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七年级2025-2026学年第一学期英语练习
时长： 100 分钟 总分：100 分
注意事项：
1.答题前，请考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚，并认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号、考场和座位号；
2.必须在答题卡上答题，在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效；
3.答题时，请考生注意各大题题号后面的答题提示；
4.请勿折叠答题卡，保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁；
5.答题卡上不得使用涂改液、涂改胶和贴纸；
6.本学科试卷中听力材料以中速朗读两遍。
试卷分为四个部分，共7页， 61小题，时量100分钟，满分100分。
第一部分听力(共两节，满分20分)
第一节(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What does Gina like playing
A. Tennis. B. Table tennis. C. Basketball.
2. What is the boy looking for
A. His socks. B. A chair. C. His trousers.
3. Who is Bob
A. Tom's brother. B. Tom's friend. C. Linda's brother.
4. How many orange trees does Jeff find
A. Twelve. B. Thirteen. C. Fourteen.
5. What subject does Miss Zhao teach
A. Chinese. B. English. C. Music.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第六段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Where do the Browns live
A. Next to Gary. B. Across from Jenny. C. Behind Jenny.
7. How many pets do the Browns have
A. Two. B. Five. C. Six.
听第七段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What does Stephen think of the woman's first idea
A. Helpful. B. Great. C. Bad.
9. What will the speakers do
A. Play ping- pong. B. Play basketball. C. Fly kites.
听第八段材料，回答第10、11题。
10. How is the weather today
A. Cold. B. Cloudy. C. Sunny.
11. When does Chris have violin classes
A. On Sundays. B. On Saturdays. C. On Fridays.
听第九段材料，回答第12 至14题。
12. What colour is Ava's hair
A. Brown. B. Black. C. Red.
13. What does Ava like
A. Keeping animals. B. Taking photos. C. Drawing.
14. How old is George
A. 12. B. 14. C. 16.
听第十段材料，回答第15 至17题。
15. How does Mary find the yard
A. It's beautiful. B. It's small. C. It's dirty.
16. What does Grandpa ask Mary to do
A. Give the chickens some food. B. Water the carrot plants. C. Cook the tomatoes
17. Where are the rabbits
A. Next to the cat. B. Near the flowers. C. Behind the house.
听第十一段材料，回答第18 至20题。
18. Where is Eric from
A. The UK. B. The US. C. Australia.
19. What is Eric's favourite subject
A. Science. B. Math. C. Art.
20. When does Eric take science class
A. On Mondays. B. On Thursdays. C. On Fridays.
第二部分阅读(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分)
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Our club has some new lessons for people from fifty to sixty-five years old. Do you want to take them
Lesson Time Room Teacher
Basketball Wednesday 9:30 a. m.—11:30 a. m. 3:00 p. m.—5:00 p. m. 106 Mr. William, 36 years old ★He can play basketball well.
Baduanjin From Monday to Friday 9:00 a. m.—11:00 a. m. 3:00 p. m.—5:00 p. m. 408 Mr. Lee, 35 years old ★He is from China.
Chinese Calligraphy Tuesday 8:00 a. m.—11:00 a. m. 2:30 p. m.—5:30 p. m. 809 Mrs. Zhang, 35 years old ★Mrs Zhang is happy to teach you how to write it beautifully.
21. Who are the lessons for
A. People under 50.
B. People from 50 to 60.
C. People from 50 to 65.
22. What lessons can Bill take on Friday morning
A. Baduanjin.
B. Chinese Calligraphy.
C. Basketball.
B
Do you have any hobbies For me, I love making animals out of straw(草). It's really fun.
Zhang Bangshou is my straw art teacher. He teaches straw art in many schools in Beijing. He comes to our school every Wednesday afternoon to give us lessons.
Mr Zhang is really good at making things with straw. He can make all kinds of things, like straw animals, straw flowers and straw cars. We all love watching him work.
I often make mistakes when I make straw animals. But Mr Zhang says, “Learning takes time and practice(练习). Be patient. After practising many times, you can do it well.”
He is right. After many weeks of practice, I can make some straw animals. I give some of them to my friends,
and they all love them. I hope (希望) one day I can do well in making things with straw, just like Mr Zhang.
Mr Zhang wants more children to learn and love this old art."This is a great Chinese art, “he says. “We need to keep it alive (活着的；有活力的)."
23. When does Mr Zhang go to the writer's school
A. Every Wednesday morning.
B. Every Friday morning.
C. Every Wednesday afternoon.
24. What does paragraph (段落)3 tell us
A. What straw art is.
B. What Mr Zhang is good at.
C. Which school Mr Zhang is in.
25. The word"patient"means“ ” in Chinese.
A.积极的
B.骄傲的
C.耐心的
26. What does Mr Zhang want children to do
A. To have a fun hobby.
B. To learn and love straw art.
C. To be teachers like him.
C
Do you know the little cute thing in the picture “It’s a Labubu."I think this is your answer. You' re right. Now it has become a favourite of many young people.
The man next to the picture is Kasing Lung, the " Father of Labubu". He is 53 years old. He was born (出生) in Hong Kong, China, but most of the time, he lives in Belgium with his family. He loves reading, drawing and writing.
Kasing Lung began (开始) to write the book The Monsters in 2015. In the book, he lets us know some really cute elves(精灵). They are Zimomo, Tycoco, Spooky, Pato, and, of course, Labubu.
The group of Labubu has about 100 members. They all live happily in the forest. They are not big, just like cats. They have long ears and each has nine serrated teeth (锯齿状牙齿). And they always wear a smile. For them, everything is new and interesting.
Labubu's cute looks inspire (促使) people to make all kinds of toys. Many people love these toys. Would you like to have one for yourself
27. What do we know about Labubu from Paragraph 1
A. Labubu is clever. B. Labubu likes drawing pictures. C. Many people like Labubu.
28. What about Kasing Lung is NOT mentioned (提及) in Paragraph 2
A. His age.
B. His hobbies.
C. His family members.
29. What do Labubu members look like
①They have long ears. ②They have nine teeth.
③They have a smiling face. ④They are tall and big.
A.①②③
B.①②④
C.①③④
30. What's the best title for the passage
A. The “Father of Labubu"
B. Labubu: a cute elf
C. A book: The Monsters
第二节(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。每个选项仅使用一次。
Today, there are many new technologies (技术) like AI and VR. It is easy for some students to use them.31. Now Future Classrooms are here to help them.
What is a Future Classroom 32. In a Future Classroom, students can use VR glasses to visit different places. They can also learn to make robots. And you know what These classrooms often have 3D printers(打印机). Students can print many things.
33. In one Future Classroom in Jiangsu, students make robots. Each robot looks different and can tell stories.34. And they would like to sleep with their robots!
In another Future Classroom in Shanxi, students make things like the famous Newton's Cradle(牛顿摆). It's a fun way to learn about science.
Future Classrooms help students learn about science and technology. Students can try new things there,35.
A. and it's a great way for them to get ready for the future! B. The students love listening to these stories. C. But for some other students, it's not easy. D. There are many Future Classrooms in China now. E. It's a special place for students to do fun activities.
第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分25分)
第一节(共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Simon loves playing football. It's his favourite 36 . But his shoes are very old.
When he plays football at school, some of his classmates laugh at (嘲笑) 37.
One day, Simon goes back home and he looks sad. He 38 with his grandpa. He says, “My shoes are too old!I can't play football well in them.” Grandpa has a good 39 . He says to Simon, “I’m sorry to hear that, 40 I think I can help. Please bring your shoes to my room.”
Grandpa starts to paint the shoes. Then the 41 of a football shows on each shoe. The shoes look 42 now. After that, Grandpa looks at Simon and says,“You have beautiful shoes now. But you can also play well if (如果)you don't 43 beautiful shoes. The boy in the shoes matters(有重大影响), not the shoes!”
Simon 44 likes his shoes. The next day, Simon 45 the shoes and goes to school happily. Grandpa's words give him power (力量) when he plays football.
36. A. sport B. unit C. band
37. A. us B. her C. him
38. A. sings B. talks C. plays
39. A. book B. idea C. name
40. A. but B. or C. because
41. A. information B. page C. picture
42. A. tidy B. different C. old
43. A. have B. spell C. find
44. A. also B. always C. really
45. A. cleans B. wears C. buys
第二节(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
My name is Chen Jun. I'm 46 Grade 7 student now. I'm busy this term 47 I have more subjects in middle school. Some subjects like maths, Chinese and English are the same as those in primary school(小学). Some are new to 48 (I), like geography and history. I like all my subjects, but my favourite is biology. When I learn biology, it 49 (feel) like magic. My teachers and classmates are very nice and I like my school life a lot.
There are a lot of biology books in my room. I really like the book The Records about Insects (《昆虫记》). I think it's a 50 (use) book. I love it for two 51 (reason). First, it tells so much about different kinds of insects in the world. It's exciting to learn 52 them from the book. Second, it helps me a lot with my biology. I learn how 53 (remember) information well from it.
I would like to be a 54 (science). I think it's a cool job. I want to spend most of my time55 (study) living things in the future. What about you
第四部分读写综合(共两节；满分25分)
第一节(共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面的短文，根据课文内容回答问题。
My favourite school club is the love club. It has the most members and it helps others in many ways.
First, the club helps with our studies. The club members meet the students with difficulty in their studies in the library every Wednesday and Friday afternoon. They help work out difficult maths problems, read English stories together, or help with other subjects.
Second, it helps with our everyday life. Some students can't find their things. The club members put up notices to help them get their things back. Sun Hao, a Grade 8 student, can't walk these days. The club members take turns(轮流) to help him go to school and get home from school.
Third, it gives emotional support(情感支持). Some students are not happy because they have problems with their parents or classmates. They can go to Classroom 206. There are some chairs and green plants there. The club members listen to them there and give them ideas.
Finally(最后), it teaches students to help others. The club has some special activities every week. They sometimes visit an old people's home or a children's home on Sundays. They tell stories or do something interesting to make them laugh.
The love club makes our school life full of fun. Would you like to join it
56. When do the club members help the students with their studies
57. Why does Sun Hao need help these days
58. What things are in Classroom 206
59. Where do the students sometimes go on Sundays
60. What do you think of the school love club
第二节(共1小题；满分15分)
根据要求完成短文写作。
61.多姿多彩的俱乐部让我们的校园生活更加精彩。学校英文校刊主编在读了第一节(回答问题)的文章后，发起以“My school life”为题的征文活动，面向全校学生进行征稿。假如你是李华，请你根据下面的提示内容，写一篇短文介绍你的校园生活。
要求：1.包含所给全部信息，可适当发挥；
2.条理清晰，语句通顺，语法正确，书写规范；
3.60词左右(开头已给出，不计入总词数)。
My school life
I'm Li Hua in Grade 7. Now I'd like to talk about my school life.
2025-2026学年七年级第一学期英语练习答案和评卷标准
第一部分 听力：略
第二部分 阅读（共30分）
第一节（每小题2分，满分20分）
21-25 CACBC
26-30 BCCAB
第二节（每小题2分，满分10分）
31-35 C E D B A
第三部分 语言运用（共25分）
第一节 完形填空（每小题1.5分，满分15分）
36-40 ACBBA
41-45 CBACB
第二节 语法填空（每小题1分，满分10分）
46. a
47. because
48. me
49. feels
50. useful
51. reasons
52. about
53. to remember
54. scientist
55. studying
第四部分 读写综合（共25分）
第一节 阅读回答问题（每小题2分，满分10分）
56. Every Wednesday and Friday afternoon.
57. Because he can't walk these days.
58. Some chairs and green plants.
59. An old people's home or a children's home.
60. It's helpful and meaningful.（言之有理即可）
第二节 书面表达（满分15分）
范文
My school life
I'm Li Hua in Grade 7. Now I'd like to talk about my school life. My favourite club is the love club because it helps others in many ways. English is my favourite subject—it's interesting and useful. I like the school library best as it's quiet and has many good books. I can read English stories there and learn a lot. My school life is colorful and I really enjoy it!
评分标准
- A档（13-15分）：涵盖所有提示信息，语言基本无误，行文连贯，表达清楚，有适当发挥；
- B档（10-12分）：涵盖所有提示信息，语言有少量错误，表达基本连贯、清楚，有简单发挥；
- C档（7-9分）：基本涵盖提示信息，语言有部分错误，行文不够连贯，但不影响句意理解；
- D档（4-6分）：能涉及部分提示信息，语言错误较多，影响意思表达；
- E档（1-3分）：仅能写出与话题相关的个别单词或句子，难以理解。
具体给分点
- 提及最喜欢的俱乐部及原因、最喜欢的学科及原因、学校里最喜欢的地方及原因、能做的事（共10分）：每个要点2分，缺少一个要点扣2分；
- 适当发挥（2分）：补充合理细节（如俱乐部活动、学科学习收获等）；
- 语言准确性（2分）：语法、拼写错误较少；
- 结构与连贯（1分）：分段清晰，逻辑连贯。

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