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2025-2026学年度第一学期铜仁二中初级中学教联体统一监测
七年级英语答题卡
学校 考场
姓名 班级 座号
考生号
缺考标记， 考生禁填！ 由监考教师 负责用黑色 字迹的签字 笔填涂。 注意事项 1. 答题前，考生先将条形码粘贴在‘贴条形码区’，并将本人学校、班级、姓名、考号、考场和座号填写在相应位置。 2. 答题时，第I卷必须使用2B铅笔填涂，第II卷必须使用0.5毫米的黑色签字笔书写，笔迹要清晰。 3. 严格按题号所示的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效。 4. 保持答题卡面清洁、完整，严禁折叠，严禁在答题卡上作任何标记，严禁使用涂改液和修正带。 填涂样例 正 确 填 涂 错 误 填 涂2025-2026学年度第一学期铜仁二中初级中学教联体统一监测
七年级英语试卷
同学你好! 答题前请认真阅读以下内容：
1.本试卷共8页，共五个大题，满分150分，答题时间120分钟，考试形式为闭卷。
2.一律在答题卡相应位置作答，在试卷上答题视为无效。
3.选择题为单项选择，错选、多选均不得分。
第一部分 听力（共五节，30个小题；每小题1分，满分30分）
听下面6段对话，选择与每段对话内容相符的图片，每段对话读一遍。
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
第二节 听下面6个句子,选择与每个句子匹配的最佳应答,每个句子读一遍。
7. A. Yes, I do. B. Yes, I can. C. Yes, I am.
8. A. 45. B. Girls. C. At school.
9. A. Sure. B. Sounds good. C. Thanks!
10. A. It’s very big. B. Next to the library. C. He likes it a lot.
11. A. Mr Wang. B. Because it’s useful. C.On Monday morning.
12. A. Chinese food. B. The drama club. C. Take a shower.
第三节 听下面6段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,根据对话内容及问题,选择最佳答案,每段对话读两遍。
13. What’s Amy’s favourite subject
A. Geography. B. Maths. C. Chinese.
14. Who is the boy in the photo
A. Tony’s cousin. B. Amy’s cousin. C. Amy’s brother.
15. Where is the teachers' building
A. Across from the library. B. Behind the sports field.
C. Behind the school hall.
16. What does Lily think of her subjects
A. They’re easy. B. They’re interesting. C. They’re boring.
17. When can David play football with his friends
A. On Wednesday morning. B. On Thursday afternoon. C. On Friday evening.
18. What lessons do they have in the afternoon today
A. Maths and PE. B. English and IT. C. Maths and IT.
第四节 听下面3段对话,每段对话后有两个小题,根据对话内容及问题,选择最佳选项,每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第19、20两个小题。
19. How does Linda feel about baseball
A. Difficult. B. Interesting. C. Easy.
20. What club is Linda in
A. The swimming club. B. The basketball club. C. The sports club.
听下面一段对话,回答第21、22两个小题。
21. What’s Alice's favourite day
A. Monday. B. Tuesday. C. Friday.
22. Why does Scott like Monday and Friday
A. Because he has PE. B. Because he has music. C. Because he has maths.
听下面一段对话,回答第23、24两个小题。
23. Which club does Tony want to join
A. The music club. B. The art club. C. The basketball club.
24. Who asks Tony to join the English club
A. His father. B. His mother. C. His teacher.
第五节 听下面一段独白,根据独白内容,完成图表所缺信息,每空仅填1词,独白读三遍。
Betty’s Favourite School Day－25.
In the morning First two classes: favourite subjects－English and 26. .
In the afternoon Art class: 27. the flowers in the park.
28. classes * The music club: favourite teacher－Miss Green. She is really 29. . * 30. : favourite sport.
第二部分 完形(共两节,满分 20 分)
第一节（共5个小题，每小题1分, 满分 5分)
阅读下面短文,从框内六个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有一个为多余选项。
whose B. a C. and D. in E. who F. the
Hello! My name is Emma Brown, 31 you can call me Emma.
This is my room. You can see 32 bed in it. What are those on 33 bed They’re my socks. Where are my glasses They are 34 the desk. A basketball is under the bed. Oh, 35 basketball is it It’s my brother’s. He can play basketball well.
My room is tidy. I like it very much.
第二节（共 10 个小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
There is a kind woman. She has a nice house 36 a big yard. In her yard, there 37 many flowers.
One day, Bill comes to her yard. What beautiful flowers! Bill thinks the woman has a happy life. Then he finds that the woman can’t 38 anything.
“ 39 do you plant these flowers here ” Bill asks.
The woman smiles and says, “First, I love flowers. Second, I can’t see the flowers, but I can smell (闻) 40 . As for the last one, it’s you.”
“Me 41 you don’t know me.”
“Yeah, I don’t know you. But as I know, everyone 42 flowers. Many people stop (停留) in front of my yard every day. The 43 make them happy. They also make me 44 with you here. They bring us great fun.”
After reading the story, my dear students, what can you learn from 45 woman
A. with B. under C. from
A. be B. is C. are
A. sees B. see C. seeing
A. When B. Where C. Why
A. they B. them C. their
A. But B. And C. Because
A. like B. likes C. to like
A. flower B. flowers C. flowers’
A. talk B. to talk C. talking
A. a B. an C. the
第三部分 阅读（共三节，满分50分）
第一节（共12个小题；每小题2.5分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Welcome to Sunshine Middle School!
Here are some elective courses (选修课) for you to choose from the e and join us!
SwimmingTeacher: Mr. Hu Place: In the gym Time: On Tuesday and Thursday, 4:30 p.m.—5:30 p.m. CookingTeacher: Mrs. Zhang Place: In the kitchen classroom Time: On Tuesday and Friday, 3:00 p.m.—4:00 p.m.
GuitarTeacher: Miss Lin Place: In the music room Time: On Monday, 3:00 p.m.—4:00 p.m. Coding (编码) Teacher: Mr. Zhu Place: In the computer room Time: On Wednesday and Friday, 3:30 p.m.—4:30 p.m.
How many elective courses are there in the poster
Two. B. Three. C. Four.
47. Who teaches the cooking course
A. Mr. Hu. B. Mrs. Zhang. C. Mr. Zhu。
48. Emma wants to learn an instrument. What course can she choose
A. B. C.
49. Where can you see this poster
A. In a park. B. In a school. C. In a dining hall.
B
Hello, my name is Jack. Now I’m in a hotel (酒店) in Dubai. The hotel is Atlantis The Palm. I like the room in the hotel. The bed is big. The quilt is white and brown. There is a big window from it. I can see some fishes.
Nice to meet you. I’m Linda. Now I’m in Singapore. I am in the hotel of Resorts World Sentosa with my sister. Our room is not very big but it is tidy. The bed and quilt are white. I can watch TV. I can see fishes from the window, too!
Hi, I’m John. I have a good day in the Maldives. Now I’m in a hotel. Its name is Rangali Island Resort. The rooms in the hotel are great. They are big. People can see the underwater world (水下世界) in them. But I only have dinner with my parents there. And we can see the underwater world, too.
50. What color is the quilt in Jack’s room
A.Yellow and orange. B.Green and white. C.White and brown.
51.What is in Linda’s room
A. A bookcase. B.A TV set. C.A underwater world.
52.The word “them” refers to (指的是) ________.
A. the rooms B.the people C.the beds
53.What do we know
A. John’s parents are in Singapore now.
B. Jack and Linda can see fishes in their hotels.
C. There are two windows in Jack’s room.
C
Can you cook, clean or grow vegetables Now Chinese students in middle schools have one labor (劳动) class a week. How do students like the new subject Let’s have a look.
Li Yang, from Guiyang: In our school, students learn to grow vegetables. We have labor class on Friday. We grow carrots, potatoes and we grow strawberries, too. We like labor class very much. It is really relaxing.
Wang Meng, from Zunyi: I can learn to cook from my teacher. At first, it is very difficult to learn. I feel great when I cook good food. I can scramble (炒) eggs with tomatoes for my family. I like the new subject. Thanks to (因为) it, I can learn a lot. I think it is useful.
Ye Jun, from Tongren: We keep chickens at school. We take vegetables and rice to them to eat on Tuesday. We can play with chickens. So much fun, right It is my favourite subject.
When does Li Yang have labor class
A.On Monday. B.On Wednesday. C.On Friday.
55.Where is Wang Meng from
A.Guiyang. B.Zunyi. C.Tongren.
56.What can Ye Jun do at school
A. B. C.
57.What’s the structure (结构) of the passage
A. B. C.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后框内的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Cindy is my good friend. She is an English girl and she is twelve years old. She lives in Chengdu with her parents now. She likes Sichuan food very much—hot pot and Mapo tofu. 58 She has lots of hobbies. She likes playing the guitar after school. 59 She plays tennis with her friends on Saturdays. 60 She thinks it is great.
Cindy has some erasers, keys and hats. She has eleven erasers in different colours—white, red, yellow, green and black. 61 Look! Eight keys are in it too! 62 She has two yellow hats, four red hats, two blue hats and a black hat. They look nice on the bed.
第三节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据其内容填空和回答问题。
（63至66题每题答案不超过3个单词，67题须用完整句子回答。）
I’m Julia and I come from Changsha. I want to tell you about my new classmate Bob. He is 13 years old. He is a handsome boy with big eyes and brown hair. But he is not the same as other students. He always carries a walking stick (带着拐杖) because he lost (失去) one leg in an accident (事故).
Bob is from the USA. He says he loves China. He wants to make some new friends here. Bob likes reading books. He spends lots of time reading. He also likes sports. His favorite sport is ping-pong.
He is kind and funny. He can make everyone around him laugh. I learn a lot from him and I think he is cool.
Bob is ______________ years old.
Bob comes from _______________.
Bob is a handsome boy, but he is not _______________ other students.
Bob _______________ ping-pong best.
Do you want to make friends with Bob Why or why not
第四部分语言运用（共两节，满分 25 分）
第一节（同一主题）（共5个小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据中文提示，补全英语译文。（每空限填一词，缩写算一词。）
学校图书馆正在招募图书管理员，你想成为你校图书管的管理员吗？快来加入我们吧！
在我们学校有个图书角。
a book corner in our school.
我想成为一名那个图书角的管理员。
I' d like a helper of the book corner.
我擅长阅读。
I am reading.
当学生需要书的时候我可以帮助他们。
I can help students when books.
对我来说在那里工作是有趣的。
It for me to work there.
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入括号内单词的正确形式。
Look! Who are 73 (this) two pandas They 74 (be) pandas from Chengdu, Sichuan.
The panda on the right is Huahua. She is 5 75 (year) old. Huahua 76 (have) many hobbies. She likes eating. She spends much time 77 (eat) every day. And 78 (she) favourite food is bamboo (竹子).
The panda on the left is Heye. She is Huahua’s sister. They are 79 (twin). Huahua is quiet, but Heye is not. Heye can climb (爬) trees 80 (good). They always play together.
Many people come to see 81 (they). They think pandas are cute. Would you like 82 (see) pandas Welcome to Chengdu.
第五部分 写作（满分25分）
亲爱的同学们，初中生活开启了我们人生的新篇章，中学时光如诗如歌。请根据以下思维导图提示，以“My Happy School Life”为题，写一篇英语短文，介绍一下你的校园生活。
要求：
文中不得出现真实姓名和学校名称。
2. 要点齐全，适当发挥，语言通顺，表意准确，条理清晰，书写规范。
3. 词数70左右，文章的开头已经给出，不计入总词数。
My Happy School Life
This is my first term at my new school. I live a happy life here .
_______________________________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________________________2025-2026学年度第一学期铜仁二中初级中学教联体统一监测
七年级英语参考答案
第一部分 听力（共五节，30 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 30 分）
1-6 AABACA 7-12 BACABB
13-18 ABCBCC 19-24 ACBAAB
25. Wednesday 26. maths 27. draw 28. After 29. nice 30. Baseball
第二部分 完形（共两节，满分 20 分）
31-35 CBFDA 36-40 ACBCB 41-45 ABBAC
第三部分 阅读（共三节，满分 50 分）
46-49 CBCB 50-53 CBAB 54-57 CBBA 58-62 FDACE
63. 13/thirteen 64. the USA/the US/America 65.the same as 66. likes/ loves
67. Yes, I do. Because he is kind and funny.(答案不唯一，根据文本言之有理即可。用完整句子回答得 2 分，表达有语法错误、 拼写错误可酌情扣分）
第四部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 25 分）
68. There is 69. to be/become 70. good at 71. they need 72. is fun/interesting
73. these 74. are 75. years 76. has 77. eating
78. her 79. twins 80. well 81. them 82. to see
第五部分 写作（满分 25 分）
参考范文
My Happy School Life
This is my first term at my new school. I live a happy life here.
My school is big and beautiful. There is a big sports field, a library, a teachers’ building and three classroom buildings. My favorite subject is maths because it’s useful and
interesting. My teachers are kind to me, they always help me with my study. My classmates are friendly, we often help each other. We also have many kinds of clubs like English club, music club and basketball club. After class, I join the chess club. It’s fun to play with my friends. Sometimes, I also play basketball with my classmates.
I think my school life is colourful and fun. I like it very much.
作文评分标准如下：
档 次 分 值 评分标准
第五档 21-25分 很好地完成了规定的写作任务。涵盖所有的内容要点；文章结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚，过渡自然；运用了较丰富的词汇、语法 和句式结构；错误较少，格式正确，书写规范。
第四档 16-20分 较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上涵盖所有内容要点；文章结构较为完整，语句完整通顺，意思表达清楚；语法结构和词汇错误 较少，格式基本正确，书写较为规范。
第三档 11-15分 基本上完成了规定的写作任务。涵盖主要内容要点；结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚；语法结构和词汇错误较多，格式基本正确，书写基本规范。
第二档 6-10分 未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数的内容要点；结构不完整，多数语句欠完整，意思不够清楚；语法结构和词汇错误较多， 影响理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。
第一档 0-5分 未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。不写或抄写与话题无关的内容不得分；只写出一些与话题有关的词、短语或者1-3个简单句，书写 不规范，得1-5分。全抄前面阅读文章不给分。

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