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2025-2026第一学期七年级上册英语12月月考试卷
本试卷满分 120 分，考试时间 120 分钟；
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分 30 分）
第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语（共 5 题；每题 1 分，满分 5 分）
1.A. It’s large. B. It’s on the left. C. Sure. Here you are.
2.A. Let’s play tennis. B. I have a tennis. C. That sounds good.
3.A. She is forty. B. Ms Smith. C. It’s $10.
4.A. Yes, I can. B. No, I can’t. C. I can play the piano.
5.A. Hi, everyone! B. Nice to meet you, too. C. My name is Kate.
第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共 13 题；每题 1 分，满分 13 分）
听第 1 组对话，回答第 6 题
6.What’s Linda’s favourite food
A. （图片：面包） B. （图片：米饭） C. （图片：牛奶）
听第 2 组对话，回答第 7 题
7.What do they talk about
A. （图片：图书馆位置） B. （图片：餐厅食物） C. （图片：体育器材）
听第 3 组对话，回答第 8-9 题
8.How many students are there in Mike’s class
A. 35. B. 45. C. 55.
9.What’s on the teacher’s desk
A. A shelf. B. A book. C. A computer.
听第 4 组对话，回答第 10-11 题
10.When do they have science class
A. On Tuesday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Friday.
11.Why does the girl love history
A. Because she is good at it. B. Because the homework is easy. C. Because it’s interesting.
听第 5 组对话，回答第 12-14 题
12.When does Simon have English
A. On Wednesday. B. On Friday. C. On Thursday.
13.What subject does Mr. Smith teach
A. Math. B. Science. C. English.
14.What does Simon think of Mr. Smith
A. Excellent. B. Smart. C. Handsome.
听第 6 组对话，回答第 15-18 题
15.How is Mary’s school life
A. Not bad. B. Pretty good. C. A little boring.
16.Which club does Mary join
A. English Club. B. Music Club. C. Sports Club.
17.When does the club have activities
A. On Monday afternoons. B. On Wednesday evenings. C. On Saturday mornings.
18.Who does Mary usually go to the club with
A. Her sister. B. Her classmate. C. Her mother.
第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共 7 题；每题 1 分，满分 7 分）
听下面一篇短文，回答第 19-21 题
19. Where is Tom’s new school
A. Near his home. B. Next to a park. C. Behind a hospital.
20. How does Tom go to school every day
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On foot.
21. What time does Tom’s first class start
A. At 7:30. B. At 8:00. C. At 8:30.
听下面一篇短文，回答第 22-25 题
22. How many people are there in Li Hua’s family
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.
23. What does Li Hua’s father do
A. A teacher. B. A doctor. C. A driver.
24. What’s Li Hua’s favourite subject
A. English. B. Math. C. Music.
25. What does Li Hua like to do in his free time
A. Read books. B. Play basketball. C. Listen to music.
第四节 听短文填空（共 5 题；每题 1 分，满分 5 分）
请根据短文内容，写出表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。
信息类别 具体内容
School name 26. ________ Middle School
Favourite day 27. ________ (Friday)
After-school activity 28. Play ________ (football)
Dinner time 29. At ________ (6:30/six thirty)
Evening plan 30. Do ________ (homework)
第二部分 语言运用（共 25 分）
第一节 完形填空（共 10 题；每题 1 分，满分 10 分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳答案。
My name is Lucy. I’m a seventh-grader. This term, I go to a new school. It’s not very big, 31 it’s clean and beautiful. There are many green trees and colorful flowers in the school yard. I like my new class very much. There are 32 students in our class—20 girls and 15 boys. Our classroom is on the second floor. It’s bright and tidy.
Our English teacher is Miss Green. She is from England. She is young and kind. She has long blonde hair and big blue eyes. She 33 English very well. Her classes are always interesting, so we all like 34. Every morning, we read English 35 the classroom. Miss Green often helps us 36 our pronunciation.
After school, I often join the English Club. We meet every Thursday afternoon. In the club, we can 37 English stories, sing English songs and make new friends. Last week, we had an English party. I sang a song and got a small gift. I was very 38.
I also like other subjects, like math and music. But English is my favourite. I think it’s important 39 learn English well. I hope I can 40 a good English speaker one day.
31. A. and B. but C. so D. or
32. A. 34 B. 35 C. 36 D. 37
33. A. speaks B. says C. tells D. talks
34. A. him B. her C. it D. them
35. A. on B. in C. at D. for
36. A. with B. to C. for D. about
37. A. read B. write C. watch D. see
38. A. sad B. angry C. happy D. bored
39. A. for B. to C. of D. with
40. A. am B. is C. are D. be
第二节 短文填空（共 15 题；每题 1 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的内容（1 个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。
Today is Sunday. It’s a sunny day. My family and I 41. (plan) to go to the park. We get up early in the morning. After breakfast, we take a bus to the park. It 42. (take) us about 20 minutes to get there.
When we arrive, there are many people in the park. Some children 43. (play) games on the grass. Some old people are dancing to music. My father likes 44. (fish), so he goes to the lake with my brother. My mother and I walk around the park. We see many beautiful 45. (flower) and some cute birds.
At noon, we have a picnic near the lake. We bring some bread, milk, fruit and sandwiches. The food is delicious. After lunch, my brother and I fly 46. kite. It flies high in the sky. We laugh 47. (happy).
In the afternoon, we go to the zoo in the park. We see tigers, lions, pandas and other 48. (animal). I like pandas best. They are black and white, and they look very cute. They 49. (eat) bamboo now.
At 4:30 in the afternoon, we start to go home. We are tired 50. happy. It’s a wonderful day. I hope we can have more time to go out with our family.
第三部分 阅读（共 40 分）
第一节 阅读理解（共 15 题；每题 2 分，满分 30 分）
阅读下列短文，从各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳答案。
A
Dear Peter,
How are you I’m writing to tell you about my school life. I’m in Grade Seven now. My school is big and nice. There are about 1,500 students in our school. We have classes from Monday to Friday. I have six classes a day: four in the morning and two in the afternoon.
My favourite subject is English. Our English teacher is Mr. Lee. He is very funny and his classes are always interesting. I also like P.E. We have P.E. on Tuesday and Thursday. I often play basketball with my classmates in P.E. class. It’s exciting.
I join the Music Club. We meet every Wednesday afternoon. I can play the piano a little. The club teacher teaches us new songs. I make some new friends there.
My school is near my home, so I walk to school every day. I usually have lunch at school. The food in the dining hall is good. I like my school life very much.
Please write to me soon and tell me about your school life.
Yours,
Li Ming
51. How many classes does Li Ming have a day
A. Four. B. Five. C. Six. D. Seven.
52. What’s Li Ming’s favourite subject
A. English. B. P.E. C. Music. D. Math.
53. When does Li Ming have P.E. classes
A. On Monday and Wednesday. B. On Tuesday and Thursday.
C. On Wednesday and Friday. D. On Thursday and Friday.
54. Which club does Li Ming join
A. English Club. B. Sports Club. C. Music Club. D. Art Club.
55. How does Li Ming go to school
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. By car. D. On foot.
B
There are many clubs in our school. Do you want to join one Let’s learn about them:
English Club: Do you like English We meet on Tuesday and Thursday afternoons. You can practice speaking English, read English stories and watch English movies. Our teacher Ms. White will help you with your English. It’s a good chance to make friends with students from other classes.
Sports Club: If you love sports, this club is for you. We have basketball, football and volleyball teams. We practice every Friday afternoon. We also take part in school sports games. You can keep healthy and make friends here.
Art Club: Are you good at drawing or painting We meet on Saturday mornings. There are many art books and materials in the club. Our teacher Mr. Brown will teach you new skills. We will have an art show next month. You can show your works there.
Music Club: Can you sing or play an instrument We have activities on Wednesday evenings. You can show your talent. We are preparing for a school e and join us!
56.How often does the English Club meet
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week. D. Four times a week.
57.When does the Sports Club practice
A. On Tuesday afternoons. B. On Wednesday evenings.
C. On Friday afternoons. D. On Saturday mornings.
58.What will the Art Club have next month
A. An English party. B. A sports game. C. An art show. D. A concert.
59.Which club has activities on Wednesday evenings
A. English Club. B. Sports Club. C. Art Club. D. Music Club.
60.What can students do in the English Club
A. Play basketball. B. Draw pictures. C. Practice English. D. Play the piano.
C
My name is Tom. I live in Beijing with my family. I’m a student of No. 1 Middle School. I’m in Grade Seven. Let me tell you about my daily life.
I usually get up at 6:30 in the morning. I brush my teeth and wash my face. Then I have breakfast with my parents. I often have bread, milk and an egg for breakfast. After breakfast, I go to school at 7:30. I take the bus to school. It takes me about 30 minutes to get there.
School starts at 8:00. I have four classes in the morning. At 12:00, I have lunch at school. The food is delicious. In the afternoon, I have two classes. Classes finish at 4:00. After school, I often play football with my classmates on the playground. I go home at 5:00.
When I get home, I do my homework first. Then I help my mother with housework. We have dinner at 6:30. After dinner, I read English books or watch TV. I go to bed at 9:00.
This is my daily life. I think it’s busy but happy.
61. Where does Tom live
A. Shanghai. B. Beijing. C. Guangzhou. D. Shenzhen.
62. What time does Tom get up
A. At 6:00. B. At 6:30. C. At 7:00. D. At 7:30.
63. How does Tom go to school
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On foot. D. By car.
64. What does Tom often do after school
A. Do homework. B. Play football. C. Help with housework. D. Read books.
65. When does Tom go to bed
A. At 8:30. B. At 9:00. C. At 9:30. D. At 10:00.
第二节 阅读表达（共 5 题；每题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，根据要求完成下列各题。
My name is Sarah. I’m 13 years old. I’m a student in Grade Seven. I have a big family. There are five people in my family: my parents, my elder brother, my younger sister and me.
My father is a teacher. He works in a middle school. He teaches math. He is very strict but kind. My mother is a doctor. She works in a hospital. She is busy every day. My elder brother is 16 years old. He is in Grade Ten. He likes playing computer games. My younger sister is 8 years old. She is in Grade Two. She is very cute and loves drawing.
I like reading books. My favourite books are storybooks. I often read books in my free time. I also like English. I think it’s very interesting. I practice speaking English every day. I want to be an English teacher when I grow up.
On weekends, my family often go to the park or the zoo. We have a good time together. I love my family very much.
66. How many people are there in Sarah’s family
67.What does Sarah’s father do
68.What does Sarah’s elder brother like doing
69.What’s Sarah’s favourite subject
70.t does Sarah want to be when she grows up
第四部分 情景交际（共 5 题；每题 2 分，满分 10 分）
根据对话内容，从方框中选择恰当的句子补全对话，使对话完整、通顺。
A: Hello, Mike! 71. ________
B: Hello, Lucy! I’m fine, thank you. And you
A: I’m good, too. 72. ________
B: I’m going to the library. I want to borrow some English books.
A: 73. ________
B: Yes, I like English very much. It’s my favourite subject.
A: 74. ________
B: Because it’s interesting. And our English teacher is very kind.
A: I like English, too. 75. ________
B: Sure! Let’s go together.
A. Why do you like it
B. How are you
C. Where are you going
D. Can I go with you
E. Do you like English
第五部分 写作（满分 15 分）
假设你是李华，你的英国笔友 Jack 想了解你的学校生活。请你根据以下提示给他写一封电子邮件，介绍你的学校生活。
提示：
学校概况（大小、环境等）；
日常课程安排；
最喜欢的科目及原因；
课后活动；
对学校生活的感受。
要求：
词数 60-80；
条理清晰，语句通顺；
文中不得出现真实的人名、校名、地名。
参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力（30 分）
第一节（5 分）
1-5: ACBCA
第二节（13 分）
6-10: CABAC 11-15: CBABB 16-18: BBC
第三节（7 分）
19-21: ACB 22-25: BACC
第四节（5 分）
26.Sunshine 27. Friday 28. football 29. 6:30/six thirty 30. homework
（听力原文略，可根据实际教学需求补充）
第二部分 语言运用（25 分）
第一节 完形填空（10 分）
31-35: BBABB 36-40: AACBD
第二节 短文填空（15 分）
41.plan 42. takes 43. are playing 44. fishing 45. flowers
a 47. happily 48. animals 49. are eating 50. but
第三部分 阅读（40 分）
第一节 阅读理解（30 分）
51-55: CABCB 56-60: BCCDC 61-65: BBABB
第二节 阅读表达（10 分）
66.Five./There are five people in her family.
67.He is a teacher./A teacher.
68.He likes playing computer games.
69.English./Her favourite subject is English.
70.She wants to be an English teacher.
第四部分 情景交际（10 分）
71-75: BCEAD
第五部分 写作（15 分）
评分标准
一等（13-15 分）：符合提示要求，内容完整，语句通顺，语法正确，词数达标，书写工整。
二等（10-12 分）：基本符合提示要求，内容较完整，语句较通顺，语法基本正确，词数基本达标，书写规范。
三等（7-9 分）：部分符合提示要求，内容不完整，语句有少量错误，语法有少量错误，词数不足，书写较规范。
四等（0-6 分）：不符合提示要求，内容空洞，语句不通顺，语法错误较多，词数严重不足，书写不规范。
参考范文
Dear Jack,
I’m glad to tell you about my school life. My school is big and beautiful with many trees and flowers. We have classes from Monday to Friday. We have six classes a day. My favourite subject is English because it’s interesting and our teacher is kind. After school, I often join the English Club or play football with my classmates. My school life is busy but happy. I love it very much.
Yours,
Li Hua

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