安徽省淮北市2024-2025学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题(含答案,无听力原文及音频)

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安徽省淮北市2024-2025学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题(含答案,无听力原文及音频)

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2024—2025学年度第一学期学校自测评价八年级英语试题卷
注意事项:
1.本试卷共四部分,十大题,满分120分,考试时间为120分钟。
2.全卷包括“试题卷” (10页)和“答题卡” (2页)两部分。
3.请务必在“答题卡”上答题,在“试题卷”上答题无效。
第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. How will they go to Beijing
A. B. C.
2. Which picture is mentioned
A. B. C.
3. Where would Mike like to go on holiday
A. To Paris. B. To New York. C. To Tokyo.
4. What does the boy often do
A. Go to the movies. B. Enjoy the Beijing Opera.
C. Watch a football match.
5. How can we find pen friends according to the woman
A. Join a club. B. Write some letters. C. Go abroad to study.
Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答6-7小题。
6. What are they making
A. Milk shake. B. Fruit salad. C. Vegetable soup.
7. How much yogurt do they need
A. About one teaspoon. B. One cup. C. Two teaspoons.
听下面一段对话,回答8-10小题。
8. Why does Susan thank David
A. Because David invited her to have dinner.
B. Because David invited her to his party.
C. Because David invited her to see a film.
9. What are they going to do on Saturday morning
A. To go to a flower show. B. To go to a car show.
C. To go to an art show.
10. Where are they going to meet
A. Outside the museum. B. Outside the school gate.
C. Outside the park.
Ⅲ.短文理解(共5题;每题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. When do dinner parties usually start
A. At 6 pm. B. Between 7 and 8 pm. C. At 11 pm.
12. Which is impolite for you to do
A. To ask about the prices of the owner's things.
B. To finish everything on your plate.
C. To bring the hosts some gifts.
13. Where does the hostess sit when the host sits at one end of the table
A. Beside her husband. B. At the other end of the table.
C. Anywhere.
14. What will probably be served first in the dinner
A. Coffee. B. Vegetables. C. Soup.
15 What can you do to show that you enjoyed the evening
A. Call the hosts the next day.
B. Stay overnight.
C. Send an expensive gift the next day.
Ⅳ.信息转换(共5题;每题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下列表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
First Aid
Who Mr. Zhang, from Children's 16 .
When At 17 o'clock on Friday afternoon.
Where In the school 18 .
What Learn examples and suggestions of keeping 19 in school. Learn 20 to give basic medical help.
第二部分 语言知识运用(共三大题,满分35分)
Ⅴ.单项选择(共10题;每题1分,满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
1. Dance is not just a form of art, but also a ________ which tells stories through the body.
A. advice B. pollution C. decision D. language
2. —More free health service will be provided for the elderly in the near future.
—_________ big news! China is developing more and more rapidly.
A. What B. What a C. How D. How a
3. Uncle Wang is quite good at cooking and decides ________ his own restaurant.
A. open B. opened C. to open D. opening
4. —The news is so boring. Why do you like watching it
—Because I want to ________ what’s going on around the world.
A. find out B. bring out C. help out D. come out
5. —My aunt ________ me to the concert if she ________ the tickets.
—Hope she can make it.
A. will take; gets B. takes; will get C. will take; will get D. takes; gets
6. —How do you like the book
—It was great. I have never read ________ before.
A. the better one B. a good one C. a better one D. the best one
7. —Must I stay here and look after the little dog
—No, you ________.
A. can’t B. needn’t C. mustn’t D. shouldn’t
8. — I am sorry I am late. I was caught by an alien in the street.
— An alien in the street ________ will believe your story.
A. Anybody B. Nobody C. Somebody D. Everybody
9. —Sandy and I ________ kites in the Xiangshan Park this weekend. Would you like to join us
—Sure. I hope it ________ rain that day.
A. am going to fly; will B. am going to fly; won’t
C. are going to fly; will D. are going to fly; won’t
10. —Can you go bike riding with me along the Nanhu Road, Helen
—________. Do I need to bring food and drinks
A. Sorry, I’m not available B. Sure, I’d love to C. That’s too bad D. No, I don’t know
Ⅵ.完形填空(共20题;每题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Dear Mr. Monkey,
How is everything going I’d love to ___11___ you to my birthday party on December 12th. Are you ___12___ then Please do come. I really miss you. The other ___13___ like Miss Elephant, Mr. Giraffe and Little Koala all want to see you, too. We don’t think the party will be fun ___14___ you. You are such an interesting friend.
The party will start at five. The zoo keeper will ___15___ a lot of delicious food for us. So we will have a big ___16___ first. I hear that she will also make a big fruit cake. Let’s enjoy it ___17___. Then, we can watch TV in my house, ___18___ play some games. Could you please bring your camera (相机) I’m always dreaming of having a ___19___ with so many friends. I hope you can help me with that.
I’m looking forward to ___20___ you.
Yours,
Miss Panda
11 A. forget B. refuse C. invite D. accept
12. A. impossible B. available C. healthy D. fresh
13. A. families B. guests C. travelers D. students
14. A. until B. for C. with D. without
15. A. prepare B. shake C. peel D. enjoy
16. A. meal B. meeting C. event D. show
17. A. almost B. already C. together D. enough
18. A. though B. and C. but D. until
19. A. photo B. mirror C. trip D. plan
20. A. finding out B. looking at C. listening to D. hearing from
B
A wealthy man loved his son very much. As he wanted his son to live a happy life, he decided to send him to see a wise old man for his advice on happiness.
When the old man learnt about his ____21____, he handed the boy an empty bowl and said, “Go to the river miles away and ____22____ it with water. I will tell you about it ____23____ no water is spilt (洒) when you get here.” Although the boy was very surprised at this, he had no choice but to ____24____ this task.
The boy set off on foot for the river and some time later came back with a bowl of water. The old man asked him, “Did you notice the beautiful flowers ____25____ the road and the birds singing in the trees ” The boy could say nothing about them because he gave his ____26____ attention to the bowl in his hands.
The old man smiled and said, “Bring me ____27____ bowl of water, but this time enjoy the flowers and the singing of birds as well.”
When he returned, the boy was able to ____28____ everything he had seen to the old man. But when he looked down at his bowl, he ____29____ found that most water was gone. He forgot all about his bowl while enjoying the beautiful things along the road.
“Well, young man,” the old man said. “Enjoy the beauty of the world, but never forget the water in your bowl. This is the ____30____ to happiness.”
21. A. wish B. promise C. research D. experience
22. A. wash B. fill C. compare D. connect
23. A. while B. until C. unless D. if
24. A. carry out B. pick out C. point out D. bring out
25. A. in B. along C. with D. between
26. A. public B. weak C. full D. fast
27. A. another B. every C. any D. the other
28. A. change B. imagine C. examine D. describe
29. A. lazily B. sadly C. luckily D. excitedly
30. A. result B. show C. secret D. decision
Ⅶ.补全对话(共5题;每题1分,满分5分)
根据对话内容,从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hi, Kate! Do you like vegetable salad
B: Sure. It’s healthy. ___31___
A: Really ___32___
B: It’s very easy. Let me show you how to make it now.
A: Great! ___33___
B: Let me see. We need two small tomatoes, an onion and a cucumber (黄瓜).
A: OK, that’s it
B: No. We need some salad dressing (调料), of course.
A: ___34___
B: About three spoons. Then, cut the vegetables into small pieces.
A: OK. ___35___
B: Put them into a bowl. Then, add the salad dressing and mix them together.
A: Wow, so easy. I will have a try next time.
A. What’s next
B. Can I help you
C. What do we need
D. How do you make it
E. It’s time to enjoy the salad.
F. I usually make it by myself at home.
G. How much salad dressing do we need
第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20题;每题2分,满分40分)
第一节,阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Four Types of Traditional Chinese Clothes
Hanfu Hanfu is the oldest of Chinese traditional clothes. It has many kinds, like Ruqun. Ru is one kind of short clothes, and Qun is one kind of skirt.
Tang suit Tang suit is a kind of Chinese jacket. The most common colours are red and blue. Chinese people make Tang suit with silk, cotton (棉花) and other materials.
Qipao Qipao is designed for Chinese women. So many women love Qipao because it can show their charm (魅力) and beauty. Qipao’s neck is high. Its sleeves may be either short, medium or full length.
Zhongshan suit Zhongshan suit is a type of typical clothes for men. It got the name because of Sun Zhongshan. Later on, Chairman Mao often wore it, so it had another name “Mao suit”.
36. Which kind of traditional Chinese clothes has the longest history
A. Tang suit. B. Hanfu. C. Zhongshan suit. D. Qipao
37. Why do Chinese women love “Qipao”
A. Because it has many kinds. B. Because it’s made of silk and cotton.
C. Because it can show their charm and beauty. D. Because it’s a type of typical clothes.
38. Who will be most interested in the passage
A. Mike, a Chinese engineer. B. Tom, a cotton farmer.
C. Sandy, a clothes designer. D. Mary, a food lover.
B
Mr. Green made a robot. He could say only one sentence, “There is no doubt (疑问) about it.” The robot always repeated these words when you spoke to him.
One day, Mr. Green needed lots of money and he took the robot to the market to sell him. “Who will buy my robot He is very clever,” he shouted. “Twenty thousand dollars for my robot!” A man was surprised that he was asking for so much money. Instead of asking Mr. Green why he wanted so much money, he decided to speak to the robot. “Are you worth (值) twenty thousand dollars ” he asked the robot. “There is no doubt about it,” answered the robot.
The man liked the robot’s answer so much that he bought him and carried him home. But very soon he found that the robot could say nothing else. He was sorry he bought the robot. He stood in front of the robot and said, “How foolish (愚蠢的) I was to throw so much money away”.
“There is no doubt about it,” said the robot.
39. Why did Mr. Green sell the robot
A. The robot was bad. B. Mr. Green didn’t like it.
C. Mr. Green needed much money. D. The robot was old.
40. What did the man feel when he heard Mr. Green’s words
A. Sad. B. Surprised. C. Moved. D. Bored.
41. At the end of the story, the man probably felt the robot was ________.
A. glad to see him B. afraid of him C. laughing at him D. trying to surprise him
C
Zhou Yichen, 11, is a primary school student from Zhenjiang, Jiangsu Province. In July, he got to the top of Mount Elbrus. The mountain in Russia is 5,642 meters high. And it’s the highest mountain in Europe. The boy climbed the mountain with his father in five hours. “It was difficult. I thought I would fail (失败), but I made it. I’m so excited,” Yichen said.
Zhou Shuangliu, Yichen’s father, is an outdoor lover (户外爱好者). He climbed Mount Qomolangma in May. Together, they got to the top of the Siguniang Mountain in Sichuan Province twice——when Yichen was 9 and 10 years old. To prepare for their latest trip, Yichen ran 5 kilometers twice a week and swam every week.
“In the past, my son often played games when holding a phone. I told him that he could use the phone to learn English, because one day he will need it for climbing abroad (到国外). And he really started learning English on his phone,” says Zhou Shuangliu.
Yichen developed a strong interest in mountain climbing from his Russian experience. He hopes to reach the top of the 6,178-meter Yuzhu Peak in Qinghai Province next summer.
42. What do you know about Zhou Yichen
①His age. ②His hobby. ③His hometown. ④His mother. ⑤His next goal.
A. ②③④⑤ B. ①②③④ C. ①②④⑤ D. ①②③⑤
43. Which one is NOT true
A. Zhou Yichen got to the top of Mount Elbrus in June.
B. Mount Elbrus is the highest mountain in Europe.
C. Yichen’s father is also an outdoor lover.
D. Zhou Yichen learns English on his phone.
44. In which part of the magazine can you read this passage
A. Animals and plants. B. Teenagers’ experiences. C. Music and art. D. Science and technology.
D
The World Games is organized by the International World Games Association (协会). It is a sports event held every four years and it is mainly for non-Olympic (非奥运) sports.
Chengdu won the right to host the 2025 World Games in May 2019. It is the first city on the Chinese mainland to host the event. On August 6th, the slogan (口号) and mascots (吉祥物) for the Chengdu World Games appeared in public for the first time. They were chosen from 3,749 slogans and 1,924 mascots from all over the world. “The slogan ‘Boundless Sports, Countless Wonders’ shows Chengdu’s strong love for sports and life,” said Xu Xingguo, who is a vice-mayor (副市长) of the city. The mascots, “Shu Bao” and “Jin Zai”, are based on two rare animals found in Sichuan: the giant panda and the golden snub-nosed monkey (川金丝猴). The design team wants to help people learn about these rare animals and the importance of protecting nature. What’s more, the names of the two mascots show the national intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产) in Sichuan-“Shu jin (蜀锦)”.
The Chengdu World Games is going to run from Aug 7th to 17th this year. It will attract about 5,000 athletes from around the world and they will compete in 35 sports. Besides, they also offer more choices for people to join in international health programs.
45. What is NOT known about the 2025 World Games
A. The place. B. The date. C. The mascots. D. The result.
46. What are the mascots based on
A. The sports of the World Games. B. The vice-mayor of the city.
C. The athletes of the Games. D. The rare animals in Sichuan.
47. What can we probably see in the World Games
A. The slogan. B. Shu jin. C. The giant panda. D. The museum.
48. What does the underlined word “rare” mean
A. 极好的 B. 稀有的 C. 大量的 D. 可爱的
E
①Anger is a kind of feeling. Many things can make you angry. When your teacher gives you too much homework, when a friend borrows your favorite thing and then breaks it, when your team loses an important game, you may get really angry.
②Usually, your body will tell you when you are angry. For example, you breathe (呼吸) faster, your face turns red, and you may want to break something or hit someone, but sometimes you hide your anger. For example, you are really angry, but you may keep it to yourself. The worst thing is to do nothing but keep quiet. The problem is that if you do this, you may get a headache or your stomach may get hurt.
③In fact, it’s normal for you to get angry sometimes. But anger must be let out in the right way. When you get angry, you can talk about it with other people and share your problems with them, such as your parents, a teacher, etc.
④If you talk about anger, those bad feelings can start to go away. So you are halfway to solving a problem just by talking to someone about it. Here are some other things you can do when you start to feel angry: talk to a good friend; count from 1 to 100; give someone a hug (拥抱); think about good things, etc.
⑤So let’s take action now! It is not a good way to run away from your anger. You should always try to solve it.
49. In paragraph 1, the writer leads into the topic by ________.
A. telling stories B. giving examples C. listing numbers D. asking questions
50. ________ shows that you are angry.
A. Speaking slowly B. Getting a cold
C. Having a red face D. Trying to protect someone
51. The structure (结构) of the passage is ________.
A ①②③/④/⑤ B. ①/②/③④⑤ C. ①②/③/④⑤ D. ①/②③④/⑤
52. The main idea of the passage is ________.
A. how to share feelings B. why people get angry
C. what bad feelings are D. how to solve anger actively
F
From an early age, Fiona tried to be kind and friendly to everyone. She invited the whole class to her birthday party and occasionally (偶尔) gave presents to everybody.
However, everything changed on International Day of Friendship. In class that day, everyone had to make three presents to give to their three best friends. Fiona enjoyed the task of choosing three from all her classmates. But when all the presents had been made and shared out, she was the only one that didn’t receive a present! Fiona hadn’t expected this and felt terrible. Crying for hours, everyone came to comfort her, but each stayed only a short time before leaving—just as she had done to others so many times. She realized she was a good companion (伙伴), but she hadn’t been a true friend to anyone.
That night, Fiona told her mother about everything. Her mother said, “My dear, you cannot buy friends with a smile or a few good words. If you want true friends, you must give them time and real care.”
Hearing this, Fiona decided to change her ways to finally have some true friends.
53. How did Fiona try to treat everyone (不超过10个词)
__________________________________________________________________________________
54. How many presents did Fiona receive on International Day of Friendship (不超过5个词)
__________________________________________________________________________________
55. What should we do if we want true friends (不超过10个词)
__________________________________________________________________________________
第四部分 写作(共两大题,满分25分)
IX.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
56. China is one of the s________ (安全) countries in the world.
57. He often r________ (提醒) me to lock the door when I’m at home alone.
58. If people have problems, should they keep them to t________ (他们自己)
59. When I saw the things in the museum, I w________ (想知道) what life was like in the past.
60. In the face of danger, all the firefighters were brave and n________ (没有一个) of them gave up.
X.书面表达(共1小题:满分20分)
61. 新年伊始,《英语周报》面向中学生征集稿件,邀请大家以“My 2024 and 2025”为题回顾2024年的生活经历以及展望新的一年。
要求:短文必须包含右图要点,可适当发挥。
注意:
(1)文中不得出现真实的人名、校名等信息;
(2)词数:80左右。标题和开头已给出,不计入词数。
参考词汇:unforgettable难忘的;make progress in…在某方面取得进步;take up doing…开始学习;…make up sb’s mind to do…下定决心做…
My 2024 and 2025
2025 is around the corner. It’s time to share my experiences in 2024 and show my resolutions in 2025. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024—2025学年度第一学期学校自测评价八年级英语试题卷
注意事项:
1.本试卷共四部分,十大题,满分120分,考试时间为120分钟。
2.全卷包括“试题卷” (10页)和“答题卡” (2页)两部分。
3.请务必在“答题卡”上答题,在“试题卷”上答题无效。
第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. How will they go to Beijing
A. B. C.
2. Which picture is mentioned
A B. C.
3. Where would Mike like to go on holiday
A. To Paris. B. To New York. C. To Tokyo.
4. What does the boy often do
A. Go to the movies. B. Enjoy the Beijing Opera.
C. Watch a football match.
5. How can we find pen friends according to the woman
A. Join a club. B. Write some letters. C. Go abroad to study.
Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答6-7小题。
6. What are they making
A. Milk shake. B. Fruit salad. C. Vegetable soup.
7. How much yogurt do they need
A. About one teaspoon. B. One cup. C. Two teaspoons.
听下面一段对话,回答8-10小题。
8. Why does Susan thank David
A. Because David invited her to have dinner.
B. Because David invited her to his party.
C. Because David invited her to see a film.
9. What are they going to do on Saturday morning
A. To go to a flower show. B. To go to a car show.
C. To go to an art show.
10. Where are they going to meet
A. Outside the museum. B. Outside the school gate.
C. Outside the park.
Ⅲ.短文理解(共5题;每题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. When do dinner parties usually start
A. At 6 pm. B. Between 7 and 8 pm. C. At 11 pm.
12. Which is impolite for you to do
A. To ask about the prices of the owner's things.
B. To finish everything on your plate.
C. To bring the hosts some gifts.
13. Where does the hostess sit when the host sits at one end of the table
A. Beside her husband. B. At the other end of the table.
C. Anywhere.
14. What will probably be served first in the dinner
A. Coffee. B. Vegetables. C. Soup.
15. What can you do to show that you enjoyed the evening
A. Call the hosts the next day.
B. Stay overnight.
C. Send an expensive gift the next day.
Ⅳ.信息转换(共5题;每题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下列表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
First Aid
Who Mr. Zhang, from Children's 16 .
When At 17 o'clock on Friday afternoon.
Where In the school 18 .
What Learn examples and suggestions of keeping 19 in school. Learn 20 to give basic medical help.
第二部分 语言知识运用(共三大题,满分35分)
Ⅴ.单项选择(共10题;每题1分,满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【1题答案】
【答案】D
【2题答案】
【答案】A
【3题答案】
【答案】C
【4题答案】
【答案】A
【5题答案】
【答案】A
【6题答案】
【答案】C
【7题答案】
【答案】B
【8题答案】
【答案】B
【9题答案】
【答案】D
【10题答案】
【答案】B
Ⅵ.完形填空(共20题;每题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
【11~20题答案】
【答案】11. C 12. B 13. B 14. D 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. D
B
【21~30题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. C
Ⅶ.补全对话(共5题;每题1分,满分5分)
【31~35题答案】
【答案】31. F 32. D 33. C 34. G 35. A
第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20题;每题2分,满分40分)
第一节,阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【36~38题答案】
【答案】36. B 37. C 38. C
B
【39~41题答案】
【答案】39. C 40. B 41. C
C
【42~44题答案】
【答案】42. D 43. A 44. B
D
【45~48题答案】
【答案】45. D 46. D 47. A 48. B
E
【49~52题答案】
【答案】49. B 50. C 51. D 52. D
F
【53~55题答案】
【答案】53. She/Fiona tried to be kind and friendly (to everyone).
54. Zero./0./Fiona didn’t receive a present.
55. We should/must give them time and real care.
第四部分 写作(共两大题,满分25分)
IX.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
【56题答案】
【答案】safest##afest
【57题答案】
【答案】(r)eminds
【58题答案】
【答案】themselves##hemselves
【59题答案】
【答案】wondered##ondered
【60题答案】
【答案】none##one
X.书面表达(共1小题:满分20分)
【61题答案】
【答案】参考例文:
My 2024 and 2025
2025 is around the corner. It’s time to share my experiences in 2024 and show my resolutions in 2025.
2024 is a year full of memories. I made great progress in my study. I studied hard and got good grades in most of my exams. I remember the feeling of excitement when I saw my scores. I also went on a wonderful trip with my family. We went to a beautiful beach. The sand was soft, and the sea was blue. We played beach volleyball and built sandcastles. It was an unforgettable experience.
However, I didn’t pay enough attention to my health. I often stayed up late to study or read. In 2025, I am determined to change this. I plan to do more exercise, like running and playing basketball. I want to be healthier and more energetic. As for my hobby, I will take up reading. I am going to read many interesting books, like adventure stories and science fiction. Reading will make me think more and will broaden my horizon.
I hope that 2025 will bring me more joys and growth.

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