资源简介

2025─2026学年度上学期期末教学质量测查
八年级英语试卷参考答案及评分说明
I.听力 （每小题1分，共20分。）
1.A 2.C 3.A 4.B 5.C 6.C 7.A 8.C 9.A 10.C 11.B 12.A 13.C
14.A 15.B 16.easier 17.work 18.talking 19.points 20.better
II.阅读理解（每小题2分，共50分。）
（A）21.C 22.B 23.A 24.B 25.B
（B）26.B 27.A 28.A 29.B 30.A
（C）31.B 32.A 33.C 34.A 35.C
（D）36.A 37.B 38.D 39.E 40.F
（E）
41.AI-powered smart schools.
42.Because AI will finish boring tasks like copying notes for them.
43.To avoid the overcrowded cities and serious pollution on Earth.（或Because there will be less air pollution and more green spaces inside the stations.）
44.People should accept changes first and keep learning new knowledge all the time.
45.No. Because AI can’t understand human feelings.(答案不唯一，答案合理即可赋分。)
III.完形填空（每小题1分，共10分。）
46.A 47.B 48.C 49.B 50.B 51.A 52.C 53.C 54.A 55.B
IV.语言知识运用（每小题1分，共20分。）
第一节 选词填空
56.share 57.practice 58.skill 59.dream 60.news
61.expect 62.technology munication 64.future 65.express
第二节 语法填空
66.includes 67.activities 68.says 69.better 70. us
71.to develop 72.should 73.helpful 74.safe 75.planned
V.书面表达（本题共20分。）
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为20分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容、语言和结构等初步确定其所属档次，然后以该
档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分，具体为:
①对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性；
②应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性、准确性和恰当性；
③上下文的街接和全文的连贯性。
3.评分时，应注意的主要内容:紧扣题目要求，清晰表达观点和叙述事件。涵
盖所有关键信息，适当拓展，体现对主题的深度思考性。
4.词数少于80词，酌情扣分。
5.标点符号以及大小写等应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6.单词拼写、语法、短语搭配错误，酌情扣分。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接
受。
7.书写美观不计入评分细则，但如书写较差，影响阅卷，可将分数降低一个档
次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
书面表达评分细则
第一档(17-20) 完全达到 预期写作目的 ·涵盖所有内容要点，表达清楚、合理: ·词汇和语法结构均多样、准确、恰当。语言些许错误，但因尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致:具备较强的语言运用能力; ·有效地使用了语句间的连接手段，结构紧凑、意义连贯。
第二档(13-16) 达到 预期写作目的 ·虽漏掉了1、2个次重点，但涵盖所有内容要点，表达比较清楚、合理; ·词汇和语法结构比较多样，且准确、恰当; ·有效地使用了语句间的接连手段，全文结构比较紧凑，意义基本连贯。
第三档(9-12分) 基本达到 预期写作目的 ·涵盖主要内容要点，少数内容表达不太清楚、合理; ·词汇和语法结构能满足要求。有一些语言方面的错误，不影响理解; ·简单地使用语句间连接手段，结构基本紧凑，意义基本连贯。
第四档 (5-8分) 未能达到 预期写作目的 ·漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容; ·词汇知识有限语法结构单调。语言错误较多，影响对写作内容的理解； ·较少地使用语句间的连接成分，结构不够紧凑，意义不够连贯。
第五档 (1-4分) ·漏掉大部分内容，写了很多无关内容，未理解题意;
完全未达到预期写作目的 ·词汇知识有限，语法结构单调。语言错误很多，影响对写作内容的理解; ·缺乏语句间的连接成分，结构不紧凑，意义不连贯。
等外文 (0分) 未能传达给读者任何信息;内容太少，无法评判; 所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。(
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2025－2026学年度上学期期末教学质量测查
八年级英语试卷
考生注意：
(
本考场试卷序号
（由监考填写）
)1.考试时间 120分钟。
2.全卷共五道大题，总分120分。
题 号 一 二 三 四 五 总分 核分人
得 分
第一部分 听力理解（共 20 分）
(
命题人单位： 姓名：
)得 分 评卷人 I.听力理解（本大题共20小题，每小题1分，共20分。
第一节 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，每段对话读两遍。
( ) 1.Where did Lucy go on vacation？
A.New York City. B.Hong Kong. C.The beach.
( ) 2.What does Gina have to help her parents do
A.Sweep the floor. B.Hang up photos. C.Wash clothes.
( ) 3.What do Julie and Emma have in common
A.They are both slim. B.They are heavy. C.They are serious.
( ) 4.What does the man think we should do
A.Plant more trees. B.Stop cutting down trees. C.Stop catching whales.
( ) 5.What did the speaker make
A.Strawberry jam. B.Ice cream. C.Strawberry cake.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段对话，回答第6、7小题。
( ) 6.Will people use money in the future？
A.Maybe. B.Yes,they will. C.No,they won’t.
( ) 7.Why do we work if we don’t use money
A.The boy doesn’t know.
B.To go to the moon.
C.To go to the sea floor.
听第7段对话，回答第8至10小题。
( ) 8.What’s the boy’s hobby
A.He likes painting.
B.He likes taking photos.
C.He likes climbing mountains.
( ) 9.When does Wendy often take photos
A.On Sunday. B.On Monday. C.On Tuesday.
( ) 10.What does Wendy’s father do
A.He is a scientist. B.He is a singer. C.He is a teacher.
听下面一段独白，回答第11至15小题。
( ) 11.What is Kate good at
A.English and maths. B.English and Chinese. C.Chinese and maths.
( ) 12.What does Kate want to improve next year
A.Maths. B.English. C.Chinese.
( ) 13.What does John look like now
A.Tall. B.Thin. C.Heavy.
( ) 14. What does Tom like eating
A. Junk food. B.Vegetables. C. Fruit.
( ) 15. What is Tom going to eat more
A. Chinese food. B.Fruit. C.Junk food.
第三节 听下面一段独白，回答16-20小题，根据所听内容，写出表格中所缺单词，每空仅填一词，独白读两遍。
Active Listening
Goal To make it 16.__________ for people to clearly express ideas and feelings.
Use At home,at 17.__________ and even at school.
An active listener ·Listen carefully,without 18.________. ·Repeat the main 19.________.
Effect ·Help people get along 20._________. ·Provide a safe environment for people to express themselves.
第二部分 阅读理解（共 50 分）
得 分 评卷人 II.阅读理解 （本大题共25小题，每小题2分，共50分） 阅读下面五个语篇，根据要求做题。
（A）
After the mid-term exam, No. 8 Middle School opened four after-school clubs to make students’ free time more colorful. The school made a survey and published the club comparison table below. All the clubs follow the rule: “Safe first, fun more!” The vocabulary and activities are designed based on Grade 8 students’ English level (in line with the new curriculum standard).
Club Name Sports Club Art Club Tech Club Reading Club
Main Activities Play basketball/volleyball; do running training Learn drawing; make paper crafts; watch art shows Try 3D modeling; learn basic programming Read English storybooks; share reading feelings
Weekly Time 5 hours 4 hours 6 hours 3 hours
Difficulty Level easier medium the most difficult easier
Popularity (student votes) 120 (the most popular) 85 (more popular than Tech Club) 60 90 (more popular than Art Club)
Cost per Month 30 (the cheapest) 50 80 40
Notes: ① All clubs are open to Grade 8 students only. ② The difficulty is judged by the school’s teachers according to students’ learning ability. ③ Popularity is based on the vote of 300 Grade 8 students.
阅读短文，回答下列问题。
( )21.Which club has the longest weekly time
A. Sports Club B. Art Club C. Tech Club
( )22.We can infer from the table that ______
A. Sports Club is the most difficult among the four clubs
B. Reading Club is more popular than Tech Club
C. Art Club costs more than Reading Club and Sports Club together
( )23.The underlined word “comparison” in the passage probably means ______ in Chinese.
A. 对比 B. 宣传 C. 报名
( )24.Which of the following is TRUE according to the table
A. Sports Club is more difficult than Art Club
B. Reading Club has shorter weekly time than any other club
C. Art Club is more popular than Reading Club
( )25.What’s the main purpose of the club comparison table
A. To tell students the history of the four clubs
B. To help students choose a suitable after-school club
C. To show the school’s strict club rules
（B）
Last month, my family moved to a new flat in the city center. It’s not as big as our old house in the countryside, but it’s cozier and closer to my school. The flat has three bedrooms, a small kitchen, a living room and a bathroom. My parents chose it because it’s near a park and a supermarket, which makes our life more convenient.
My favorite part is my bedroom. It’s smaller than my old one, but I decorated it with my favorite posters and books. Every morning, I wake up to the sound of birds from the park outside my window. In the evening, after finishing my homework, I help my mom clean the kitchen or water the plants on the balcony. My dad often reads newspapers in the living room while we chat about our day.
Our new neighbors are very friendly. Mrs. Li, who lives next door, often shares homemade cakes with us. Last weekend, we had a small party at home to welcome our neighbors. We ate snacks, listened to music and talked happily. Even though the flat is smaller, it’s full of love and laughter. For me, home is not about how big the space is—it’s about the warm people and sweet moments inside.
根据语篇内容判断正误。正确的选A、错误的选B。
( )26.The writer’s new flat is bigger than the old house in the countryside.
( )27.The writer likes his new bedroom best because he decorated it with his favorite things.
( )28.The underlined word “cozier” probably means “more comfortable” in English.
( )29.The writer never helps his parents do housework in the new flat.
( )30.The writer thinks home is about the warm family and sweet moments rather than the size of the house.
（C）
Last National Day holiday, my family didn’t go to crowded tourist spots like before. Instead, we joined a low-carbon study tour to a small village in the suburbs. It was a new holiday way recommended by our school’s environmental club, which fits the national call for green travel.
On the first day, we helped local farmers pick organic apples and learn to grow vegetables in the field. It was tiring but interesting— I even knew how to tell good seeds from bad ones. In the afternoon, we listened to a talk about environmental protection given by a university teacher. He told us how small actions, like using cloth bags instead of plastic ones, could make a big difference to the earth.
On the second day, we camped near a clean river and shared stories with villagers. They showed us their handmade crafts, and I bought a small bamboo basket as a souvenir. When we came back home, I felt tired but happy. This holiday wasn’t about relaxing in hotels; it was about learning and making new friends. It was the most meaningful holiday I’ve ever had!
阅读短文，回答下列问题。
( )31.What did the writer’s family do during this National Day holiday
Traveled to a famous tourist spot
B. Joined a low-carbon study tour to a village
Stayed in a hotel to relax
( )32.The underlined phrase “low-carbon” probably means ______ in Chinese.
A. 低碳的 B. 廉价的 C. 长途的
( )33.We can infer from the passage that ______.
A. the writer hated the farm work because it was tiring
B. the university teacher only talked about plastic pollution
C. the villagers in the small village are good at making handmade things
( )34.Which activity did the writer NOT do during the tour
A. Visited a university in the suburbs
B. Learned to grow vegetables
C. Listened to an environmental talk
( )35.What’s the best title for the passage
A. A Crowded Tourist Spot
B. My Boring National Day Holiday
C. A Meaningful Low-carbon Holiday
（D）
Last Sunday, my mom taught me to make my favorite home-cooked dish—mapo tofu, a
famous Sichuan-style meal. It’s not only delicious but also full of family warmth. Before we started, mom told me it’s important to prepare all ingredients first.
36.______ We needed soft tofu, minced pork (猪肉末), chili bean sauce (豆瓣酱), garlic,
ginger and some green onions. I was a little nervous at first because I’d never cooked before. But mom encouraged me to try step by step.
First, we cut the tofu into small cubes and blanched (焯水) it in boiling water to remove the beany taste. 37. ______ Then, mom let me stir-fry the garlic and ginger in a hot pan until they gave off a nice smell. Next, we added the minced pork and cooked it until it turned brown.
After that, we poured in the chili bean sauce and mixed it well with the pork. 38. ______ We cooked it for about five minutes and added a little salt and sugar to adjust the taste. I was surprised at how good it smelled during cooking!
39.______ Finally, we sprinkled (撒) chopped green onions on top. When the dish was served, my dad took the first bite and praised it loudly. 40. ______ I felt so proud and happy. This meal wasn’t just tasty food—it was a special memory of learning to cook with my mom.
(
Here are the ingredients we prepared for this dish.
After blanching, we took the tofu out and set it aside for later use.
My mom also prepared a bowl of rice to go with the dish.
Then we put the cut tofu cubes into the pan and mixed them gently with the pork and sauce.
The tofu gradually absorbed the sauce and became more fragrant.
F. My mom also nodded and praised me for my first successful cooking experience.
)
（E）
In 50 years, the world will be very different from what it is now, thanks to the fast development of science and technology. This is not just a prediction (预测) but a possible future based on today’s tech trends. Let’s take a look at two amazing changes that will shape people’s lives.
First, AI-powered smart schools will replace traditional classrooms in many places. There will be fewer paper books and more digital learning platforms, so students won’t need to carry heavy schoolbags anymore. AI teachers will not only give lessons but also check students’ homework in seconds and make personalized learning plans for each student. If a student has trouble with math, the AI teacher will provide extra exercises right away. Besides, there will be more free time for students because AI will finish boring tasks like copying notes. However, teachers won’t lose their jobs—they will play a part in guiding students’ emotional growth and creative thinking, since AI can’t understand human feelings .
Second, some people will live in near-earth space stations to avoid the overcrowded cities and serious pollution on Earth . These space stations will have smart systems that control the air, temperature and food supply automatically. There will be less air pollution and more green spaces inside the stations, and people will even be able to grow vegetables with special lights. Robots will do most of the housework, so people will have more time to enjoy their hobbies or learn new skills. But living in space won’t be easy—people will have to take special training to get used to the low-gravity environment, and they must learn to work with robots and AI systems well.
Dr. Lu, a future technology researcher, says, “Technology will make our lives better, but it also brings challenges. To be ready for tomorrow, people should accept changes first and keep learning new knowledge all the time. Only in this way can we make good use of new technology instead of being controlled by it.”
What will replace traditional classrooms in many places in 50 years
_________________________________________________________
42.Why will students have more free time in AI-powered smart schools
_________________________________________________________
43.What is one reason some people will choose to live in near-earth space stations
_________________________________________________________
44.According to Dr. Lu, what should people do to be ready for the future with new technology
_________________________________________________________
45.Do you think AI can completely take the place of human teachers Please give one reason based on the passage.
_________________________________________________________
第三部分 完形填空（共 10分）
得 分 评卷人 III.完形填空（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 阅读短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选择一个最佳选项。
My life has been full of interesting experiences recently, and I can’t wait to share them with you.
Last month, our biology class did a 46. ______ about rare plants in our school. We spent three days collecting information and taking photos. I 47. ______ many notes about the ginkgo tree near the library—it’s over 50 years old! My teacher said it’s one of the most 18. ______ plants in our city, so all students must 49. ______ it well.
Last week, we moved to a new classroom. It’s much 50. ______ than the old one, and 51. ______ a big window beside the blackboard. We can see green trees outside, which makes the classroom more comfortable. After class, I often sit there to review my lessons.
Last weekend, my mom made my favorite braised pork for dinner. 52. ______ tasty food it was! I ate two bowls of rice with it. I told my mom I wanted to learn to cook it, and she promised to teach me if I 53. ______ free on weekends.
As for my future plans, I 54. ______ join the school cooking club next term, because I want to learn to make more Chinese dishes. I also dream of being a 55. ______ in the future, so I can introduce Chinese food and culture to foreign visitors.
( )46.A. survey B. story C. song
( )47.A. take B. took C. will take
( )48.A. common B. boring C. valuable
( )49.A. look for B. take care of C. turn off
( )50.A. big B. bigger C. biggest
( )51.A. there is B. there are C. it has
( )52.A. How B. How a C. What
( )53.A. am B. was C. will be
( )54.A. am going to B. was going to C. would
( )55.A. driver B. tour guide C. engineer
第四部分 语言知识运用（共 20分）
得 分 评卷人 IV.语言知识运用（本大题共20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
选词填空：从方框中选择适当的词填空，使短文意思完整、通顺。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。方框中有一个词为多余项。
share; practice; dream; expect; news; communication; technology; future; express; skill; discuss
In our class, we held a special communication activity named “Bridge of Dreams” last
Friday. The main goal of the activity was to teach us to 56. ______ our inner thoughts and wishes with classmates bravely.
At the beginning of the activity, most students were nervous and kept silent. Our English teacher encouraged us, saying that we should 57. ______ public speaking as much as possible to develop this important 58. ______. Soon, the atmosphere(氛围) became active.
Li Hua was the first to stand up. She talked about her 59. ______—to be a reporter who covers educational 60. ______ . She 61. ______ to bring people true and useful information through her reports. Then, Zhang Tao told us his plan：he was going to learn AI 62.________ and improve people’s online 63._________ ways in the 64. ______ . Maybe his invention will help us connect with friends from all over the world more smoothly one day!
The activity ended with warm applause. Everyone said they had learned a lot about how to 65. ______ themselves better.
第二节 语法填空。根据内容用所给单词的正确形式填空，每空限填一词，有一个多余项。
include; develop; good; help; activity;should; say; safe; we; teach; plan
This term, our school starts a new program that 1. ______ AI teaching assistants（助手）in class. It becomes one of the most popular 2. ______ among students.
Our headteacher 3. ______ the AI tools can make learning more interesting. For example, the AI can help us practice oral English much 4. ______ than before, because it can correct our pronunciation in time. It also gives 5. ______ personalized exercise plans according to our test results.
To make the most of this program, our teacher advises us 6. ______ our independent thinking skills. She tells us we 7. ______ not depend too much on AI, but use it as a 8. ______ tool. Besides, the school has made rules to keep our personal information 9. ______ when we use the AI system.
Last week, we 10. ______ a “AI & Study” sharing meeting. Some students shared how they improved their grades with the help of AI. We all believe this new way of learning will bring us more surprises in the future!
第五部分 书面表达（共 20分）
得 分 评卷人 V.书面表达（本题共20分）
随着新年的钟声即将敲响，我们站在新的起点，对未来充满憧憬。一份清晰的未来规划，能让我们在成长路上更有方向。请以“My Dream Job”为题，写一篇短文，分享你的职业梦想与新年规划。
写作要求：
1. 开篇结合新年语境，引出你的梦想职业；
2. 说明你渴望从事该职业的2个核心原因，可结合个人经历、榜样影响或职业意义；
3. 提出2-3条切实可行的实现计划，需符合八年级学生的身份，比如“坚持每天阅读科普书籍”“主动向相关职业的人请教”；
4. 语言简洁明了，语法正确，条理清晰，字数控制在80-100词；
5. 文中不得出现真实的姓名、班级信息。
My Dream Job
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