about England, OK
— I’m sorry. _______ Li Lei ________ I have ever been there.
A.Not only, but also B. Both, and C. Either, or D. Neither, nor
( )34. — My aunt goes to climb mountains every Sunday.
— Oh But she _________ hate climbing mountains.
A.used to B. was used to C. is used to D. used
( )35.— Could you please tell me___________
— It’s next to the post office.
A. where is the supermarket B. where the supermarket is
C. where was the supermarket D. where the supermarket was
Ⅵ. 完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
One day, a woman sat next to a man in a park. 36 pointed to the boy who was swinging(荡秋千) and said, “ What a nice boy! ”
“ Yes, he is a 37 boy. He is my son. ” The man said. Then he 38 his watch and called to his son, “ Shall we go, Todd ”
Todd answered, “ Five more minutes, Dad. Just five more minutes. ” The man 39 and Todd continued swinging.
Five 40 passed and the father stood and called again to his son. “ Time to go now. ” Again Todd said, “ Five more minutes, Dad. Just five more minutes, please. ”
The man smiled and said, “OK.”
“ You are 41 a patient father, ” the woman said.
The man smiled and then said, “ My elder son Tommy was killed by a drunk(醉酒的) driver last year 42 he was riding his bike near here. I never spent 43 time with Tommy. I’ve promised that the same mistake can’t happen 44 Todd. He wants to have five more minutes to swing. The 45 is that I also have five more minutes to watch him. ”
( )36. A. She B. They C. We D. He
( )37. A. stupid B. good C. silly D. bad
( )38. A. looked like B. looked after C. looked for D. looked at
( )39. A. disagreed B. agreed C. thought D. understood
( )40. A. times B. hours C. days D. minutes
( )41. A.easily B. quietly C. really D. happily
( )42. A. that B. while C. if D. how
( )43. A. much B. many C. a few D. few
( )44 .A. with B. in C. to D. for
( )45. A. truth B. question C. mistake D. trouble
Ⅶ.阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，计30分）
阅读A、B、C、D四篇材料，然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
The New York State Theater
Come and enjoy this amazing Chinese play—Teahouse
Showing time:
8:00a.m.—10:30a.m. Saturday, November 5
3:00p.m.—5:30p.m. Sunday, November 6
Introduction:
The play takes place in an old Beijing teahouse. The main characters live in the same neighborhood. They come in and out of the teahouse and chat to each other.
In Teahouse, all kinds of people come to the teahouse in Beijing. Some come to do business, others come just to sit and pass the time. They meet, they talk, they argue, they chat and then they get on with their lives.
The Teahouse is a favorite work by Lao She. He is a master(大师) of 20th century play writing. The play was first performed in 1958. It is still one of the most popular plays in China.
Notice:
●Anyone who is interested in Chinese life and history should see the play.
●To be sure to get a ticket, book now! We’re sure you will have a good time!
( )46.The play Teahouse will be put on in ___________.
A. New York B. Beijing C. Toronto D. Moscow
( )47.How long does the play last
A. An hour. B. One and a half hours.
C. Two hours. D. Two and a half hours.
( )48.What can be known from the play
A. The kinds of ancient houses. B. Chinese traditional festivals.
C. Chinese history and culture. D. The art of Chinese painting.
B
There was a man who had a little son. He loved him very much. Every day after work the man would come home and play with the little boy.
When the man came home from work one night, he found that he had some extra work to do. And he wasn’t able to play with his little son. He wanted to give the boy something to keep him busy. So, looking around his study, he saw a magazine with a large map of the world on the cover. He got an idea. He patiently tore(撕开）the map up into pieces. Then he led his son into the dining room and spread the pieces on the table. He explained to the boy that it was a map of the world. He told the boy to put it back together and they could play together when he finished. Surely this could keep the child busy for hours, he thought.
After about thirty minutes, the boy came to the man and said, “Okay, it’s finished, Dad. Can we play now ”
The man was surprised, saying, “That’s amazing! How did you do that ” The boy said, “It was easy. On the back of the page was a picture of a man. When I put the man together, the whole world appeared completely.”
( )49. Why couldn’t the man play with his son that night
A. He had to read a magazine.
B.He had some extra work to do.
C. He had to learn something about a map.
D. He had to stay at his office for extra work.
( )50. What did the man ask his son to do
A. To read the magazine to find the map.
B. To tear the map of the world up into pieces.
C. To put the pieces of the map of the world back together.
D. To clean the dining room first, and then read the map of the world.
( )51. How long did it take the boy to finish the work
A. A few hours. B. About an hour. C. About half an hour. D. The whole night.
C
Elizabeth Blackwell was born in England in 1821, and moved to New York City when she was ten years old. One day she decided that she wanted to become a doctor. That was nearly impossible for a woman in the middle of the nineteenth century. After writing many letters to medical schools, she was finally accepted by a doctor in Philadelphia. She was so determined that she gave music lessons in the school to get money for the cost of schooling.
In 1849, after graduation（毕业）from medical school. she decided to further her education in Paris. She wanted to be a surgeon(外科医师) , but a serious eye problem made her give up the idea.
After returning to the United States, she found it difficult to start her own practice because she was a woman. By 1857 Elizabeth and her sister, also a doctor, along with another woman doctor, managed to open a new hospital, the first for women and children. Elizabeth Blackwell became the first woman physician and setting up her own hospital . she also set up the first medical school for women.
( )52. Why couldn’t Elizabeth Blackwell achieve her dream of becoming a surgeon
A. She couldn’t be allowed to medical school.
B. She decided to further her education in Paris.
C. A serious eye problem made her give up.
D. It was difficult for her to start a practice in the United States.
( )53. What main obstacle(障碍) almost stopped Elizabeth’s chances from becoming a doctor
A. She was a woman. B. She wrote too many letters.
C. She couldn’t graduate from medical school. D. She couldn’t set up her hospital.
( )54. How many years passed between her graduation from medical school and the opening of her hospital
A. Eight years B. Ten years C. Nineteen years D. Thirty-six years
( )55. According to the passage, all of the following are “firsts” in the life of Elizabeth Blacekwell, except that she ______.
A. became the first woman physician
B. was the first woman surgeon
C. and several other women set up the first hospital for women and children
D. set up the first medical school for women
D
A bully is a person who enjoys hurting other people. A bully can hurt people with words or by hitting them. 85% of children in the UK have been bullied (欺侮) at least once.
How can I tell if a person is a bully
He or she will…
● try to find your weak point-perhaps you are shy, nervous or easily made worried.
● make fun of (取笑) you in front of your friends.
● borrow money then won't pay you back.
What can I do if a bully bothers (骚扰) me
● Tell the bully to leave you alone.
● Do not be afraid to ask other people for help, even though the bully tells you not to.
● Do not feel ashamed (羞愧) because you have been bullied. You have done nothing wrong! The bully should feel ashamed.
● Do not believe the bad things a bully says about you.
What should I do if I see a bully bothering someone
● Help people who are being bullied, even though you don't know them.
● Be a friend to people who are bullied.
● Tell a teacher if you see bullying.
● Tell bullies to stop. Sometimes bullies are afraid, too.
Why do some people become bullies
Some bullies…
● have never learnt to think about other people's feelings.
● don't like themselves, so they are sad. They think they will be happy if they make another person sad.
● have been bullied themselves by other bullies.
Can bullies change
Yes! Bullies can change when they learn to think about other people's feelings.
Sometimes bullies must be punished before they understand. Sometimes, bullies just need friends.
( )56. A bully often ________.
A. makes people think about themselves
B. borrows money but doesn't return
C. helps people when they are in trouble
D. thinks about other people's feelings
( )57.The passage tells us something about bullies by _________questions.
A.three B. four C. five D. six
( )58. If you see a bully bothering your friends, you should _________.
A. leave them alone B. help them stop the bully
C. make them ashamed D. tell them they are wrong
( )59. Which of the following is true
A. Bullies say bad words to people.
B. Bullies like themselves very much.
C. Bullies make people around them happy.
D. Bullies must always be punished.
( )60. What would be the best title for the passage
A. Bullies Can Change B. World Without Bullying
C. Bullying Is Nowhere D. Bullying Around Us
2019—2020学年度第一学期期末教学质量检测
九年级英语试卷(卷Ⅱ)（非选择题45分，）
听力部分（第二节）
Ⅷ. 听短文填空（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
Information Sheet A letter from Kate to her 61. Main Point Kate can’t go to visit the house this 62. . Reason Monday: Study for her 63. test. Tuesday: Go to Grandpa’s house. Wednesday & Thursday: Have to walk her dog 64. a day. Friday: Have a guitar lesson. Weekend: Have a picnic with classmates. Way to solve Have a good time together when they are 65. .
笔试部分
Ⅸ. 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，计10分）
阅读短文，并按要求完成66~70题。
Most people change because of some experiences. So do I. I had some unforgettable(难忘的) experiences in high school. They have taken me from what I used to be like to what I am like now.
In the past, I was a quiet and shy girl. I never talked with others about what was in my mind. That was because I was afraid that someone would laugh at me. I cared too much about what others thought and didn’t pay attention to my own thinking. I liked staying at home because I felt safe there. When nobody was around, I would finally write about my feelings on the Internet.
However, I changed a lot in the second year in high school. My teachers and friends treated me really well. They didn’t laugh at me even if I made mistakes. I didn’t realize that it was normal for everyone to fail until then.
Now I am no longer afraid to give my opinions. When there’s a chance, I’ll let the world know how I feel. I’m now also more self-confident than I used to be. I’m very thankful to my teachers and friends for their help.
66题完成句子；67-68题简略回答问题；69题找出并写下全文的主题句；70题将文中划线句子译成汉语。
66.Now I am not afraid to give my any longer.
67.Why didn’t the writer talk to others about what was in her mind ________________________________________________________________________
68.Did the writer use to be quiet and shy
________________________________________________________________________
69._______________________________________________________________________
70._______________________________________________________________________
Ⅹ.词语运用（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
根据短文内容及所给提示，在文中的空白处填写一个正确的单词。
From time to time, we are 71. (move) by the people and things around us. Yang Min is one of the72. (person) I admire most. As a member of the Lions, she has helped others73. many years. She goes to the old people’s home 74.t______ a month to cut hair, wash clothes and do some75. (clean) for them. Besides, on76. (rain) days she offers people umbrellas or raincoats for free.
I’m deeply moved77. her story. I’m going to start with small things around me. I 78.p to give books and clothes to children in poor villages. What’s more, I’ll ask my parents and more friends to join79. (I) . Small action can make a big 80.
(different). Let’s help those who need help!
Ⅺ.基础写作（包括A、B两部分，A部分5分，B部分15分，共计20分）
A）连词成句（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
将所给词语连成句子，标点已给出。要求：符合语法，语句通顺，大小写正确，词语不得重复使用。
81. a, is, what, nice, he, man
!
82.for, they, what, used, are

83. Mary, the, to, must, book, belong
.
84.trees, thousands of, were, last year, planted
.
85. wonder, you, up, I, if, can, him, cheer
.
B）书面表达（计15分）
86. 假如你是李华，你们班的英语成绩不是很理想，为了鼓励同学们学好英语，你们班召开了一次主题班会，请你写一篇英语短文，鼓励同学们多做一些课外阅读，强调课外阅读对英语学习的重要性。内容包括以下几个方面：
1.The importance of after-class reading.
2.Learn how to choose books.
3.Pay attention to the reading skills and methods.
注意：1、短文中不得出现真实的人名、地名、校名。
2、包含所给要点，语言流畅，意思连贯，适当拓展；词数80词左右。（开头已给出，不计入总数）。
Hi, everybody. I am Li Hua. I think every student wants to study English well in our class.
九年级英语试卷参考答案
Ⅰ-Ⅶ.
1-5 BCBAC 6-10 CCBCC 11-15 AACAA 16-20 CBBCC 21-25 BABCA
26-30 DCCBA 31-35 ABDAB 36-40 ABDBD 41-45 CBACA 46-50 ADCBC
51-55 CCAAB 56-60 BCBAD
评分标准：1.1-45小题，每小题1分，计45分；46-60小题，每小题2分，计30分。
2.凡与答案不符者不给分。
Ⅷ.
61.cousin 62.week 63.science 64.twice 65.free
评分标准：1.每小题1分，计5分。
2.凡与答案不符者不给分。
Ⅸ.
66．opinions
67. Because she was afraid that someone would laugh at her.
68．Yes,she did.
69．Most people change because of some experience.
70.我非常感谢我的老师和同学对我的帮助。
评分标准：1.每小题2分，计10分。
2.凡与答案不符，但所填内容与答案意思相近且与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。
Ⅹ.
71. moved 72. persons 73. for 74. twice 75. cleaning
76. rainy 77. by 78. plan 79. me 80. difference
评分标准：1.每小题1分，计10分。
2.凡与答案不符，但所填内容与答案意思相近且与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。
Ⅺ. A)
81 What a nice man he is!
82 What are they used for
83 The book must belong to Mary.
84 Thousands of trees were planted last year.
85 I wonder if you can cheer him up.
评分标准：1.每小题1分，计5分。
2.凡与答案不符者不给分。
B).
书面表达评分标准：
先根据学生所写作文的内容要点初步确定其所属的档次，再根据档次打分。
第一档：(13～15分)能写明全部或绝大部分内容要点；语言基本无误；行文连贯，表达清楚。
第二档：(10～12分)能写明全部或大部分内容要点；语言有少量错误；行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚。
第三档：(7～10分)能写明大部分内容要点；语言有较多错误；尚能达意。
第四档：(4～6分)只能写出少部分内容要点；语言错误很多，只有个别句子可读。
第五档：(0～3分)只能写出与所要求内容有关的一些单词。

展开更多......

收起↑